2a671 Vol2

70 Questions | Total Attempts: 24

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2a671 Vol2


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?
    • A. 

      Air Combat Command (ACC).

    • B. 

      Air Education and Training Command (AETC).

    • C. 

      Air Training Command (ATC).

    • D. 

      Air Reserve Command (AFRC).

  • 2. 
    The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?
    • A. 

      Maintenance Orientation.

    • B. 

      General Technical Order System.

    • C. 

      Weight and Balance.

    • D. 

      Any 7-level course.

  • 3. 
    How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (SCR)?
    • A. 

      Annually.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Monthly.

    • D. 

      Semi-annually.

  • 4. 
    In order to be given authority to downgrade a “Red-X” an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of
    • A. 

      MSgt.

    • B. 

      SMSgt.

    • C. 

      TSgt.

    • D. 

      CMSgt.

  • 5. 
    Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time
    • A. 

      Access to Distance Learning courseware.

    • B. 

      Access to special certification roster criteria listings.

    • C. 

      Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide.

    • D. 

      Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel.

  • 6. 
    In the Training Business Area (TBA), what type of notification does the “System Messages” board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information?
    • A. 

      Application problems.

    • B. 

      Open suspenses.

    • C. 

      System upgrades.

    • D. 

      Changes to your user roles.

  • 7. 
    What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?
    • A. 

      IV.

    • B. 

      II.

    • C. 

      I.

    • D. 

      III.

  • 8. 
    What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses?
    • A. 

      Maintenance qualification.

    • B. 

      On-the-job.

    • C. 

      Maintenance refresher.

    • D. 

      Ancillary.

  • 9. 
    How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?
    • A. 

      Semiannually.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Annually.

    • D. 

      Monthly.

  • 10. 
    An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?
    • A. 

      15.

    • B. 

      60.

    • C. 

      45.

    • D. 

      30.

  • 11. 
    Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?
    • A. 

      Unit training manager.

    • B. 

      Group commander.

    • C. 

      Operations officer.

    • D. 

      Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief.

  • 12. 
    Manpower authorizations are
    • A. 

      Both funded and unfunded.

    • B. 

      Unvalidated.

    • C. 

      Unfunded.

    • D. 

      Funded.

  • 13. 
    A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held
    • A. 

      Quarterly.

    • B. 

      Weekly.

    • C. 

      Monthly.

    • D. 

      Semiannually.

  • 14. 
    The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is
    • A. 

      15 hours.

    • B. 

      12 hours.

    • C. 

      13 hours.

    • D. 

      14 hours.

  • 15. 
    Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to
    • A. 

      16 hours.

    • B. 

      15 hours.

    • C. 

      14 hours.

    • D. 

      18 hours.

  • 16. 
    Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?
    • A. 

      Maintenance supply liaison.

    • B. 

      Maintenance data system analysis.

    • C. 

      Maintenance supply support.

    • D. 

      Maintenance operations center.

  • 17. 
    Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the
    • A. 

      Aircraft Maintenance Squadron (AMXS).

    • B. 

      Maintenance Operations Squadron (MOS).

    • C. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).

    • D. 

      Maintenance Squadron (MXS).

  • 18. 
    Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?
    • A. 

      Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list.

    • B. 

      Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions

    • C. 

      Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.

    • D. 

      Advising supervisors on supply management documents.

  • 19. 
    The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base’s Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?
    • A. 

      15.

    • B. 

      30.

    • C. 

      45.

    • D. 

      60.

  • 20. 
    Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?
    • A. 

      XF3.

    • B. 

      XD2.

    • C. 

      XD1.

    • D. 

      XB3.

  • 21. 
    The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?
    • A. 

      30.

    • B. 

      60.

    • C. 

      90.

    • D. 

      120.

  • 22. 
    Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date?
    • A. 

      I.

    • B. 

      III.

    • C. 

      IV.

    • D. 

      II.

  • 23. 
    Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?
    • A. 

      Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).

    • B. 

      MXG Deputy Commander.

    • C. 

      MXG Superintendent.

    • D. 

      MXG Commander.

  • 24. 
    What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?
    • A. 

      AF Primary Standards Laboratory.

    • B. 

      Engineering Data Service Center.

    • C. 

      Audio Visual Center.

    • D. 

      Communication and Information System.

  • 25. 
    Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
    • A. 

      Cloudy water.

    • B. 

      Oil sheen on standing water.

    • C. 

      Stressed vegetation.

    • D. 

      Stains on ground.

  • 26. 
    Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?
    • A. 

      Squadron commander.

    • B. 

      Section supervisor.

    • C. 

      Squadron safety monitor.

    • D. 

      Operations officer.

  • 27. 
    Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1577–1, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag-Material.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1577–2, Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1574, Serviceable Tag-Material.

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag.

  • 28. 
    Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?
    • A. 

      Flight Commander/Chief.

    • B. 

      Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).

    • C. 

      Squadron Commander.

    • D. 

      Section supervisor.

  • 29. 
    What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?
    • A. 

      I.

    • B. 

      III.

    • C. 

      IIA.

    • D. 

      IIB.

  • 30. 
    What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?
    • A. 

      DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss.

    • B. 

      AF IMT 453, Report of Survey Register.

    • C. 

      AF IMT 1185, Statement of Record Data.

    • D. 

      DD Form 362, Statement of Charges/Cash Collection Voucher.

  • 31. 
    Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?
    • A. 

      Flight Service Center (FSC).

    • B. 

      Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).

    • C. 

      Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO).

    • D. 

      Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO).

  • 32. 
    Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?
    • A. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander.

    • B. 

      Maintenance Group (MXG) deputy commander.

    • C. 

      Mission Support Group (MSG) commander.

    • D. 

      Maintenance Group (MXG) commander.

  • 33. 
    Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?
    • A. 

      C.

    • B. 

      G.

    • C. 

      A.

    • D. 

      P.

  • 34. 
    Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?
    • A. 

      D18, Priority Monitor Report.

    • B. 

      D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.

    • C. 

      D04, Daily Document Register.

    • D. 

      M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.

  • 35. 
    Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?
    • A. 

      M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.

    • B. 

      D04, Daily Document Register.

    • C. 

      D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.

    • D. 

      D18, Priority Monitor Report.

  • 36. 
    Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?
    • A. 

      D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.

    • B. 

      M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.

    • C. 

      D18, Priority Monitor Report.

    • D. 

      D04, Daily Document Register.

  • 37. 
    Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?
    • A. 

      Mission Support Group commander.

    • B. 

      Operations Group Commander.

    • C. 

      Aircraft commander.

    • D. 

      Host installation commander.

  • 38. 
    When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every
    • A. 

      Hour.

    • B. 

      2 hours.

    • C. 

      3 hours.

    • D. 

      4 hours.

  • 39. 
    Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit’s list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?
    • A. 

      MX Operations Officer (MOO)/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT).

    • B. 

      Flight commander/Chief.

    • C. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.

    • D. 

      Maintenance Group commander.

  • 40. 
    Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request?
    • A. 

      Customer.

    • B. 

      Maintenance Supply Liaison.

    • C. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Customer Service.

    • D. 

      Maintenance Supply support.

  • 41. 
    Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?
    • A. 

      1A or JA.

    • B. 

      BM or CM.

    • C. 

      AR or BR.

    • D. 

      AA or AM.

  • 42. 
    Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must Maintenance coordinate with?
    • A. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Flight Service Center.

    • B. 

      MXG Maintenance Data System Analysis.

    • C. 

      LRS material management element.

    • D. 

      Maintenance Group (MXG) Quality Assurance.

  • 43. 
    Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor?
    • A. 

      Annually.

    • B. 

      Semiannually.

    • C. 

      Monthly.

    • D. 

      Quarterly.

  • 44. 
    When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the
    • A. 

      Maintenance Operations Center (MOC).

    • B. 

      Operations Officer.

    • C. 

      Aircraft Maintenance Unit’s (AMU) Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) dedicated scheduler.

    • D. 

      Aircraft Section flight chief.

  • 45. 
    When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?
    • A. 

      Deficiency Report (DR).

    • B. 

      Supply Discrepancy Report.

    • C. 

      Maintenance cross-tell report.

    • D. 

      Product Quality Deficiency Report.

  • 46. 
    Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group?
    • A. 

      Action Point.

    • B. 

      Originator.

    • C. 

      Originating Point.

    • D. 

      Screening Point.

  • 47. 
    Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization?
    • A. 

      Screening Point.

    • B. 

      Originating Point.

    • C. 

      Originator.

    • D. 

      Action Point.

  • 48. 
    Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within
    • A. 

      8 hours.

    • B. 

      16 hours.

    • C. 

      24 hours.

    • D. 

      32 hours.

  • 49. 
    Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?
    • A. 

      Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required.

    • B. 

      Advising MXG/CC on TO availability.

    • C. 

      Resolving TO availability problems.

    • D. 

      Assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts.

  • 50. 
    What Maintenance Operations Flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies?
    • A. 

      Maintenance Supply Liaison.

    • B. 

      Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.

    • C. 

      Maintenance Operations Center.

    • D. 

      Maintenance Management Analysis.

  • 51. 
    The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section?
    • A. 

      Quality Assurance.

    • B. 

      Maintenance Data System Analysis.

    • C. 

      Engine Management.

    • D. 

      Maintenance Operations Center.

  • 52. 
    Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?
    • A. 

      Routine.

    • B. 

      Emergency.

    • C. 

      Urgent.

    • D. 

      Standard.

  • 53. 
    Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system?
    • A. 

      A4MT.

    • B. 

      A4U.

    • C. 

      A4YE.

    • D. 

      A4BM.

  • 54. 
    Who designates cannibalization authorities?
    • A. 

      Maintenance Group (MXG) Commander.

    • B. 

      Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).

    • C. 

      MXG Superintendent.

    • D. 

      MXG Vice Commander.

  • 55. 
    If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), the CANN authority is required to notify
    • A. 

      Quality Assurance.

    • B. 

      Programs and Resources Flight.

    • C. 

      Maintenance Management analysis (MMA).

    • D. 

      Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D).

  • 56. 
    Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area?
    • A. 

      Radiographic inspections.

    • B. 

      Weapons loading operations.

    • C. 

      Aircraft on jacks.

    • D. 

      Fuel system repair.

  • 57. 
    Red Ball maintenance is not designed to prevent
    • A. 

      Ground aborts.

    • B. 

      Aircraft status changes.

    • C. 

      Late takeoffs.

    • D. 

      Air aborts.

  • 58. 
    Who designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation?
    • A. 

      Applicable Impoundment Authority.

    • B. 

      MXG Impoundment Release Authority.

    • C. 

      Maintenance Group (MXG) Vice Commander.

    • D. 

      Applicable Squadron commander.

  • 59. 
    Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas?
    • A. 

      Wing Commander (WG/CC).

    • B. 

      Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD).

    • C. 

      Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC).

    • D. 

      Wing Vice Commander (WG/CV).

  • 60. 
    How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?
    • A. 

      8.

    • B. 

      10.

    • C. 

      9.

    • D. 

      11.

  • 61. 
    The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the
    • A. 

      Quality Assurance section.

    • B. 

      Maintenance Operations Center.

    • C. 

      Maintenance Flight.

    • D. 

      Engine Management section.

  • 62. 
    The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident?
    • A. 

      12.

    • B. 

      48.

    • C. 

      24.

    • D. 

      8.

  • 63. 
    Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program?
    • A. 

      Explosive munitions.

    • B. 

      Panel.

    • C. 

      Bolt.

    • D. 

      Safety pin.

  • 64. 
    A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW
    • A. 

      AFI 10–2510, USAF Emergency Notification Signals.

    • B. 

      AFI 91–221, Weapons Safety Investigations and Reports.

    • C. 

      AFI 91–224, Ground Safety Investigations and Reports.

    • D. 

      AFI 10–206, Operational Reporting.

  • 65. 
    Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?
    • A. 

      AFI 10–403, Deployment Planning and Execution.

    • B. 

      AFTTP 3–21.1, Aircraft Maintenance.

    • C. 

      AFI 33–103, Requirements Development and Processing.

    • D. 

      AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management.

  • 66. 
    Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed?
    • A. 

      MAJCOM Inspector General.

    • B. 

      Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT).

    • C. 

      Wing Inspector General.

    • D. 

      Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD).

  • 67. 
    When a unit has received an unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs Quality Assurance (QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days?
    • A. 

      30.

    • B. 

      60.

    • C. 

      90.

    • D. 

      120.

  • 68. 
    What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task?
    • A. 

      Quality Verification Inspection.

    • B. 

      Special Inspection.

    • C. 

      Personnel Evaluation.

    • D. 

      Management Inspection.

  • 69. 
    What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?
    • A. 

      Quality Verification Inspection.

    • B. 

      Personnel Evaluation.

    • C. 

      Management Inspection.

    • D. 

      Special Inspection.

  • 70. 
    In regards to the modification management program, which agency serves as the operator’s interface with the single point manager for a weapons system?
    • A. 

      Inspector General.

    • B. 

      Lead command.

    • C. 

      Air Force Mobility Command.

    • D. 

      Quality Assurance.