Weekend Assessment S4 By Kmsa -med
This MCQ's quiz made by KMSA-MED , MCQ's team -Stage 2 MCQ's Team : Ahmed Zaini Alhussain Salah Masarra Yasser Raheem Jumana Hafidh Hebba Saaed Hussein al-Harmoosh Shams Ghani Mohammed Mahdi Lujain Mohammed MawashGood Luck
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Type description here
- 2.
Stereotype is
- A.
Generalizations we make about specific social group and it’s members
- B.
How people think,feel and behave
- C.
Important for prevention and treatment of illness
- D.
Member of group share some common characteristics
Correct Answer
A. Generalizations we make about specific social group and it’s membersExplanation
The correct answer is "Generalizations we make about specific social group and its members." Stereotype refers to the generalizations that individuals make about a particular social group and the members belonging to it. It involves assuming that all individuals within a group possess certain common characteristics or traits. Stereotypes can often be based on limited or inaccurate information and can lead to unfair judgments or discrimination towards individuals based on their group membership.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Ageist stereotype of old people’s behavior:
- A.
Intellectual deterioration is the norm
- B.
Period of personal production
- C.
Old people are able to innovate
- D.
Most stereotype of old people are accurate
Correct Answer
A. Intellectual deterioration is the normExplanation
This answer suggests that the ageist stereotype of old people's behavior is that intellectual deterioration is the norm. This stereotype implies that as people age, their cognitive abilities decline and they become less mentally sharp. However, it is important to note that this stereotype is not accurate as many older adults continue to maintain their intellectual abilities and engage in cognitive activities. Age should not be equated with a decline in intelligence or cognitive functioning.Rate this question:
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- 4.
To stop smoking or alcohol misuse,pair them with unpleasant response . This is related to which theory:
- A.
Classical conditioning
- B.
Operant conditioning
- C.
Social learning theory
- D.
Theory of reasoned action / planned behavior
Correct Answer
A. Classical conditioningExplanation
The theory of classical conditioning suggests that pairing smoking or alcohol misuse with unpleasant responses can help to stop these behaviors. Classical conditioning involves associating a neutral stimulus (such as smoking or alcohol) with an unconditioned stimulus (such as an unpleasant response) to create a conditioned response (such as aversion to smoking or alcohol). By repeatedly pairing these stimuli together, individuals can learn to associate smoking or alcohol with negative experiences, which can help to decrease the desire for these substances.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The most age sensitive component of intelligence seems to be memory
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The given statement states that memory is the most age sensitive component of intelligence. However, this is not entirely true. While memory does decline with age, other components of intelligence such as problem-solving, reasoning, and creativity are also affected. Age can impact various aspects of intelligence differently for different individuals. Therefore, it is incorrect to claim that memory is the most age sensitive component of intelligence.Rate this question:
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- 6.
I haven’t been smoking for 3 months Maintenance
- A.
Preparation
- B.
Action
- C.
Contemplation
- D.
Relapse
Correct Answer
A. PreparationExplanation
The statement "I haven't been smoking for 3 months" indicates that the person has already made progress in quitting smoking. They have successfully abstained from smoking for a significant period of time, which suggests that they have already gone through the contemplation stage and are now in the preparation stage. The preparation stage is characterized by actively planning and getting ready to take action towards quitting smoking. Therefore, the correct answer is "Preparation".Rate this question:
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- 7.
According to ICD-10 classifications for Harmful use the pattern of use has persisted for at least
- A.
1 month
- B.
12 month
- C.
12 month
- D.
1 day
Correct Answer
A. 1 monthExplanation
The correct answer is 1 month because according to the ICD-10 classifications for Harmful use, the pattern of use needs to persist for at least 1 month in order to be classified as harmful use. This means that the individual has been consistently engaging in the harmful behavior for a period of 1 month or longer.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Recommended Units of Alcohol in men per week
- A.
21
- B.
14
- C.
3-4
- D.
2-3
Correct Answer
A. 21Explanation
The recommended units of alcohol for men per week is 21. This means that men should limit their alcohol intake to 21 units or less in a week. It is important to note that excessive alcohol consumption can have negative effects on physical and mental health. Therefore, it is advisable for men to adhere to the recommended limit to maintain a healthy lifestyle.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Transmission from comfortable zone to fear zone is
- A.
Cognitive dissonance
- B.
Belief about health threat
- C.
Belief about health related behaviour
- D.
Perceived control
Correct Answer
A. Cognitive dissonanceExplanation
Cognitive dissonance refers to the discomfort experienced when an individual holds conflicting beliefs or attitudes. In the context of the question, the transmission from the comfortable zone to the fear zone can be explained by cognitive dissonance. When individuals are confronted with a health threat or the need to change their health-related behavior, it creates a conflict between their current comfortable state and the potential negative consequences. This conflict leads to discomfort and motivates individuals to move out of their comfort zone and into the fear zone in order to resolve the cognitive dissonance.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Important concept developed from social learning theory
- A.
Self efficacy
- B.
Attitude
- C.
Expectation
- D.
Knowledge
Correct Answer
A. Self efficacyExplanation
Self efficacy is an important concept developed from social learning theory. It refers to an individual's belief in their own abilities to successfully complete a task or achieve a goal. This belief plays a crucial role in determining the level of effort and persistence an individual puts into their actions. It also influences their motivation, decision-making, and overall performance. Self efficacy is based on past experiences, observation of others, and the individual's own interpretation of their capabilities. It is an essential factor in understanding human behavior and can have significant implications in various fields such as education, psychology, and workplace performance.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Olfactory impairment is one example of
- A.
Sensory disability
- B.
Mental disability
- C.
Physical disability
- D.
Learning disability
Correct Answer
A. Sensory disabilityExplanation
Olfactory impairment refers to a loss or decrease in the sense of smell. This sensory disability affects the ability to detect and identify odors, which can have a significant impact on a person's daily life. Sensory disabilities refer to impairments in any of the five senses, including sight, hearing, touch, taste, and smell. Since olfactory impairment specifically affects the sense of smell, it falls under the category of sensory disabilities. Mental disability refers to cognitive impairments, physical disability refers to impairments in mobility or physical function, and learning disability refers to difficulties in learning and processing information.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Motivational intervention that is used as treatment of alcoholics is established by
- A.
Sanchez and Miller
- B.
Pavlovian and Miller
- C.
Sanchez and Pavlovian
- D.
Bandura and Pavlovian
Correct Answer
A. Sanchez and MillerExplanation
Sanchez and Miller established the motivational intervention as a treatment for alcoholics. This intervention aims to motivate individuals to change their behavior and overcome their addiction to alcohol. It involves techniques such as goal-setting, self-monitoring, and providing feedback and support. The intervention is based on the belief that individuals can be motivated to change their behavior if they have the necessary skills and support. Sanchez and Miller's work has contributed to the development of effective interventions for alcoholism.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Longitudinal studies emphasised a gradual linear decline in IQ throughout adult life, accelerating after age 70
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Longitudinal studies have actually shown that there is not a gradual linear decline in IQ throughout adult life. Instead, research suggests that there may be some decline in certain cognitive abilities as individuals age, but it is not a consistent or inevitable decline. Additionally, the idea that the decline accelerates after age 70 is also not supported by the evidence. While some individuals may experience cognitive decline in older age, others may maintain their cognitive abilities or even show improvement. Therefore, the statement is false.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Achalasia is a problem in
- A.
Lower oesophagus sphincter
- B.
Upper oesophagus sphincter
- C.
Pyloric sphincter
- D.
Sphincter of oddi
Correct Answer
A. Lower oesophagus sphincterExplanation
Achalasia is a problem in the lower esophageal sphincter. This condition occurs when the lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax properly, causing difficulty in the passage of food and liquids from the esophagus into the stomach. This can lead to symptoms such as difficulty swallowing, regurgitation of food, chest pain, and weight loss. Treatment options for achalasia include medication, dilation of the sphincter, and surgery.Rate this question:
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- 15.
One of the following isn't a classical symptom of GERD
- A.
Chest pain
- B.
Acid reflux
- C.
Water brash
- D.
Retrosternal burning
Correct Answer
A. Chest painExplanation
Chest pain is not a classical symptom of GERD. While acid reflux, water brash, and retrosternal burning are commonly associated with GERD, chest pain is not typically considered a primary symptom. Chest pain is more commonly associated with other conditions such as heartburn or angina.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Heller's myotomy is a treatment of
- A.
Achalasia
- B.
GERD
- C.
Barrett's osophagus
- D.
Esophageal cancer
Correct Answer
A. AchalasiaExplanation
Heller's myotomy is a surgical procedure used to treat achalasia, a condition where the lower esophageal sphincter does not relax properly, causing difficulty in swallowing. During the procedure, the muscles of the lower esophagus and upper stomach are cut to allow food and liquids to pass through more easily. This helps to relieve the symptoms of achalasia, such as regurgitation, chest pain, and difficulty swallowing. Therefore, Heller's myotomy is specifically used for the treatment of achalasia, making it the correct answer in this case.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Gall stones can cause jaundice, which type of jaundice occur in this condition
- A.
Post-hepatic jaundice
- B.
Hepatic jaundice
- C.
Pre-hepatic jaundice
- D.
Hemolytic jaundice
Correct Answer
A. Post-hepatic jaundiceExplanation
Gall stones can cause post-hepatic jaundice. Post-hepatic jaundice, also known as obstructive jaundice, occurs when there is a blockage in the bile ducts, preventing the flow of bile from the liver to the small intestine. Gall stones can obstruct the bile ducts, leading to a buildup of bilirubin in the bloodstream and resulting in jaundice. This type of jaundice is characterized by yellowing of the skin and eyes, dark urine, pale stools, and itching.Rate this question:
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- 18.
One of these is not a cause of peptic ulcer:
- A.
Proton pump inhibitor
- B.
H.Pylori
- C.
Histamin 2 receptor agonist
- D.
Drugs which affect prostaglandin secretion
Correct Answer
A. Proton pump inhibitorExplanation
Proton pump inhibitors are not a cause of peptic ulcer. In fact, they are commonly used to treat peptic ulcers by reducing the production of stomach acid. Peptic ulcers are typically caused by factors such as H. pylori infection, excessive acid production, and drugs that affect prostaglandin secretion. Therefore, the use of proton pump inhibitors can actually help to alleviate the symptoms and promote healing of peptic ulcers.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Thick layers of smooth muscles responsible for local movement of GIT tract is
- A.
Muscularis externa
- B.
Sub mucosa
- C.
Adventia
- D.
Muscularis mucosa
Correct Answer
A. Muscularis externaExplanation
Muscularis externa do this fuction but muscularis mucosa controls local mucosal movementRate this question:
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- 20.
What is the outer layer of the GI tract called when it is abutting another organ?
- A.
Adventitia
- B.
Sub mucosa
- C.
Muscularis externa
- D.
Serosa
Correct Answer
A. AdventitiaExplanation
The outer layer of the GI tract is called adventitia when it is abutting another organ. The adventitia is a connective tissue layer that helps to anchor the GI tract to surrounding structures. It does not have a serous membrane like the serosa, which covers the rest of the GI tract. The submucosa is the layer beneath the mucosa, and the muscularis externa is the layer responsible for the movement and contraction of the GI tract.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Longitudinal folds of mucosa that allow the expansion of stomach called
- A.
Rugae
- B.
Plicae folds
- C.
Brush border
- D.
Taeniae folds
Correct Answer
A. RugaeExplanation
Rugae are longitudinal folds of the mucosa that line the stomach. These folds allow the stomach to expand and accommodate larger amounts of food. When the stomach is empty, the rugae flatten out, and when it is full, they expand and stretch. This helps the stomach to increase its capacity and aids in the digestion and absorption of nutrients.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which of following condition effect only the large bowel Mucosa
- A.
Ulcerative colitis
- B.
Crohn's disease
- C.
Peptic ulcer
- D.
GERD
Correct Answer
A. Ulcerative colitisExplanation
Ulcerative colitis is an inflammatory bowel disease that specifically affects the large bowel mucosa. It causes inflammation and ulcers in the lining of the colon and rectum. Crohn's disease, on the other hand, can affect any part of the digestive tract from the mouth to the anus, not just the large bowel mucosa. Peptic ulcers primarily occur in the stomach and upper part of the small intestine, while GERD (gastroesophageal reflux disease) affects the esophagus. Therefore, the only condition that exclusively affects the large bowel mucosa is ulcerative colitis.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Goblet cells are responsible for production of mucose in the stomach
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
mucous neck cells are responsible for this fuctionRate this question:
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- 24.
In adult kidney, the metanephric tissue cap gives rise to all of following structures except
- A.
Glomerulus
- B.
Distal convoluted tubules
- C.
Loop of henle
- D.
Bowman's capsule
- E.
Proximal convoluted tubules
Correct Answer
A. GlomerulusExplanation
The metanephric tissue cap in the adult kidney gives rise to all of the listed structures except the glomerulus. The glomerulus is actually derived from the mesonephric tissue cap.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which abnormality is not correctly paired with its description
- A.
Polyhydramnios - a deficiency of amniotic fluid
- B.
Ectopic ureter- ureter opens into urethra
- C.
Horse shoes kidney -two kidney may fuse
- D.
Cystic kidney- failure of union between the developing nephron and collecting tubules
Correct Answer
A. Polyhydramnios - a deficiency of amniotic fluidExplanation
Polyhydramnios is not correctly paired with its description. Polyhydramnios refers to an excess amount of amniotic fluid, not a deficiency.Rate this question:
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- 26.
At the 10th week ,fetal can excrete waste production by
- A.
Placenta
- B.
Metanephros
- C.
Mesonephros
- D.
Non of the those
Correct Answer
A. PlacentaExplanation
During the 10th week of pregnancy, the fetal waste production is excreted by the placenta. The placenta is an organ that develops during pregnancy and is responsible for providing oxygen and nutrients to the fetus, as well as removing waste products such as carbon dioxide and urea. It acts as a barrier between the mother and fetus, allowing for the exchange of substances and waste elimination. Therefore, the correct answer is Placenta.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Potter sequence caused by
- A.
Bilateral renal agenesis
- B.
Unilateral renal agenesis
- C.
Hypoplastic lungs
- D.
All of them
Correct Answer
A. Bilateral renal agenesisExplanation
The Potter sequence is a condition characterized by a set of physical abnormalities that occur in a fetus due to a lack of amniotic fluid. This lack of fluid can be caused by various factors, but in this case, the correct answer is bilateral renal agenesis. Bilateral renal agenesis refers to the absence of both kidneys, which leads to a decrease in the production of urine and subsequently a decrease in amniotic fluid. This decrease in amniotic fluid then causes compression of the fetus, resulting in the characteristic physical abnormalities seen in Potter sequence.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Filtration barrier of the kidney formed by
- A.
Capillary endothelium & vesceral layer of Bowmman's capsul & basement membrane
- B.
Capillary endothelium & parietal layer of Bowmman's capsul
- C.
Capillary endothelium & vesceral & parietal layer of Bowmman's capsul
- D.
Vesceral layer of Bowmman's capsul only
Correct Answer
A. Capillary endothelium & vesceral layer of Bowmman's capsul & basement membraneExplanation
The filtration barrier of the kidney is formed by the capillary endothelium, the visceral layer of Bowman's capsule, and the basement membrane. These three components work together to regulate the filtration of substances in the kidney. The capillary endothelium allows for the passage of small molecules, while preventing the passage of larger molecules like proteins. The visceral layer of Bowman's capsule further filters the substances, allowing only the filtered fluid to enter the tubules. The basement membrane provides additional support and acts as a barrier to prevent the passage of larger molecules.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The type of cells the cover thick ascending limb is
- A.
Simple cuboidal epithelium
- B.
Simple squamous epithelium
- C.
Simple columnar epithelium
- D.
Transitional epithelium
Correct Answer
A. Simple cuboidal epitheliumExplanation
The correct answer is simple cuboidal epithelium. This is because the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle in the kidney is responsible for reabsorbing ions and water from the filtrate. Simple cuboidal epithelium is well-suited for this function as it consists of a single layer of cube-shaped cells with microvilli on their apical surface, which increases the surface area for reabsorption. This type of epithelium also contains tight junctions between cells, preventing the leakage of reabsorbed substances back into the filtrate.Rate this question:
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- 30.
There is no active transport in Thick ascending limb
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement "There is no active transport in the Thick ascending limb" is false. The Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle in the kidney is responsible for active transport of sodium, potassium, and chloride ions out of the tubular fluid and into the surrounding interstitial fluid. This active transport creates a concentration gradient that allows for the reabsorption of water in the collecting duct. Thus, active transport plays a crucial role in the Thick ascending limb.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Fatima is neonatal baby born half hour ago,you notic that she has( flat face ) and ( club foot ) .She was put on machine to help here to breath. You expect bilateral Renal agenesis - so the consequences follow bilateral. Renal agenesis and cause abnormalities is
- A.
Oligohydramnios
- B.
Cardioagenesis
- C.
Cephalogenesis
- D.
Absent of some vital organs
Correct Answer
A. OligohydramniosExplanation
The correct answer is Oligohydramnios. Oligohydramnios refers to a condition where there is a decreased amount of amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus in the uterus. In cases of bilateral renal agenesis, where both kidneys are absent, the production of urine is reduced or absent, leading to a decrease in amniotic fluid. This can have significant consequences for the baby's development, as the amniotic fluid plays a crucial role in the growth and development of the fetus.Rate this question:
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- 32.
The correct sequence for the branching of the renal arteries is
- A.
Renal artery ,segmental artery ,interlobar artery ,arcuate artery
- B.
Renal artery , segmental artery , interlobular artery , arcuate artery
- C.
Renal artery ,interlobar artery , segmental artery , arcuate artery
- D.
Renal artery, arcuate artery , interlobular artery ,segmental artery
Correct Answer
A. Renal artery ,segmental artery ,interlobar artery ,arcuate arteryExplanation
The correct sequence for the branching of the renal arteries is as follows: renal artery, segmental artery, interlobar artery, arcuate artery. This sequence is based on the anatomical structure and blood flow within the kidney. The renal artery is the main artery that supplies blood to the kidney. It then branches into segmental arteries, which further divide into interlobar arteries. Finally, the interlobar arteries give rise to arcuate arteries, which form an arch-like pattern around the renal medulla. Therefore, the correct answer is renal artery, segmental artery, interlobar artery, arcuate artery.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Vasa recta lie parallel to
- A.
Non of the those
- B.
Loop of henle in cortical nephron
- C.
Collecting duct
- D.
Renal pyramid
Correct Answer
A. Non of the those -
- 34.
One way to measure the gas diffusing capacity of the lung
- A.
Carbon monoxide transfer factor measurment
- B.
Nitrogen washout
- C.
Helium dilution test
- D.
Lung function test
Correct Answer
A. Carbon monoxide transfer factor measurmentExplanation
The carbon monoxide transfer factor measurement is a method used to measure the gas diffusing capacity of the lung. This test involves inhaling a small amount of carbon monoxide gas and measuring the rate at which it is absorbed into the bloodstream. This measurement provides information about how efficiently the lungs are able to transfer gases, particularly oxygen, from the air into the bloodstream. By measuring the carbon monoxide transfer factor, healthcare professionals can assess lung function and diagnose conditions such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or pulmonary fibrosis.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The concentration of gas dissolved in a liquid is proportional to its partial pressure. This is as states by
- A.
Henry's law
- B.
Boyle's law
- C.
Boyle's law
- D.
Dalton's law
Correct Answer
A. Henry's lawExplanation
Henry's law states that the concentration of a gas dissolved in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the liquid. This means that as the partial pressure of the gas increases, more gas molecules will dissolve in the liquid, leading to a higher concentration. Conversely, if the partial pressure decreases, the concentration of the gas in the liquid will also decrease. Boyle's law, on the other hand, describes the relationship between the pressure and volume of a gas, while Dalton's law explains the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases. Therefore, the correct answer in this case is Henry's law.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The first rib is considered as ....... while the second cartilage is considered as ......
- A.
Atypical rib , typical vertebrae
- B.
Typical rib , atypical vertebrae
- C.
Typical rib , typical vertebrae
- D.
Atypical rib , atypical vertebrae
- E.
None of those
Correct Answer
A. Atypical rib , typical vertebraeExplanation
The first rib is considered atypical because it has unique characteristics compared to the other ribs. It is shorter, broader, and more curved than the typical ribs. The second cartilage, on the other hand, is considered typical because it follows the standard pattern of the other rib cartilages. It attaches the rib to the sternum, just like the cartilages of the other ribs. Therefore, the first rib is atypical while the second cartilage is typical.Rate this question:
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- 37.
External ICM is most active during expiration
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement is false because external intercostal muscles (ICM) are most active during inspiration, not expiration. During inspiration, the external ICM contract, causing the ribcage to expand and the lungs to fill with air. This action helps in increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity, creating a pressure gradient that allows air to flow into the lungs. During expiration, the external ICM relax and the lungs passively recoil, causing air to be expelled from the lungs.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The lungs contain millions of alveoli whose combined surface area totals about :
- A.
70 m2
- B.
60 m2
- C.
90 m2
- D.
50 m2
Correct Answer
A. 70 m2Explanation
The correct answer is 70 m2. The lungs contain millions of alveoli, which are tiny air sacs responsible for gas exchange. These alveoli have a large surface area, allowing for efficient exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. The total surface area of all the alveoli in the lungs is approximately 70 square meters.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The internal I.C.M extend from the costal grooves of the ribs above , to the superior surface of the ribs below :
- A.
Downward backward
- B.
Downward forward
- C.
Upward Backward.
- D.
Upward Forward.
Correct Answer
A. Downward backwardExplanation
The internal intercostal muscles (I.C.M) extend from the costal grooves of the ribs above to the superior surface of the ribs below in a downward backward direction. This means that these muscles run diagonally from the upper ribs towards the lower ribs, with a backward inclination. This arrangement allows the internal intercostal muscles to assist in the process of exhalation by pulling the ribs downward and backward, reducing the volume of the thoracic cavity and helping to expel air from the lungs.Rate this question:
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- 40.
The oblique fissure separates :
- A.
The upper and lower lobes of the left lung.
- B.
The upper and lower lobes of the right lung.
- C.
The upper lobe and the middle lobe of the right lung.
- D.
The right and left lung.
Correct Answer
A. The upper and lower lobes of the left lung.Explanation
The oblique fissure is a prominent anatomical structure that divides the lungs into lobes. In this case, it specifically separates the upper and lower lobes of the left lung. The oblique fissure runs obliquely from the posterior to the anterior aspect of the lung, creating a clear boundary between these two lobes. This division is important for understanding the anatomy and function of the lungs, as each lobe has its own specific characteristics and roles in respiration.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which costal cartilage articulates with the sternum at the level of sternal angle :
- A.
2nd cc
- B.
1st cc
- C.
3rd cc
- D.
4th cc
Correct Answer
A. 2nd ccExplanation
The correct answer is 2nd cc. The costal cartilage is a hyaline cartilage that connects the ribs to the sternum. The sternal angle, also known as the angle of Louis, is the articulation point between the manubrium and the body of the sternum. At this level, the 2nd costal cartilage articulates with the sternum.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Vital capacity is equal to :
- A.
TLC-RV.
- B.
ERV+IRV+RV.
- C.
IR +ERV
- D.
None of those
Correct Answer
A. TLC-RV.Explanation
The correct answer is TLC-RV because vital capacity is the maximum amount of air a person can exhale after taking a deep breath. It is equal to the total lung capacity (TLC) minus the residual volume (RV), which is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximum exhalation.Rate this question:
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- 43.
One of the following is a Site of posterior attachment of the vocal folds
- A.
Arytenoid cartilages
- B.
Corniculate cartilages
- C.
Cuneiform cartilages
- D.
Cricoid cartilages
- E.
Adam's apple
Correct Answer
A. Arytenoid cartilagesExplanation
The arytenoid cartilages are a pair of small, pyramid-shaped cartilages located at the posterior attachment of the vocal folds in the larynx. They play a crucial role in controlling the tension and position of the vocal folds, which are responsible for producing sound during speech. The arytenoid cartilages are connected to the cricoid cartilage and can pivot and slide to adjust the tension and position of the vocal folds, allowing for changes in pitch and volume. The other options, such as the corniculate cartilages, cuneiform cartilages, cricoid cartilages, and Adam's apple, are not directly involved in the attachment of the vocal folds.Rate this question:
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- 44.
A 48-year-old woman presented at the emergency room complaining of urinary urgency and flank pain. Microscopic examination of a urine sample revealed gram-negative rods. Prior to initiation of antibiotic therapy, she abruptly developed fever, chills, and delirium. Hypotension and hyperventilation rapidly followed. These observations suggest that the patient is responding to the release of bacterial
- A.
Lipopolysaccharide
- B.
Exotoxin
- C.
Hyaluronidase
- D.
Peptidoglycan
Correct Answer
A. LipopolysaccharideExplanation
The patient's symptoms of fever, chills, and delirium, followed by hypotension and hyperventilation, are consistent with a severe systemic inflammatory response known as septic shock. Gram-negative bacteria are known to release lipopolysaccharide (LPS), which is a component of their outer cell membrane. LPS is a potent endotoxin that can trigger a strong immune response, leading to the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines. This immune response can cause systemic vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, and organ dysfunction, resulting in the symptoms observed in the patient. Therefore, the release of bacterial lipopolysaccharide is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 45.
One of these viruses cause the common cold:
- A.
Rhinovirus
- B.
Adenovirus
- C.
JC virus
- D.
Rotavirus
Correct Answer
A. RhinovirusExplanation
Rhinovirus is the correct answer because it is a well-known and common cause of the common cold. It is a type of virus that infects the upper respiratory tract, leading to symptoms such as a runny nose, sore throat, and cough. Rhinovirus is highly contagious and can spread easily from person to person through respiratory droplets. It is responsible for a significant proportion of cold cases worldwide, particularly during the colder months. Adenovirus, JC virus, and rotavirus are not typically associated with the common cold, although they can cause other types of infections.Rate this question:
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- 46.
The enzymatic virulence factor that present in Staphylococcus aureus is streptokinase.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The enzymatic virulence factor present in Staphylococcus aureus is not streptokinase. Streptokinase is actually produced by Streptococcus species, not Staphylococcus aureus. Staphylococcus aureus produces several other virulence factors such as coagulase, hemolysins, and exfoliative toxins.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Carbapenems are
- A.
Broad spectrum antibiotics active against most gram negs.
- B.
Narrow spectrum antibiotics active against most gram positive.
- C.
Narrow spectrum antibiotics active against most gram positive.
- D.
Not safe in penicillin allergy
Correct Answer
A. Broad spectrum antibiotics active against most gram negs.Explanation
Carbapenems are a type of antibiotic that is effective against a wide range of gram-negative bacteria. Gram-negative bacteria are a group of bacteria that have a more complex cell wall structure, making them more resistant to antibiotics. Carbapenems are considered broad spectrum because they can target and kill a variety of different gram-negative bacteria. They are not effective against gram-positive bacteria or safe for use in individuals with a penicillin allergy.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Clarithromycin is a subclassification of
- A.
Macrolides
- B.
Anamycin
- C.
Fosfomycins
- D.
Phenicols
Correct Answer
A. MacrolidesExplanation
Clarithromycin is classified as a macrolide antibiotic. Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit. They are effective against a wide range of bacteria and are commonly used to treat respiratory tract infections, skin and soft tissue infections, and certain sexually transmitted infections. Clarithromycin specifically is used to treat respiratory tract infections such as pneumonia and bronchitis, as well as certain skin infections.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Cirprofloxacin is an antibacterial that
- A.
Inhibit DNA gyrase of gram negative bacteria
- B.
Inhibit protien synthysis of gram negative bacteria
- C.
Inhibit cell-membran synthsis in both gram negs and pos
- D.
Inhibit DNA synthesis only in gram positive
Correct Answer
A. Inhibit DNA gyrase of gram negative bacteriaExplanation
Ciprofloxacin is an antibacterial that inhibits DNA gyrase of gram-negative bacteria. DNA gyrase is an enzyme that helps in the replication and transcription of DNA in bacteria. By inhibiting DNA gyrase, ciprofloxacin prevents the bacteria from properly replicating and transcribing their DNA, ultimately leading to their death. This is why ciprofloxacin is effective against gram-negative bacteria.Rate this question:
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- 50.
One of the following is not a broad spectrum antibiotic
- A.
Vancomycin
- B.
Imipenem
- C.
Cephalosporin
- D.
Doxycycline
Correct Answer
A. VancomycinExplanation
Vancomycin is not a broad spectrum antibiotic because it primarily targets gram-positive bacteria, including methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) and Streptococcus species. It is not effective against gram-negative bacteria. On the other hand, imipenem, cephalosporin, and doxycycline are all broad spectrum antibiotics that can effectively target both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.Rate this question:
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