2a636 Vol. 1 Edit Code 05 (Rev. May 2018)

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2a636 Vol. 1 Edit Code 05 (Rev. May 2018)

Elecrtrical and environmental systems journeyman career development course. Any issues or questions regarding this pretest contact A1C Perez @ DSN 385-7282.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    If your tasks include component repair, engine overhaul, or structural repair of control surfaces, you are doing what type of maintenance?
    • A. 

      Flight line.

    • B. 

      On-equipment.

    • C. 

      Organizational.

    • D. 

      Off-equipment.

  • 2. 
    If you work on an aircraft on the flight line, you are doing which level of maintenance?
    • A. 

      Depot.

    • B. 

      Intermediate.

    • C. 

      Organizational.

    • D. 

      Off-equipment.

  • 3. 
    Who is the key individual that ensures maintenance resources meet the mission requirements?
    • A. 

      Squadron commander.

    • B. 

      Group commander.

    • C. 

      Wing commander.

    • D. 

      Base commander.

  • 4. 
    Who is responsible to the squadron commander for maintenance production?
    • A. 

      Maintenance group commander.

    • B. 

      Maintenance flight chief.

    • C. 

      Maintenance Operations.

    • D. 

      Flight chief.

  • 5. 
    Who is responsible to the maintenance superintendent for the leadership, supervision, and training of assigned personnel?
    • A. 

      Shift leader.

    • B. 

      Section chief.

    • C. 

      Flight commander/chief.

    • D. 

      Maintenance superintendent.

  • 6. 
    Who directs the overall maintenance effort of their unit?
    • A. 

      Section chief.

    • B. 

      Flight commander.

    • C. 

      Squadron commander.

    • D. 

      Production superintendent.

  • 7. 
    Which flight is part of a maintenance squadron?
    • A. 

      Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic Equipment.

    • B. 

      Maintenance Operations and Programs.

    • C. 

      Quality Assurance.

    • D. 

      Resources.

  • 8. 
    Which specialty is not a section of the Accessory Maintenance Flight?
    • A. 

      Survival equipment.

    • B. 

      Fuels systems.

    • C. 

      Pneudraulics.

    • D. 

      Egress.

  • 9. 
    Which aircraft maintenance squadron section consists of crew chiefs?
    • A. 

      Support.

    • B. 

      Aircraft.

    • C. 

      Weapons.

    • D. 

      Specialist.

  • 10. 
    Quality maintenance is the responsibility of maintenance technicians, supervisors, and commanders who work in concert with
    • A. 

      Maintenance training.

    • B. 

      Quality assurance.

    • C. 

      Resources.

    • D. 

      Egress.

  • 11. 
    The three phases of the operational events subsystem of the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) are
    • A. 

      Input, output, and archive.

    • B. 

      On-line, off-line, and update.

    • C. 

      Mission tracking, data recording, and retrieval.

    • D. 

      Mission recording, mission accomplishment, and analysis.

  • 12. 
    You are completing one of the aircraft and supporting maintenance forms. How do you correctly write 30 January 2016?
    • A. 

      20160130

    • B. 

      01/30/16

    • C. 

      30/01/16

    • D. 

      16/01/30

  • 13. 
    When a malfunction is entered on a maintenance form, who determines the correct symbol to use?
    • A. 

      Your supervisor.

    • B. 

      Maintenance officer.

    • C. 

      Production superintendent.

    • D. 

      Individual making the entry.

  • 14. 
    What determines a red X “unsafe for flight” discrepancy?
    • A. 

      The removal of a component that affects safe operation of the equipment.

    • B. 

      Upon receipt of a routine action time compliance technical order (TCTO).

    • C. 

      An inspection or operational check is due.

    • D. 

      An unknown condition.

  • 15. 
    When a new Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781A is initiated, what kind of discrepancies cannot be transferred to the AFTO Form 781K?
    • A. 

      Red X.

    • B. 

      Red dash.

    • C. 

      Red diagonal.

    • D. 

      Discrepancies with a supply document number.

  • 16. 
    Which Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 781 series form provides the overall flight status, or condition of the aircraft?
    • A. 

      AFTO 781 A.

    • B. 

      AFTO 781 H.

    • C. 

      AFTO 781 J.

    • D. 

      AFTO 781 K.

  • 17. 
    The five authorized inspection concepts used by the Air Force are
    • A. 

      Major, minor, phase, isochronal, postflight.

    • B. 

      Major, minor, shop, home station, postflight.

    • C. 

      Periodic, home station, postflight, isochronal, programmed depot maintenance.

    • D. 

      Periodic, phase, isochronal, programmed depot maintenance, airline/manufacturer maintenance.

  • 18. 
    Which is a thorough and searching inspection?
    • A. 

      Minor.

    • B. 

      Major.

    • C. 

      Postflight.

    • D. 

      Home station check.

  • 19. 
    The primary responsibility for formal upgrade training (UGT) rests with
    • A. 

      Training management personnel.

    • B. 

      The commander.

    • C. 

      The supervisor.

    • D. 

      The individual.

  • 20. 
    Training people to do tasks other than those in their primary Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is called
    • A. 

      Cross-utilization training.

    • B. 

      Management training.

    • C. 

      Qualification training.

    • D. 

      Upgrade training.

  • 21. 
    The main source of material deficiency information is found in 
    • A. 

      Integrated Maintenance Data Systems (IMDS).

    • B. 

      Department of Defense (DD) forms.

    • C. 

      Applicable specifications

    • D. 

      Regulations.

  • 22. 
    Which technical order (TO) explains the Material Deficiency Reporting System?
    • A. 

      00–5–15.

    • B. 

      00–25–195.

    • C. 

      00–25C–234.

    • D. 

      00–35D–54.

  • 23. 
    If you fill out a Category II, Product Quality Deficiency Report for a defect in workmanship then you must forward the draft to the originating point within
    • A. 

      1 workday.

    • B. 

      2 workdays.

    • C. 

      3 workdays.

    • D. 

      4 workdays.

  • 24. 
    The first part of a national stock number (NSN) indicates the
    • A. 

      Part code.

    • B. 

      Bureau code.

    • C. 

      Item identification.

    • D. 

      Supply classification.

  • 25. 
    Bench stock supplies should be replenished when the authorized quantity on-hand drops below what percent?
    • A. 

      40.

    • B. 

      50.

    • C. 

      60.

    • D. 

      70.

  • 26. 
    What types of property responsibility can be charged to Department of Defense (DOD) personnel?
    • A. 

      Command and custodial.

    • B. 

      Individual and custodial.

    • C. 

      Command and supervisory.

    • D. 

      Supervisory and custodial.

  • 27. 
    An airman who signs out a toolbox assumes which type of property responsibility for that toolbox?
    • A. 

      Supervisory.

    • B. 

      Custodial.

    • C. 

      Individual.

    • D. 

      Command.

  • 28. 
    How can personnel be relieved from property responsibility?
    • A. 

      Turn-in only.

    • B. 

      Turn-in or transfer.

    • C. 

      Supply’s recommendation.

    • D. 

      Commander’s recommendation.

  • 29. 
    Which publications are considered working handbooks?
    • A. 

      Air Force manuals.

    • B. 

      Air Force pamphlets.

    • C. 

      Air Force instructions.

    • D. 

      Recurring publications.

  • 30. 
    Career development courses (CDC) are an example of
    • A. 

      An Air Force pamphlet.

    • B. 

      A standard publication.

    • C. 

      A recurring publication.

    • D. 

      A specialized publication.

  • 31. 
    The list of applicable publications (LOAP) lists technical orders (TO) that apply to
    • A. 

      Active aircraft time compliance technical orders.

    • B. 

      A specific aircraft.

    • C. 

      Overhaul depots.

    • D. 

      A specific tester.

  • 32. 
    Which technical order (TO) explains how to maintain and inspect a particular weapons system?
    • A. 

      Operations and Maintenance.

    • B. 

      Methods and Procedures.

    • C. 

      Time Compliance.

    • D. 

      Abbreviated.

  • 33. 
    Which technical order (TO) category includes inspection workcards and checklists?
    • A. 

      Special.

    • B. 

      Simplified.

    • C. 

      Automation.

    • D. 

      Abbreviated.

  • 34. 
    A series of red Xs printed around the border of the first page of a time compliance technical order (TCTO) signifies
    • A. 

      An inspection action TCTO.

    • B. 

      An immediate action TCTO.

    • C. 

      A routine action TCTO.

    • D. 

      An urgent action TCTO.

  • 35. 
    Which technical order (TO) explains the TO numbering system?
    • A. 

      TO 00–5–1.

    • B. 

      TO 00–5–5.

    • C. 

      TO 00–5–10.

    • D. 

      TO 00–5–18.

  • 36. 
    The first number group within a basic technical order (TO) number identifies the
    • A. 

      Specific equipment.

    • B. 

      Section of the TO.

    • C. 

      TO category.

    • D. 

      Kind of TO.

  • 37. 
    The “XD” in fault isolation (FI) code 33–10-XD–02 identifies the
    • A. 

      System.

    • B. 

      Location.

    • C. 

      Subsystem.

    • D. 

      Specific fault.

  • 38. 
    Which type of technical order (TO) contain operational checkout procedures?
    • A. 

      Job guide.

    • B. 

      Fault isolation.

    • C. 

      General vehicle.

    • D. 

      Schematic diagram.

  • 39. 
    While troubleshooting, you are using a wiring diagram to help you locate a malfunctioning component. After determining which component is faulty, you need to determine its part number. To do this, you would check the wiring diagram’s
    • A. 

      Numerical index.

    • B. 

      Reference designator.

    • C. 

      Line replaceable unit index.

    • D. 

      Line replaceable unit designation.

  • 40. 
    Safety and operational supplements to technical orders (TO) are filed in
    • A. 

      Reverse numerical sequence in front of the basic TO.

    • B. 

      Reverse numerical sequence behind the basic TO.

    • C. 

      Numerical sequence in front of the basic TO.

    • D. 

      Numerical sequence behind the basic TO.

  • 41. 
    To correct errors in a technical order, submit an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form
    • A. 

      22.

    • B. 

      32.

    • C. 

      100.

    • D. 

      200.

  • 42. 
    How many hours do personnel at the Air Logistics Center (ALC) activity have to act upon receipt of an emergency Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 22 report?
    • A. 

      24.

    • B. 

      36.

    • C. 

      48.

    • D. 

      72.

  • 43. 
    How far away from parked aircraft should liquid oxygen (LOX) carts be stored?
    • A. 

      25 feet.

    • B. 

      50 feet.

    • C. 

      75 feet.

    • D. 

      100 feet.

  • 44. 
    When servicing a low-pressure oxygen system, set the regulator valve at a maximum pressure in pound per square inch gage (psig) of
    • A. 

      475 psig.

    • B. 

      480 psig.

    • C. 

      485 psig.

    • D. 

      500 psig.

  • 45. 
    Liquid nitrogen must be stored at or below what minimum temperature to remain in a liquid state?
    • A. 

      –310.8° F.

    • B. 

      –315.8° F.

    • C. 

      –320.8° F.

    • D. 

      –325.8° F.

  • 46. 
    If your skin comes in contact with liquid nitrogen (LIN), you must
    • A. 

      Attempt to rewarm the skin.

    • B. 

      Seek medical attention immediately.

    • C. 

      Cover the effected skin immediately.

    • D. 

      Run cold water over the affected area.

  • 47. 
    What type of tasks may you perform in the immediate area of explosives?
    • A. 

      Mission critical.

    • B. 

      Routine.

    • C. 

      None.

    • D. 

      Core.

  • 48. 
    Which types of items are classified as a Class/Division 1.4 explosive?
    • A. 

      Low fragmentation items.

    • B. 

      High fragmentation items.

    • C. 

      Low explosive weight items.

    • D. 

      High explosive weight items.

  • 49. 
    How much electrical current does it take to cause muscle paralysis?
    • A. 

      0.001 amps.

    • B. 

      0.005 amps.

    • C. 

      0.010 amps.

    • D. 

      0.015 amps.

  • 50. 
    Human awareness of static electricity begins at approximately
    • A. 

      250 volts.

    • B. 

      350 volts.

    • C. 

      2500 volts.

    • D. 

      3500 volts.

  • 51. 
    Which area of a line replaceable unit (LRU) is most susceptible to electrostatic discharge (ESD) damage?
    • A. 

      Connector pins.

    • B. 

      Connector plug.

    • C. 

      Wiring.

    • D. 

      Case.

  • 52. 
    • A. 

      1 ohm.

    • B. 

      10 ohms.

    • C. 

      1 megohm.

    • D. 

      10 megohms.

  • 53. 
    Which situation illustrates a physical hazard presented by a chemical hazard?
    • A. 

      Acute liver damage.

    • B. 

      Irritation of the kidney.

    • C. 

      Second degree skin burn.

    • D. 

      Chronic exposure to vapors.

  • 54. 
    What is the minimum information required on a hazardous chemical inventory?
    • A. 

      Name, location, and detailed ingredient list of the material.

    • B. 

      Name, location, and quantity of material authorized.

    • C. 

      Name and location of the material.

    • D. 

      Name of the material.

  • 55. 
    Which element must be included in a workplace written hazard communication program?
    • A. 

      Hazardous material inventory.

    • B. 

      Hazardous waste disposal procedures.

    • C. 

      Telephone number of hazardous material monitor.

    • D. 

      List of health hazards from the chemicals in the section.

  • 56. 
    Which Air Force publication is a source of information for the prevention of accidents?
    • A. 

      Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–202.

    • B. 

      Air Force Regulation (AFR) 8–2.

    • C. 

      AFI 91–204.

    • D. 

      AFR 39–1.

  • 57. 
    Who is responsible for seeking out and eliminating accident causes?
    • A. 

      Unit commander.

    • B. 

      Safety officer.

    • C. 

      Supervisors.

    • D. 

      Everyone.

  • 58. 
    What should be the main concern when planning the layout of any shop area?
    • A. 

      Safety.

    • B. 

      Lighting.

    • C. 

      Adequate work space.

    • D. 

      Location of test equipment.

  • 59. 
    What is considered normally a safe distance in front of jet engine intake ducts?
    • A. 

      10 feet.

    • B. 

      15 feet.

    • C. 

      20 feet.

    • D. 

      25 feet.

  • 60. 
    One precaution you must observe while working around an aircraft with ejection seats is to be sure that
    • A. 

      The canopy is open.

    • B. 

      The seat safety pins are installed.

    • C. 

      No other people are around the aircraft.

    • D. 

      No external power is connected to the aircraft.

  • 61. 
    Which mishap prevention tag is used to warn personnel against potential hazards?
    • A. 

      Danger.

    • B. 

      Caution.

    • C. 

      Out of Order.

    • D. 

      Do Not Start.

  • 62. 
    Which Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground safety accidents involving personnel (not involving aircraft)?
    • A. 

      AF Form 711.

    • B. 

      AF Form 711B.

    • C. 

      AF Form 117.

    • D. 

      AF Form 117B.

  • 63. 
    Which type of nuclear radiation is the most deadly?
    • A. 

      Alpha.

    • B. 

      Beta.

    • C. 

      Delta.

    • D. 

      Gamma.

  • 64. 
    What is the unit of measure for radiation quantity?
    • A. 

      Dosimeter.

    • B. 

      Roentgen.

    • C. 

      Gamma.

    • D. 

      Fallout.