Defensor Fortis - Volume 1
5 level
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Where was the military police (MP) (aviation) training camp established in 1942?
- A.
Kelly Field, TX.
- B.
Tinker Field, OK
- C.
Camp Ripley, MN.
- D.
Camp Lajeune, NC
Correct Answer
C. Camp Ripley, MN.Explanation
In 1942, the military police (MP) (aviation) training camp was established at Camp Ripley, MN.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Air Police Security (APS) battalions were designed to protect against all of the following except
- A.
riots.
- B.
riots.
- C.
Light tanks.
- D.
Parachute attacks.
Correct Answer
C. Light tanks.Explanation
APS battalions were specifically created to provide security and protection against various threats. These threats include riots, parachute attacks, and other forms of civil unrest. However, they were not designed or equipped to defend against military vehicles such as light tanks. Therefore, the correct answer is "light tanks."Rate this question:
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- 3.
On 1 September 1950, what was established at Tyndall AFB, Florida?
- A.
Air Police School.
- B.
Air Leaders School.
- C.
Corp Training Office
- D.
Base Defense Academy
Correct Answer
A. Air Police School.Explanation
On 1 September 1950, the Air Police School was established at Tyndall AFB, Florida. This school would have provided training and education for individuals who were going to serve in the Air Police, which is the military police force of the United States Air Force. The establishment of this school would have been significant in ensuring that the Air Force had well-trained personnel to handle security and law enforcement duties on the base.Rate this question:
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- 4.
In what year did the Air Force approve the first trial issue of the security police (SP) shield?
- A.
1943
- B.
1945.
- C.
1950.
- D.
1957
Correct Answer
D. 1957Explanation
In 1957, the Air Force approved the first trial issue of the security police (SP) shield. This suggests that prior to this year, the security police shield had not been officially approved or issued by the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The Security Forces (SF) beret with the Defensor Fortis flash
- A.
Identifies SF to foreign forces as security personnel.
- B.
Is a distinguishing uniform item designed to deter aggression
- C.
Identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide.
- D.
Is directly related to the special forces beret and patches used during the Vietnam War.
Correct Answer
C. Identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide.Explanation
The correct answer states that the Security Forces (SF) beret with the Defensor Fortis flash identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide. This means that wearing this beret distinguishes SF personnel as part of a highly skilled and specialized unit responsible for safeguarding the Air Force globally. This identification helps establish their authority and expertise in security matters within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 6.
In what year was the name of the career field changed from “Air Police” to “Security Police”?
- A.
1985
- B.
1971
- C.
1966.
- D.
1950.
Correct Answer
C. 1966.Explanation
The correct answer is 1966. This suggests that the name of the career field was changed from "Air Police" to "Security Police" in the year 1966.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The success of what special unit in Vietnam led to the development of ground combat skills training for security police (SP)?
- A.
The 1041st SPS (Test).
- B.
The 4110th SPS (Test).
- C.
The 1401st SPS.
- D.
The 1140th SPS.
Correct Answer
A. The 1041st SPS (Test).Explanation
The success of the 1041st SPS (Test) in Vietnam led to the development of ground combat skills training for security police (SP).Rate this question:
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- 8.
The Vietnam Conflict pointed out the need for a revised doctrine, specifically one based on
- A.
Weapons systems protective concept.
- B.
Aircraft protection system concept.
- C.
Air base defense protective system
- D.
Whole-base protective system.
Correct Answer
D. Whole-base protective system.Explanation
During the Vietnam Conflict, it became evident that a revised doctrine was necessary to address the protection of military bases. The term "whole-base protective system" refers to a comprehensive approach that aims to safeguard the entire military base, including its personnel, equipment, and infrastructure, from potential threats. This concept recognizes the importance of a holistic approach to defense, ensuring that all aspects of the base are protected and secure.Rate this question:
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- 9.
In 1971, Security Police was split into two separate functions; what were these functions?
- A.
Police dog units and law enforcement specialties.
- B.
Law enforcement and security specialties
- C.
Security and force protection elements
- D.
Security teams and security elements.
Correct Answer
B. Law enforcement and security specialtiesExplanation
In 1971, the Security Police was divided into two distinct functions: law enforcement and security specialties. This division allowed for a more focused approach to maintaining security and enforcing the law. Law enforcement would primarily handle the enforcement of laws and regulations, while security specialties would focus on protecting assets, personnel, and facilities. This separation ensured that each function could prioritize and address their specific areas of expertise effectively.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which operation provided the US military its first significant experience in urban operations since Vietnam?
- A.
Operation NORIEGA
- B.
Operation URGENT FURY
- C.
Operation FREE PANAMA.
- D.
Operation JUST CAUSE.
Correct Answer
D. Operation JUST CAUSE.Explanation
Operation JUST CAUSE provided the US military its first significant experience in urban operations since Vietnam. This operation took place in Panama in 1989 and aimed to remove General Manuel Noriega from power. The operation involved intense urban combat and marked a significant shift in military tactics and strategies, as it required the US forces to adapt to the challenges of fighting in a densely populated urban environment.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What was the “first in” Security Forces (SF) concept adopted by Air Mobility Command (AMC) in 1997?
- A.
Rising Sun Program.
- B.
Noble Eagle Program
- C.
Flying Falcon Program.
- D.
Phoenix Raven Program.
Correct Answer
D. Phoenix Raven Program.Explanation
The correct answer is the Phoenix Raven Program. In 1997, Air Mobility Command (AMC) adopted the Phoenix Raven Program as their "first in" Security Forces (SF) concept. This program was designed to enhance the security of AMC aircraft and personnel during their missions. The Phoenix Raven teams consist of specially trained security forces personnel who provide security and protection for aircraft and personnel in high-threat environments.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The military operation launched against the Taliban in Dec 2001 was called
- A.
Operation ENDURING FREEDOM
- B.
Operation INSPIRING FREEDOM.
- C.
Operation IRAQI FREEDOM.
- D.
Operation NOBLE EAGLE.
Correct Answer
A. Operation ENDURING FREEDOMExplanation
The military operation launched against the Taliban in December 2001 was called Operation ENDURING FREEDOM. This operation was part of the global War on Terror, initiated by the United States and its allies in response to the September 11th attacks. It aimed to remove the Taliban regime in Afghanistan and disrupt terrorist networks operating in the region. The name "ENDURING FREEDOM" signifies the long-term commitment to fighting terrorism and promoting freedom in the face of ongoing threats.Rate this question:
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- 13.
During the Global War on Terrorism, assisting sister services brought about a new nontraditional Security Forces (SF) task of convoy
- A.
Commander duty.
- B.
Response duty
- C.
Escort duty
- D.
Driver duty.
Correct Answer
C. Escort dutyExplanation
During the Global War on Terrorism, assisting sister services required Security Forces (SF) personnel to take on new roles and responsibilities. One of these nontraditional tasks was serving as an escort duty. This involved providing protection and security to convoys, ensuring the safe transportation of personnel and supplies. As an escort, SF personnel would be responsible for maintaining situational awareness, conducting threat assessments, and implementing necessary security measures to mitigate risks during convoy operations. This duty played a crucial role in safeguarding military assets and personnel in hostile environments.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What Security Forces (SF) unit conducted the career field’s first combat parachute assault?
- A.
343rd SFS.
- B.
786th SFS.
- C.
1041st SPS
- D.
1140th SPS.
Correct Answer
B. 786th SFS.Explanation
The correct answer is 786th SFS. This unit conducted the career field's first combat parachute assault.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The mission of all Security Forces (SF) is to
- A.
Be mission ready, resilient, and air minded
- B.
Be knowledgeable in basic police and ground combat skills.
- C.
Be good followers, great leaders and the most rigorously trained defenders
- D.
Protect, defend, and fight to enable AF, Joint, and Coalition mission success
Correct Answer
D. Protect, defend, and fight to enable AF, Joint, and Coalition mission successExplanation
The correct answer is "protect, defend, and fight to enable AF, Joint, and Coalition mission success." This answer aligns with the mission of Security Forces (SF), which is to ensure the protection, defense, and successful completion of missions for the Air Force (AF), Joint operations, and Coalition forces. SF personnel are trained to be skilled defenders and are expected to contribute to the overall success of missions through their actions.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which description correctly describes our Security Force symbol?
- A.
Falcon over crossed runways.
- B.
Eagle over crossed runways.
- C.
Falcon over crossed swords
- D.
Eagle over crossed swords.
Correct Answer
A. Falcon over crossed runways.Explanation
The correct answer is Falcon over crossed runways. This symbol accurately represents our Security Force because the falcon signifies agility, keen vision, and alertness, qualities that are essential for our security personnel. The crossed runways symbolize the protection and control of the airspace and the ability to respond quickly to any threats or emergencies. Overall, this symbol effectively communicates the role and capabilities of our Security Force.Rate this question:
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- 17.
In the Security Forces’ (SF) unit S-function structure, which “S” branch is typically the largest?
- A.
S–1/Administration.
- B.
S–2/Intelligence.
- C.
S–3/Operations.
- D.
S–4/Logistics
Correct Answer
C. S–3/Operations.Explanation
In the Security Forces' (SF) unit S-function structure, the "S-3/Operations" branch is typically the largest. This branch is responsible for planning and coordinating all operational activities within the unit. It oversees the execution of missions, training, and the allocation of resources. As operations are a core aspect of any military or security force, it is logical for the S-3/Operations branch to be the largest in order to effectively manage and support the unit's operational readiness.Rate this question:
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- 18.
In the Security Forces’ (SF) unit S-function structure, which “S” branch maintains the Security Forces Management Information System (SFMIS)?
- A.
S–1/Administration
- B.
S–2/Intelligence.
- C.
S–4/Operations.
- D.
S–5/Plans and Programs.
Correct Answer
D. S–5/Plans and Programs.Explanation
The correct answer is S-5/Plans and Programs. In the Security Forces unit S-function structure, the S-5 branch is responsible for maintaining the Security Forces Management Information System (SFMIS). This branch is specifically focused on developing plans and programs for the Security Forces unit. They ensure that the SFMIS is properly managed and utilized to support the unit's operations and intelligence functions.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What course must a trainee attend for awarding of the 7-skill level, Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3P071?
- A.
Security Forces (SF) leader’s course
- B.
Supply manager’s course
- C.
SF craftsman resident course.
- D.
Security superintendent non-resident course
Correct Answer
C. SF craftsman resident course.Explanation
The correct answer is SF craftsman resident course. In order to be awarded the 7-skill level, Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3P071, a trainee must attend the SF craftsman resident course. This course is specifically designed for Security Forces (SF) personnel who are looking to advance their skills and knowledge in their field. Attending this course will provide the trainee with the necessary training and education to become a craftsman in the SF career field.Rate this question:
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- 20.
As a Security Forces (SF) member, adhering to what system(s) of guidance ensures mission accomplishment?
- A.
Option 1
- B.
SF General Orders only.
- C.
Performance Fitness Examination
- D.
Code of Conduct and General Orders
Correct Answer
D. Code of Conduct and General OrdersExplanation
The Code of Conduct and General Orders are important systems of guidance for Security Forces (SF) members to ensure mission accomplishment. The Code of Conduct outlines the ethical principles and behavior expected of SF members in various situations, while General Orders provide specific instructions and guidelines for daily operations. By adhering to these systems of guidance, SF members can maintain discipline, professionalism, and focus on their mission objectives. Additionally, the Code of Conduct and General Orders help to ensure consistency and standardization within the SF unit, promoting effective teamwork and coordination.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Dealing with offenders in a dignified manner adheres to which conduct guideline?
- A.
Fulfilling the mission.
- B.
Personal appearance.
- C.
Off-duty conduct.
- D.
Attention to duty.
Correct Answer
A. Fulfilling the mission.Explanation
Dealing with offenders in a dignified manner adheres to the conduct guideline of fulfilling the mission. This means that when dealing with offenders, the focus should be on carrying out the objectives and goals of the organization or agency. Treating offenders with dignity and respect is essential in order to maintain professionalism and uphold the mission of the organization, which is likely centered around promoting justice, rehabilitation, and public safety.Rate this question:
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- 22.
You have failed to follow what general conduct guideline if you issued a traffic ticket based on the violator’s race?
- A.
Seeking favors
- B.
Exercising authority.
- C.
Assistance to others.
- D.
Personal attitudes
Correct Answer
D. Personal attitudesExplanation
Issuing a traffic ticket based on the violator's race goes against the general conduct guideline of personal attitudes. Personal attitudes refer to an individual's beliefs, biases, and prejudices. In this case, if an officer bases their decision to issue a ticket solely on the violator's race, it demonstrates a personal bias or discriminatory attitude. This behavior is not in line with the principles of fairness, equality, and impartiality that should guide law enforcement officers in their duties.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be according to
- A.
Option 1
- B.
AFI 31–205, The Air Force Corrections Program
- C.
AFI 31–206, Security Forces Investigation Program
- D.
AFI 31–117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel.
Correct Answer
D. AFI 31–117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel.Explanation
The correct answer is AFI 31–117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel. This is because AFI 31–117 provides guidelines and regulations regarding the arming and use of force by Air Force personnel. It outlines the proper conduct and procedures for apprehending suspects, ensuring that personnel adhere to the appropriate protocols and use force only when necessary and authorized. The other options, AFI 31–205 and AFI 31–206, are not directly related to the conduct of apprehending suspects.Rate this question:
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- 24.
At least how many days are required for significant heat acclimatization to prevent heat injuries in the area of operations (AO)?
- A.
1 to 2.
- B.
3 to 5.
- C.
6 to 8.
- D.
9 to 10.
Correct Answer
B. 3 to 5.Explanation
Significant heat acclimatization requires a minimum of 3 to 5 days. This period allows the body to adapt to the heat and become more efficient at regulating its temperature, reducing the risk of heat injuries. Acclimatization involves physiological changes such as increased sweat production, improved blood flow, and better heat dissipation. It is important to give the body enough time to adjust to the heat before engaging in strenuous activities in order to prevent heat-related illnesses or injuries.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which base agency is responsible for routinely testing firing range for amounts of lead?
- A.
Bioenvironmental Engineering Section.
- B.
Base Hazardous Waste Section.
- C.
Bioenvironmental Waste Section
- D.
Bioenvironmental Health Section.
Correct Answer
A. Bioenvironmental Engineering Section.Explanation
The correct answer is Bioenvironmental Engineering Section. This agency is responsible for routinely testing firing ranges for amounts of lead. They are specifically trained in assessing and managing environmental hazards, including lead contamination. They have the expertise and resources to conduct regular testing and ensure that the firing ranges are safe and compliant with regulations regarding lead exposure.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What is the single most important source of viruses in the workplace?
- A.
Sweat
- B.
Blood
- C.
Syringes
- D.
Foreign fluids.
Correct Answer
B. BloodExplanation
Blood is the single most important source of viruses in the workplace because it can carry various bloodborne pathogens, such as HIV, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C. These viruses can be transmitted through direct contact with infected blood or through contact with contaminated surfaces or objects. Therefore, proper precautions and safety measures should be taken when handling blood or any items that may be contaminated with blood to prevent the spread of these viruses in the workplace.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Specific procedures you must follow on the job to reduce your risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens is
- A.
Engineering controls.
- B.
Employee work practices
- C.
Personal protective equipment usage.
- D.
Housekeeping guidelines.
Correct Answer
B. Employee work practicesExplanation
Employee work practices are specific procedures that individuals must follow on the job to reduce their risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens. These practices may include proper hand hygiene, using appropriate techniques for handling sharps, and following protocols for cleaning and disinfecting contaminated surfaces. By adhering to these practices, employees can minimize their chances of coming into contact with blood or other potentially infectious materials, thereby reducing their risk of infection. Engineering controls, personal protective equipment usage, and housekeeping guidelines are also important aspects of preventing exposure to bloodborne pathogens, but the emphasis here is on the specific procedures that employees must follow.Rate this question:
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- 28.
When conducting individual searches, what essential step should you take to protect yourself from exposure to blood or other body fluids?
- A.
Search for weapons first.
- B.
Always, begin your search at the front pocket.
- C.
Always, conduct a precautionary check prior to searching
- D.
Start searching for needles with an electromagnetic spectrometer.
Correct Answer
C. Always, conduct a precautionary check prior to searchingExplanation
To protect yourself from exposure to blood or other body fluids, it is essential to always conduct a precautionary check prior to searching. This step ensures that you can identify any potential hazards or risks before proceeding with the search. By taking this precautionary measure, you can minimize the chances of coming into contact with harmful substances and protect your own safety.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Defender’s Edge training was developed by
- A.
Defenders for defenders.
- B.
Medical professionals for defenders.
- C.
Base services for all AF personnel.
- D.
Base operations for all AF personnel.
Correct Answer
A. Defenders for defenders.Explanation
The correct answer is "defenders for defenders." This means that the training program was created by individuals who are defenders themselves, with the intention of providing training specifically for other defenders. This suggests that the program is tailored to the unique needs and challenges faced by defenders, making it more relevant and effective for them compared to training developed by medical professionals, base services, or base operations for all Air Force personnel.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The stress response system (SRS) is composed of the
- A.
Digestive and intestinal systems.
- B.
Immune and psychological systems.
- C.
Psychological and emotional systems.
- D.
Sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.
Correct Answer
D. Sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.Explanation
The stress response system (SRS) is composed of the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems. The sympathetic system is responsible for the fight-or-flight response, releasing stress hormones and increasing heart rate and blood pressure. The parasympathetic system, on the other hand, promotes rest and relaxation, counteracting the effects of the sympathetic system. Together, these two systems work in balance to regulate the body's response to stress. The digestive and intestinal systems, immune system, and psychological and emotional systems may be influenced by the SRS, but they are not the primary components of the stress response system.Rate this question:
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- 31.
As Security Forces (SF) members dealing with stress, who are our closest allies to strengthen our resilience?
- A.
Chaplains.
- B.
Team members
- C.
Family members.
- D.
Medical personnel.
Correct Answer
B. Team membersExplanation
Team members are our closest allies to strengthen our resilience as Security Forces members dealing with stress. They provide support, understanding, and camaraderie during challenging times. They can offer advice, share experiences, and work together to find solutions to cope with stress effectively. Building strong relationships with team members creates a sense of unity and support, which can enhance resilience and overall well-being.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which legal document contains military laws that apply to all branches of the US Armed Forces?
- A.
Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ).
- B.
US Constitution
- C.
Federal statutes.
- D.
International law
Correct Answer
A. Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ).Explanation
The correct answer is the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ). This document contains the military laws that apply to all branches of the US Armed Forces. It is a set of rules and regulations that govern the conduct of military personnel, including laws related to discipline, court-martial proceedings, and military offenses. The UCMJ ensures that the military operates in a fair and just manner and maintains discipline and order within its ranks.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What example of international law was reached at The Hague and Geneva conventions?
- A.
Laws of Armed Conflict (LOAC)
- B.
Manual of Courts-Martial (MCM) Title 10 statutes.
- C.
Rules of Engagement (ROE).
- D.
Rules of war.
Correct Answer
A. Laws of Armed Conflict (LOAC)Explanation
The correct answer is Laws of Armed Conflict (LOAC). The Hague and Geneva Conventions are two important international treaties that establish the laws and regulations for armed conflict. These conventions aim to protect civilians and combatants who are no longer taking part in the hostilities, and to limit the methods and means of warfare. The Laws of Armed Conflict (LOAC) are a set of rules derived from these conventions, which govern the conduct of armed forces during armed conflicts. These rules ensure that military actions are carried out with respect for human rights and humanitarian principles.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which Uniform Code of Military Justice’s (UCMJ) article states who is subject to military jurisdiction or military law?
- A.
Article 77.
- B.
Article 5
- C.
Article 2
- D.
Article 1.
Correct Answer
C. Article 2Explanation
Article 2 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) states who is subject to military jurisdiction or military law. This article defines the individuals who fall under the jurisdiction of the UCMJ, including members of the armed forces, both active duty and reserve, as well as retired members who are entitled to pay. It also includes individuals who are in custody of the armed forces, such as prisoners of war or individuals held in military confinement. Article 2 is crucial in determining who is subject to military law and can be held accountable for violations of the UCMJ.Rate this question:
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- 35.
If a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas that person
- A.
must be tried overseas
- B.
is not subject to the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ).
- C.
Can be tried overseas or stateside.
- D.
May choose to be court-martialed by a civilian authority
Correct Answer
C. Can be tried overseas or stateside.Explanation
If a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas, they can be tried either overseas or stateside. This means that the military has jurisdiction to prosecute the individual regardless of their location. The decision of where to hold the trial depends on various factors such as the nature of the offense, the availability of resources, and the agreements between the involved countries. It allows for flexibility in ensuring that justice is served, regardless of the location of the offense.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are
- A.
Concurrent, current, proprietary.
- B.
Exclusive, bilateral, concurrent.
- C.
Exclusive, concurrent, proprietary and multilateral.
- D.
Exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and reciprocal
Correct Answer
D. Exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and reciprocalExplanation
The correct answer is "exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and reciprocal." This answer correctly identifies the types of jurisdiction found on US government installations. Exclusive jurisdiction means that only the US government has authority over the installation. Concurrent jurisdiction means that both the US government and the state or local government have authority. Proprietary jurisdiction means that the US government has authority over certain aspects of the installation, such as land use. Reciprocal jurisdiction means that the US government and a foreign government have agreed to share jurisdiction over the installation.Rate this question:
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- 37.
) The federal government has sole authority to enforce laws on installations
- A.
When the government has exclusive jurisdiction.
- B.
When partial jurisdiction exists.
- C.
Under proprietary jurisdiction.
- D.
Located in overseas areas
Correct Answer
A. When the government has exclusive jurisdiction.Explanation
When the government has exclusive jurisdiction, it means that the federal government has complete authority to enforce laws on installations. This means that no other entity, such as state or local governments, can enforce laws on these installations. Therefore, the correct answer is when the government has exclusive jurisdiction.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Under concurrent jurisdiction
- A.
State laws are not enforced.
- B.
The state has property rights only.
- C.
The federal government has no authority.
- D.
Both the state and federal government have authority.
Correct Answer
D. Both the state and federal government have authority.Explanation
Under concurrent jurisdiction, both the state and federal government have authority. This means that certain matters fall under the jurisdiction of both levels of government, allowing them to enforce laws and regulations simultaneously. This typically occurs when a particular issue affects both state and federal interests, such as taxation, criminal law, or environmental regulations. In such cases, both levels of government can exercise their authority and enforce their respective laws within their jurisdictions.Rate this question:
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- 39.
When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied territory, it is known as a
- A.
Proprietary government
- B.
Military government.
- C.
Nationalist regime
- D.
Military state.
Correct Answer
B. Military government.Explanation
When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied territory, it is referred to as a military government. In this scenario, the occupying power, typically a military force, assumes control and governs the territory, making decisions and implementing policies. This type of government is temporary and is established to maintain order and stability in the occupied territory until a more permanent solution is determined.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which US service has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government?
- A.
Air Force
- B.
Coast Guard
- C.
Army.
- D.
Navy
Correct Answer
C. Army.Explanation
The US Army has the primary responsibility for operations and administration during military government. This includes tasks such as establishing law and order, providing essential services, and ensuring the safety and security of the area under military control. The Army plays a crucial role in maintaining stability and facilitating the transition to civilian government in post-conflict situations.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What are the two types of martial law?
- A.
Qualified and absolute
- B.
Absolute and unqualified.
- C.
Qualified and concurrent
- D.
Exclusive and absolute.
Correct Answer
A. Qualified and absoluteExplanation
The correct answer is "Qualified and absolute." Martial law refers to the imposition of military control over a civilian population. Qualified martial law is when military rule is implemented with certain limitations, such as restrictions on the military's power and duration of control. Absolute martial law, on the other hand, is when the military has unrestricted power and control over all aspects of governance and civil liberties. These two types represent different degrees of military authority and the extent of civilian rights and freedoms during a period of martial law.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which type of martial law exists when military authority totally replaces civil authority?
- A.
Military law.
- B.
Exclusive
- C.
Qualified
- D.
Absolute
Correct Answer
D. AbsoluteExplanation
In this question, the term "martial law" refers to the temporary imposition of military rule in a region or country. When military authority completely replaces civil authority, it is known as absolute martial law. This means that the military has full control over all aspects of governance and decision-making, with no involvement of civilian institutions or authorities.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What law sets the standard of behavior for members of the Armed Forces through the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)?
- A.
Military.
- B.
Martial.
- C.
Executive.
- D.
Concurrent.
Correct Answer
A. Military.Explanation
The correct answer is "Military" because the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is the law that governs the behavior of members of the Armed Forces. It outlines the legal standards and regulations that military personnel must follow, including disciplinary actions for violations. The UCMJ covers a wide range of offenses, including crimes that are specific to the military, such as desertion or insubordination. It ensures that the military maintains discipline, order, and accountability among its members.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) article gives you the authority to issue lawful orders while executing your duties as a Security Forces (SF) member?
- A.
Article 2 (2).
- B.
Article 5.
- C.
Article 92 (2)
- D.
Article 134.
Correct Answer
C. Article 92 (2)Explanation
Article 92 (2) of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) gives Security Forces (SF) members the authority to issue lawful orders while executing their duties. This article specifically addresses the failure to obey lawful general orders or regulations. It states that any person subject to the UCMJ who violates or fails to obey any lawful general order or regulation issued by a commanding officer will be punished as a court-martial may direct. This means that SF members have the authority to issue orders to ensure the proper functioning and discipline within their unit, and failure to obey these orders can result in disciplinary action.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Who may request a civil proceeding under the federal tort law?
- A.
Federal government.
- B.
State government.
- C.
Civilian companies.
- D.
Private citizens
Correct Answer
D. Private citizensExplanation
Private citizens may request a civil proceeding under the federal tort law. This means that individuals who are not part of the government or any specific organization can initiate a legal action against the federal government for damages caused by its negligence or wrongdoing. The federal tort law allows private citizens to seek compensation for harm or injury caused by the government's actions or omissions.Rate this question:
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- 46.
In determining whether an individual is a suspect, you should not base this decision on
- A.
Circumstances and facts.
- B.
Witnesses and statements.
- C.
Hearsay and rumors.
- D.
Opinion and belief
Correct Answer
D. Opinion and beliefExplanation
In determining whether an individual is a suspect, it is important not to base this decision on opinion and belief. Opinion and belief are subjective and can be influenced by personal biases and prejudices. Instead, a decision should be based on objective circumstances and facts, witnesses and statements, and reliable evidence. Relying on opinion and belief can lead to unfair judgments and wrongful accusations.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Whenever you have doubts concerning rights advisement, who or what office should you consult?
- A.
The legal office
- B.
The Air Force Office of Special Investigation (AFOSI) office.
- C.
The base commander.
- D.
A Security Forces investigator.
Correct Answer
A. The legal officeExplanation
The correct answer is the legal office. When you have doubts concerning rights advisement, it is important to consult the legal office as they are responsible for providing legal advice and guidance. They have the expertise and knowledge to help you understand your rights and ensure that they are protected. Consulting the legal office is essential to ensure that you receive accurate and reliable information regarding your rights in any legal matter.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The Fifth Amendment of the Constitution protects against
- A.
Self-inspection.
- B.
self-infliction.
- C.
Self-incrimination
- D.
Self-determination.
Correct Answer
C. Self-incriminationExplanation
The Fifth Amendment of the Constitution protects against self-incrimination. This means that individuals cannot be forced to testify against themselves or provide evidence that could potentially incriminate them in a criminal case. This protection ensures that individuals have the right to remain silent and not be compelled to be a witness against themselves. It is a fundamental principle of the American legal system and is aimed at preserving the rights and liberties of individuals.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective
- A.
Psychological deterrent.
- B.
Mobile flight-line force multiplier.
- C.
base defense detection capability.
- D.
Replacement for base sensor systems.
Correct Answer
A. Psychological deterrent.Explanation
Military working dog teams are highly trained and skilled in law enforcement activities. Their presence alone can act as a psychological deterrent for potential criminals or threats. The fear of encountering a well-trained dog can dissuade individuals from engaging in illegal activities or attempting to breach security. The dogs' ability to detect and apprehend suspects also adds to their effectiveness as a deterrent. Overall, the use of military working dog teams provides a psychological deterrent against potential threats.Rate this question:
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- 50.
When is a military working dog’s (MWD) detection ability more effective?
- A.
First thing in the morning.
- B.
Thirty minutes after every meal.
- C.
During the day in very busy areas
- D.
During darkness or limited visibility.
Correct Answer
D. During darkness or limited visibility.Explanation
A military working dog's detection ability is more effective during darkness or limited visibility. This is because dogs have a superior sense of smell and hearing, which allows them to navigate and detect things better in low-light conditions. Additionally, darkness provides better cover and reduces distractions, allowing the dog to focus solely on its detection tasks. In contrast, during the day in very busy areas, there may be more distractions and noise that can hinder the dog's ability to concentrate on detecting objects or substances.Rate this question:
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