Defensor Fortis - Volume 1

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 41

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Defensor Fortis - Volume 1

5 level


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Where was the military police (MP) (aviation) training camp established in 1942?
    • A. 

      Kelly Field, TX.

    • B. 

      Tinker Field, OK

    • C. 

      Camp Ripley, MN.

    • D. 

      Camp Lajeune, NC

  • 2. 
    Air Police Security (APS) battalions were designed to protect against all of the following except
    • A. 

      riots.

    • B. 

      riots.

    • C. 

      Light tanks.

    • D. 

      Parachute attacks.

  • 3. 
    On 1 September 1950, what was established at Tyndall AFB, Florida?
    • A. 

      Air Police School.

    • B. 

      Air Leaders School.

    • C. 

      Corp Training Office

    • D. 

      Base Defense Academy

  • 4. 
    In what year did the Air Force approve the first trial issue of the security police (SP) shield?
    • A. 

      1943

    • B. 

      1945.

    • C. 

      1950.

    • D. 

      1957

  • 5. 
    The Security Forces (SF) beret with the Defensor Fortis flash
    • A. 

      Identifies SF to foreign forces as security personnel.

    • B. 

      Is a distinguishing uniform item designed to deter aggression

    • C. 

      Identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide.

    • D. 

      Is directly related to the special forces beret and patches used during the Vietnam War.

  • 6. 
    In what year was the name of the career field changed from “Air Police” to “Security Police”?
    • A. 

      1985

    • B. 

      1971

    • C. 

      1966.

    • D. 

      1950.

  • 7. 
    The success of what special unit in Vietnam led to the development of ground combat skills training for security police (SP)?
    • A. 

      The 1041st SPS (Test).

    • B. 

      The 4110th SPS (Test).

    • C. 

      The 1401st SPS.

    • D. 

      The 1140th SPS.

  • 8. 
    The Vietnam Conflict pointed out the need for a revised doctrine, specifically one based on
    • A. 

      Weapons systems protective concept.

    • B. 

      Aircraft protection system concept.

    • C. 

      Air base defense protective system

    • D. 

      Whole-base protective system.

  • 9. 
    In 1971, Security Police was split into two separate functions; what were these functions?
    • A. 

      Police dog units and law enforcement specialties.

    • B. 

      Law enforcement and security specialties

    • C. 

      Security and force protection elements

    • D. 

      Security teams and security elements.

  • 10. 
    Which operation provided the US military its first significant experience in urban operations since Vietnam?
    • A. 

      Operation NORIEGA

    • B. 

      Operation URGENT FURY

    • C. 

      Operation FREE PANAMA.

    • D. 

      Operation JUST CAUSE.

  • 11. 
    What was the “first in” Security Forces (SF) concept adopted by Air Mobility Command (AMC) in 1997?
    • A. 

      Rising Sun Program.

    • B. 

      Noble Eagle Program

    • C. 

      Flying Falcon Program.

    • D. 

      Phoenix Raven Program.

  • 12. 
    The military operation launched against the Taliban in Dec 2001 was called
    • A. 

      Operation ENDURING FREEDOM

    • B. 

      Operation INSPIRING FREEDOM.

    • C. 

      Operation IRAQI FREEDOM.

    • D. 

      Operation NOBLE EAGLE.

  • 13. 
    During the Global War on Terrorism, assisting sister services brought about a new nontraditional Security Forces (SF) task of convoy
    • A. 

      Commander duty.

    • B. 

      Response duty

    • C. 

      Escort duty

    • D. 

      Driver duty.

  • 14. 
    What Security Forces (SF) unit conducted the career field’s first combat parachute assault?
    • A. 

      343rd SFS.

    • B. 

      786th SFS.

    • C. 

      1041st SPS

    • D. 

      1140th SPS.

  • 15. 
    The mission of all Security Forces (SF) is to
    • A. 

      Be mission ready, resilient, and air minded

    • B. 

      Be knowledgeable in basic police and ground combat skills.

    • C. 

      Be good followers, great leaders and the most rigorously trained defenders

    • D. 

      Protect, defend, and fight to enable AF, Joint, and Coalition mission success

  • 16. 
    Which description correctly describes our Security Force symbol?
    • A. 

      Falcon over crossed runways.

    • B. 

      Eagle over crossed runways.

    • C. 

      Falcon over crossed swords

    • D. 

      Eagle over crossed swords.

  • 17. 
    In the Security Forces’ (SF) unit S-function structure, which “S” branch is typically the largest?
    • A. 

      S–1/Administration.

    • B. 

      S–2/Intelligence.

    • C. 

      S–3/Operations.

    • D. 

      S–4/Logistics

  • 18. 
    In the Security Forces’ (SF) unit S-function structure, which “S” branch maintains the Security Forces Management Information System (SFMIS)?
    • A. 

      S–1/Administration

    • B. 

      S–2/Intelligence.

    • C. 

      S–4/Operations.

    • D. 

      S–5/Plans and Programs.

  • 19. 
    What course must a trainee attend for awarding of the 7-skill level, Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3P071?
    • A. 

      Security Forces (SF) leader’s course

    • B. 

      Supply manager’s course

    • C. 

      SF craftsman resident course.

    • D. 

      Security superintendent non-resident course

  • 20. 
    As a Security Forces (SF) member, adhering to what system(s) of guidance ensures mission accomplishment?
    • A. 

      Option 1

    • B. 

      SF General Orders only.

    • C. 

      Performance Fitness Examination

    • D. 

      Code of Conduct and General Orders

  • 21. 
    Dealing with offenders in a dignified manner adheres to which conduct guideline?
    • A. 

      Fulfilling the mission.

    • B. 

      Personal appearance.

    • C. 

      Off-duty conduct.

    • D. 

      Attention to duty.

  • 22. 
    You have failed to follow what general conduct guideline if you issued a traffic ticket based on the violator’s race?
    • A. 

      Seeking favors

    • B. 

      Exercising authority.

    • C. 

      Assistance to others.

    • D. 

      Personal attitudes

  • 23. 
    Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be according to
    • A. 

      Option 1

    • B. 

      AFI 31–205, The Air Force Corrections Program

    • C. 

      AFI 31–206, Security Forces Investigation Program

    • D. 

      AFI 31–117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel.

  • 24. 
    At least how many days are required for significant heat acclimatization to prevent heat injuries in the area of operations (AO)?
    • A. 

      1 to 2.

    • B. 

      3 to 5.

    • C. 

      6 to 8.

    • D. 

      9 to 10.

  • 25. 
    Which base agency is responsible for routinely testing firing range for amounts of lead?
    • A. 

      Bioenvironmental Engineering Section.

    • B. 

      Base Hazardous Waste Section.

    • C. 

      Bioenvironmental Waste Section

    • D. 

      Bioenvironmental Health Section.

  • 26. 
    What is the single most important source of viruses in the workplace?
    • A. 

      Sweat

    • B. 

      Blood

    • C. 

      Syringes

    • D. 

      Foreign fluids.

  • 27. 
    Specific procedures you must follow on the job to reduce your risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens is 
    • A. 

      Engineering controls.

    • B. 

      Employee work practices

    • C. 

      Personal protective equipment usage.

    • D. 

      Housekeeping guidelines.

  • 28. 
    When conducting individual searches, what essential step should you take to protect yourself from exposure to blood or other body fluids?
    • A. 

      Search for weapons first.

    • B. 

      Always, begin your search at the front pocket.

    • C. 

      Always, conduct a precautionary check prior to searching

    • D. 

      Start searching for needles with an electromagnetic spectrometer.

  • 29. 
    Defender’s Edge training was developed by
    • A. 

      Defenders for defenders.

    • B. 

      Medical professionals for defenders.

    • C. 

      Base services for all AF personnel.

    • D. 

      Base operations for all AF personnel.

  • 30. 
    The stress response system (SRS) is composed of the
    • A. 

      Digestive and intestinal systems.

    • B. 

      Immune and psychological systems.

    • C. 

      Psychological and emotional systems.

    • D. 

      Sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.

  • 31. 
    As Security Forces (SF) members dealing with stress, who are our closest allies to strengthen our resilience?
    • A. 

      Chaplains.

    • B. 

      Team members

    • C. 

      Family members.

    • D. 

      Medical personnel.

  • 32. 
    Which legal document contains military laws that apply to all branches of the US Armed Forces?
    • A. 

      Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ).

    • B. 

      US Constitution

    • C. 

      Federal statutes.

    • D. 

      International law

  • 33. 
    What example of international law was reached at The Hague and Geneva conventions?
    • A. 

      Laws of Armed Conflict (LOAC)

    • B. 

      Manual of Courts-Martial (MCM) Title 10 statutes.

    • C. 

      Rules of Engagement (ROE).

    • D. 

      Rules of war.

  • 34. 
    Which Uniform Code of Military Justice’s (UCMJ) article states who is subject to military jurisdiction or military law?
    • A. 

      Article 77.

    • B. 

      Article 5

    • C. 

      Article 2

    • D. 

      Article 1.

  • 35. 
    If a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas that person
    • A. 

      must be tried overseas

    • B. 

      is not subject to the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ).

    • C. 

      Can be tried overseas or stateside.

    • D. 

      May choose to be court-martialed by a civilian authority

  • 36. 
    The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are
    • A. 

      Concurrent, current, proprietary.

    • B. 

      Exclusive, bilateral, concurrent.

    • C. 

      Exclusive, concurrent, proprietary and multilateral.

    • D. 

      Exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and reciprocal

  • 37. 
    ) The federal government has sole authority to enforce laws on installations
    • A. 

      When the government has exclusive jurisdiction.

    • B. 

      When partial jurisdiction exists.

    • C. 

      Under proprietary jurisdiction.

    • D. 

      Located in overseas areas

  • 38. 
    Under concurrent jurisdiction
    • A. 

      State laws are not enforced.

    • B. 

      The state has property rights only.

    • C. 

      The federal government has no authority.

    • D. 

      Both the state and federal government have authority.

  • 39. 
    When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied territory, it is known as a
    • A. 

      Proprietary government

    • B. 

      Military government.

    • C. 

      Nationalist regime

    • D. 

      Military state.

  • 40. 
    Which US service has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government?
    • A. 

      Air Force

    • B. 

      Coast Guard

    • C. 

      Army.

    • D. 

      Navy

  • 41. 
    What are the two types of martial law?
    • A. 

      Qualified and absolute

    • B. 

      Absolute and unqualified.

    • C. 

      Qualified and concurrent

    • D. 

      Exclusive and absolute.

  • 42. 
    Which type of martial law exists when military authority totally replaces civil authority?
    • A. 

      Military law.

    • B. 

      Exclusive

    • C. 

      Qualified

    • D. 

      Absolute

  • 43. 
    What law sets the standard of behavior for members of the Armed Forces through the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)?
    • A. 

      Military.

    • B. 

      Martial.

    • C. 

      Executive.

    • D. 

      Concurrent.

  • 44. 
    Which Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) article gives you the authority to issue lawful orders while executing your duties as a Security Forces (SF) member?
    • A. 

      Article 2 (2).

    • B. 

      Article 5.

    • C. 

      Article 92 (2)

    • D. 

      Article 134.

  • 45. 
    Who may request a civil proceeding under the federal tort law?
    • A. 

      Federal government.

    • B. 

      State government.

    • C. 

      Civilian companies.

    • D. 

      Private citizens

  • 46. 
    In determining whether an individual is a suspect, you should not base this decision on
    • A. 

      Circumstances and facts.

    • B. 

      Witnesses and statements.

    • C. 

      Hearsay and rumors.

    • D. 

      Opinion and belief

  • 47. 
     Whenever you have doubts concerning rights advisement, who or what office should you consult?
    • A. 

      The legal office

    • B. 

      The Air Force Office of Special Investigation (AFOSI) office.

    • C. 

      The base commander.

    • D. 

      A Security Forces investigator.

  • 48. 
    The Fifth Amendment of the Constitution protects against
    • A. 

      Self-inspection.

    • B. 

      self-infliction.

    • C. 

      Self-incrimination

    • D. 

      Self-determination.

  • 49. 
    Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective
    • A. 

      Psychological deterrent.

    • B. 

      Mobile flight-line force multiplier.

    • C. 

      base defense detection capability.

    • D. 

      Replacement for base sensor systems.

  • 50. 
    When is a military working dog’s (MWD) detection ability more effective?
    • A. 

      First thing in the morning.

    • B. 

      Thirty minutes after every meal.

    • C. 

      During the day in very busy areas

    • D. 

      During darkness or limited visibility.

  • 51. 
    When conducting building checks, the military working dog is normally
    • A. 

      on leash

    • B. 

      Off leash

    • C. 

      On long leash.

    • D. 

      Left in the vehicle.

  • 52. 
    The military working dog team should always approach buildings from the
    • A. 

      Front side or street side.

    • B. 

      Crosswind direction

    • C. 

      Downwind side

    • D. 

      upwind side.

  • 53. 
    Under ideal conditions, at what distance can the average military working dog detect and respond to intruders?
    • A. 

      100 yards

    • B. 

      150 yards

    • C. 

      200 yards or less.

    • D. 

      250 yards or more.

  • 54. 
    The military working dog’s primary mission is to
    • A. 

      Deter, detect, and detain intruders

    • B. 

      Provide a psychological deterrent.

    • C. 

      Search vehicles and buildings.

    • D. 

      Act as back up on all calls

  • 55. 
    Military working dogs should be kept on leash except when they must
    • A. 

      Search occupied buildings.

    • B. 

      Bite and hold multiple witnesses.

    • C. 

      search unoccupied buildings and disperse crowds

    • D. 

      Bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building.

  • 56. 
    Before releasing a military working dog to search a suspected unoccupied building, as the handler you must
    • A. 

      Give a verbal warning stating you are about to release the dog.

    • B. 

      loudly announce your intentions to order the dog to bite

    • C. 

      Place the military working dog on a long leash.

    • D. 

      Have the dog bark three times.

  • 57. 
    If a personality conflict occurs during an interview, the investigator should
    • A. 

      Allow another investigator to do the interview.

    • B. 

      Find out why the interviewee does not like him or her.

    • C. 

      continue with the interview

    • D. 

      Threaten the interviewee.

  • 58. 
    If a same sex Security Forces (SF) member cannot be present during an interview, what should you do?
    • A. 

      Have a second investigator present

    • B. 

      Reschedule when a same sex SF is available.

    • C. 

      Continue the interview alone.

    • D. 

      Stop the interview and release the witness as unreliable.

  • 59. 
    Which type of interviewee is normally interviewed to develop facts in an investigation?
    • A. 

      Suspects

    • B. 

      Victims.

    • C. 

      Witnesses

    • D. 

      Prosecutors.

  • 60. 
    The goal of any interview is to
    • A. 

      Obtain statements by all means possible

    • B. 

      To obtain legally admissible statements.

    • C. 

      Interrogating suspects into confessions.

    • D. 

      To gain written statements.

  • 61. 
    What are the types of interview approaches?
    • A. 

      Reverse, direct, indirect

    • B. 

      Direct, indirect, and reverse

    • C. 

      Indirect, alternating, and straight

    • D. 

      Direct, indirect, and alternating.

  • 62. 
    Which interview approach is primarily used to interrogate?
    • A. 

      Direct approach.

    • B. 

      Indirect approach.

    • C. 

      Alternating approach.

    • D. 

      Good cop - Bad cop approach.

  • 63. 
    If a victim becomes emotionally upset during an interview, you should
    • A. 

      call the staff judge advocate.

    • B. 

      Get some tissues and continue.

    • C. 

      Wait an hour and continue.

    • D. 

      Terminate and reschedule

  • 64. 
    Air Force personnel who are subjects of an investigation must be released
    • A. 

      To their spouse

    • B. 

      On their own recognizance

    • C. 

      to their supervisor, first sergeant, or commander

    • D. 

      To their commander, first sergeant, or staff judge advocate

  • 65. 
    As a Security Forces member, what is the primary rule in court testimony?
    • A. 

      Ensure your opinion is heard and justice is served.

    • B. 

      Make sure the accused goes to jail.

    • C. 

      Make sure your testimony sounds real.

    • D. 

      Tell the truth.

  • 66. 
    As a Security Force (SF) member, prior to testifying in court, you should
    • A. 

      review the entire case file

    • B. 

      contact your lawyer for information.

    • C. 

      Wait for the trail to begin before preparing

    • D. 

      Take some leave to clear your mind and get prepared.

  • 67. 
    Which of the following is not a purpose behind Security Management and Automation Resource Tracking Network (SMARTNet)?
    • A. 

      Consolidate programs.

    • B. 

      Maximize efficiency.

    • C. 

      Increase computer usage

    • D. 

      Reduce resource allocation

  • 68. 
    What office is responsible for the management, program development, and publication of Electronic Tactics, Techniques and Procedures Guides (e-TTPG)?
    • A. 

      AFSFC.

    • B. 

      SFCFM.

    • C. 

      SFCEM

    • D. 

      AFSFS.

  • 69. 
    What “S” function uses Electronic Tactics, Techniques and Procedures Guides (e-TTPG) to train you and your fellow squadron members?
    • A. 

      S–1.

    • B. 

      S–2

    • C. 

      S–3

    • D. 

      S–4

  • 70. 
    Defense Biometric Identification System (DBIDS) is capable of reading all of the following forms of identifications except
    • A. 

      State identification cards.

    • B. 

      retiree identifications cards

    • C. 

      Dependent identification cards

    • D. 

      Department of Defense-issued identification

  • 71. 
    Who is responsible to ensure personnel are Security Forces Management Information System (SFMIS) trained?
    • A. 

      Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC), Training.

    • B. 

      Staff judge advocate (SJA).

    • C. 

      Unit training manager (UTM).

    • D. 

      Installation defense force commander (DFC).

  • 72. 
    Security Forces Management Information System’s (SFMIS) users report information only to those with
    • A. 

      A security clearance.

    • B. 

      a valid need to know.

    • C. 

      Appropriate credentials.

    • D. 

      A vested interest in the case

  • 73. 
    National Crime Information Center (NCIC) training must meet
    • A. 

      State and Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI) requirements.

    • B. 

      Installation and major command (MAJCOM) requirements.

    • C. 

      Security Forces Center and Air Force Office of Investigative (AFOSI) requirements.

    • D. 

      Air Force Office of Investigative Services (AFOIS) requirements.

  • 74. 
    Restrict access to National Crime Information Center (NCIC) data as
    • A. 

      For Official Use Only (FOUO) Department of Defense classified.

    • B. 

      FOUO Department of Defense sensitive

    • C. 

      FOUO Law Enforcement classified.

    • D. 

      FOUO Law Enforcement sensitive.

  • 75. 
    You must complete Phase II training within how many calendar days of completing Phase I training?
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      60

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      120

  • 76. 
    Which type of training is considered universal training regardless of your Air Force Specialty code?
    • A. 

      Ancillary

    • B. 

      On-the-job

    • C. 

      Special skills.

    • D. 

      Collective skills.

  • 77. 
    Skills obtained through a tiered training approach and target knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSA) not routinely acquired during occupational and/or other ancillary training venues are called
    • A. 

      Expeditionary skills training.

    • B. 

      Collective skills training.

    • C. 

      individual skills training

    • D. 

      Battlefield skills training.

  • 78. 
    You must complete live-fire sustainment training within how many months after completion of qualification training on your primary weapon(s)?
    • A. 

      One to three

    • B. 

      Three to six

    • C. 

      Five to seven

    • D. 

      Six to twelve

  • 79. 
    Who is responsible for the overall management of the Stan/Eval program?
    • A. 

      Defense force commander.

    • B. 

      Security forces manager

    • C. 

      Operations commander

    • D. 

      Flight commander

  • 80. 
    A Stan/Eval inspection of each functional area is conducted every
    • A. 

      48 months.

    • B. 

      24 months.

    • C. 

      12 months.

    • D. 

      6 months.

  • 81. 
    Which position requires individuals to achieve at least 79 percent to pass the verbal/written portion of the duty position evaluation (DPE)?
    • A. 

      Urgent

    • B. 

      Critical

    • C. 

      Necessary

    • D. 

      Mandatory

  • 82. 
    The purpose of Flight level exercises for Security Forces (SF) members is to
    • A. 

      Help them pass the time during duty hours.

    • B. 

      Have them practice their hand-to-hand combat training.

    • C. 

      Help them stay sharp and put their training into practice.

    • D. 

      Have them demonstrate their ability to keep the installation secure

  • 83. 
    What information should leadership brief all personnel on before conducting any exercise?
    • A. 

      Location of the exercise.

    • B. 

      Type of scenarios being evaluated.

    • C. 

      How long the exercise will take

    • D. 

      Weapon, vehicle, and ground safety

  • 84. 
    What document is used for issuing firearms to personnel on a frequent basis?
    • A. 

      AF Form 626, Small Arms Hand Receipt.

    • B. 

      AF Form 627, Small Arms Hand Receipt

    • C. 

      AF Form 628, Small Arms Hand Receipt.

    • D. 

      AF Form 629, Small Arms Hand Receipt

  • 85. 
    What form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis?
    • A. 

      AF Form 522

    • B. 

      AF Form 629

    • C. 

      AF Form 797.

    • D. 

      AF Form 1297.

  • 86. 
    What should Security Forces (SF) members be familiar with prior to being assigned as controllers?
    • A. 

      Squadron leadership

    • B. 

      Geography of the base.

    • C. 

      Local law enforcement

    • D. 

      Installation operating hours.

  • 87. 
    What type of land mobile radio do walking patrols, security patrols, and fixed patrols use?
    • A. 

      Hand and arm signals and base station remote.

    • B. 

      Portable hand held radio.

    • C. 

      Mobile two-way radio.

    • D. 

      Base station

  • 88. 
    What is the purpose of call signs?
    • A. 

      To return entire transmission back to sender.

    • B. 

      For use as an order, a request, or as information.

    • C. 

      To separate the text from other portions of the message

    • D. 

      To simplify, clarify, and make communications more protected.

  • 89. 
    Localized training alarm monitors receive must be approved by the
    • A. 

      Installation commander

    • B. 

      Operations officer.

    • C. 

      Major command

    • D. 

      Chief, Security Forces

  • 90. 
    Who determines the frequency of testing and documentation of duress alarms?
    • A. 

      MAJCOM/DET

    • B. 

      AFSFC/DET

    • C. 

      AFDFC/A7R

    • D. 

      USAFA/A7S.

  • 91. 
    Conducting building checks is an excellent form of
    • A. 

      exercise

    • B. 

      In processing

    • C. 

      Intelligence gathering

    • D. 

      Proactive crime prevention.

  • 92. 
    When conducting a building check, what is the first step you take if you find a building with signs of forced entry?
    • A. 

      Contact the Base Defense Operations Center BDOC and inform the controller of the incident.

    • B. 

      Take cover in a position that allows you to observe the building

    • C. 

      Enter the building and conduct a room-to-room search for suspects

    • D. 

      Make contact with the on-duty K9 patrol and initiate an off-leash search.

  • 93. 
    What is your first responsibility when assuming your post as an installation access controller (IAC)?
    • A. 

      Conduct a post changeover

    • B. 

      Test your radio and duress system

    • C. 

      Call Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) and tell them you have arrived.

    • D. 

      Change the radio station, store your gear, and relax

  • 94. 
    Which is not a required piece of equipment for Security Forces (SF) personnel?
    • A. 

      Flashlight.

    • B. 

      Commercial radio

    • C. 

      Handcuffs with key

    • D. 

      Cold/foul weather gear

  • 95. 
    Which confinement facility (CF) or joint regional correctional facility (JRCF) is used to house all male confinees with sentences over 10 years?
    • A. 

      Level 1 RCF.

    • B. 

      Level 1 CF.

    • C. 

      Level 2 CF.

    • D. 

      Level 3 CF.

  • 96. 
    Which US military service is the executive agency for Level III corrections?
    • A. 

      Naval Brigade

    • B. 

      Marine Corps.

    • C. 

      Air Force.

    • D. 

      Army.

  • 97. 
    The humane treatment/incarceration procedures of confinees is the operational responsibility of the
    • A. 

      Wing commander.

    • B. 

      Security Forces manager

    • C. 

      Chief, Security Forces.

    • D. 

      Installation commander and defense force commander.

  • 98. 
    Individuals awaiting the filing of charges, disposition of charges, trial by courts-martial, or trial by foreign court are designated as
    • A. 

      Pretrial detainees.

    • B. 

      Pretrial convicts

    • C. 

      post-trial confinees

    • D. 

      Stand-by detainees.

  • 99. 
    Which custody classification is assigned to confinees who may be assigned to work details outside the facility under continuous escort and supervision?
    • A. 

      Trustee

    • B. 

      Minimum.

    • C. 

      Maximum

    • D. 

      Medium.

  • 100. 
    What are the two types of searches used in confinement facilities?
    • A. 

      Complete and frisk.

    • B. 

      Simple and complete

    • C. 

      Initial and simple.

    • D. 

      Complete and modest frisks