1.
(201) Which original components were very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?
Correct Answer
C. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
Explanation
CMOS (Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor) components are very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge. CMOS technology is commonly used in electronic devices and integrated circuits, and it is sensitive to static electricity. When exposed to electrostatic discharge, CMOS components can experience permanent damage or malfunction. Therefore, it is crucial to handle CMOS components with proper electrostatic discharge precautions to prevent any potential damage.
2.
(201) What is considered to be a computer's main storage?
Correct Answer
A. Random Access Memory (RAM).
Explanation
Random Access Memory (RAM) is considered to be a computer's main storage because it is a type of volatile memory that allows the computer to store and access data quickly. Unlike other types of storage like ROM, BIOS, or CMOS, RAM can be read from and written to, making it an essential component for running programs and storing temporary data. It provides the computer with fast access to data that is actively being used, allowing for efficient multitasking and overall performance.
3.
(201) What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?
Correct Answer
A. Read Only Memory (ROM).
Explanation
Nonvolatile permanent memory refers to a type of memory that retains its data even when the power is turned off. Out of the given options, Read Only Memory (ROM) is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory. ROM is a type of memory that stores data permanently and cannot be modified or erased. It contains instructions that are permanently written during manufacturing and retains its data even without power. BIOS, CMOS, and EEPROM are also types of nonvolatile memory, but they are not considered permanent as their data can be modified or erased.
4.
(201) What is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions?
Correct Answer
B. Basic Input/ Output System (BIOS).
Explanation
The correct answer is Basic Input/ Output System (BIOS). BIOS is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions. It is responsible for initializing and testing hardware components, loading the operating system, and providing a basic set of input/output functions for the computer. It is stored on a chip on the computer's motherboard and is the first software that runs when the computer is powered on.
5.
(202) What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the
need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event?
Correct Answer
D. Interrupt.
Explanation
An interrupt is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event. It is a mechanism used by hardware devices to communicate with the CPU and request its attention. When an interrupt occurs, the CPU temporarily suspends its current task and transfers control to a specific interrupt handler routine. This allows the CPU to respond to the device's request promptly and efficiently. Cache, buffer, and interface are not directly related to the concept of interrupts.
6.
(202) Which interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?
Correct Answer
C. 6.
Explanation
The floppy disk controller is typically connected to IRQ 6. This interrupt request line is used to notify the CPU when there is a request from the floppy disk controller, such as when a disk operation is completed or when there is an error. By using IRQ 6, the floppy disk controller can efficiently communicate with the CPU and ensure that disk operations are handled in a timely manner.
7.
(202) Which is a term used to describe that data is whole or complete?
Correct Answer
C. Data Integrity.
Explanation
Data integrity refers to the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data throughout its lifecycle. It ensures that data is complete, accurate, and consistent, without any unauthorized modifications or alterations. It involves maintaining the overall quality and reliability of data, including its completeness. Therefore, data integrity is the term used to describe that data is whole or complete.
8.
(202) What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity?
Correct Answer
B. Parity.
Explanation
Parity is considered a technique or method of checking data integrity. Parity involves adding an extra bit to a set of binary data to ensure that the total number of 1s in the data is either odd or even. By checking the parity bit, errors in the data can be detected, helping to ensure data integrity.
9.
(202) Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?
Correct Answer
B. Parity Bit.
Explanation
A parity bit is a simple error detecting code that is commonly used in computer systems. It is a binary digit (0 or 1) that is added to a group of bits to make the total number of 1s either even or odd. By checking the parity bit, errors in transmission or storage of the data can be detected. If the number of 1s is not what it should be (even or odd, depending on the parity scheme), then an error has occurred. Therefore, the use of a parity bit is a very simple and effective way to detect errors in data transmission or storage.
10.
(203) What is a way of utilizing a group of storage devices as if they were physically connected to
a server when they are not?
Correct Answer
B. Storage Area Network (SAN).
Explanation
A Storage Area Network (SAN) is a way of utilizing a group of storage devices as if they were physically connected to a server when they are not. SANs use a dedicated network to connect storage devices to servers, allowing multiple servers to access the storage devices simultaneously. This provides centralized storage management and allows for high-speed data transfer between servers and storage devices. NAS, RAID, and Array Storage are not specifically designed for connecting storage devices to servers in the same way as a SAN.
11.
(203) What is an advantage of using a storage area network (SAN) architecture?
Correct Answer
C. Ease of Replacing Server.
Explanation
Using a storage area network (SAN) architecture provides the advantage of ease in replacing servers. In a SAN, the storage devices are separate from the servers, allowing for easy replacement or upgrade of servers without affecting the storage infrastructure. This means that servers can be taken offline or replaced without disrupting the availability or accessibility of the stored data. This flexibility and scalability make SAN architecture a preferred choice for organizations that require high availability and easy server maintenance.
12.
(203) What is the connection type of choice for storage area networks (SAN)?
Correct Answer
A. Fibre Channel.
Explanation
Fibre Channel is the preferred connection type for storage area networks (SAN). Fibre Channel provides high-speed, reliable, and scalable connectivity for SANs. It allows for the transfer of large amounts of data between storage devices and servers, making it ideal for enterprise-level storage solutions. ATA over Ethernet (AoE), Small computer system interface (SCSI), and Internet small computer system interface (iSCSI) are alternative connection types but are not as commonly used or as well-suited for SANs as Fibre Channel.
13.
(203) Which storage device can be easily connected to a network and appears as a network drive?
Correct Answer
C. Network Attached Storage (NAS).
Explanation
Network Attached Storage (NAS) is the correct answer because it is a storage device that can be easily connected to a network and appears as a network drive. NAS devices are designed to provide file-level data storage to multiple clients over a computer network. They are typically connected to a local area network (LAN) and can be accessed by multiple users simultaneously. NAS devices offer centralized storage, easy file sharing, and can be easily managed and accessed over the network, making them an ideal choice for storing and sharing data in a network environment.
14.
(204) Which storage device has the means of providing data storage reliability using multiple hard
drives?
Correct Answer
D. Redundant array of independent disks (RAID).
Explanation
RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) is a storage technology that uses multiple hard drives to provide data storage reliability. It combines the drives into a single logical unit, distributing data across the drives in different ways to achieve redundancy and improve performance. RAID can provide fault tolerance, allowing the system to continue functioning even if one or more drives fail. This makes RAID a suitable solution for applications that require high data availability and reliability. SAN, NAS, and SCSI are also storage technologies, but they do not specifically provide the means of data storage reliability using multiple hard drives like RAID does.
15.
(204) The hard drives in a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array are presented to the
server as
Correct Answer
A. One Single Hard Drive.
Explanation
The correct answer is "One Single Hard Drive." In a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array, the multiple hard drives are combined and presented to the server as a single hard drive. This is done through the use of RAID controllers, which manage the data distribution and redundancy across the drives. From the server's perspective, it appears as if there is only one hard drive, even though the data is distributed across multiple physical drives. This allows for improved performance, fault tolerance, and data redundancy.
16.
(204) Which technology is often used in redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array that
can be daisy chained?
Correct Answer
A. Small computer system interface (SCSI).
Explanation
SCSI (Small computer system interface) is often used in redundant array of independent disks (RAID) arrays that can be daisy chained. SCSI is a standard interface for connecting multiple devices, such as hard drives, to a computer system. It allows for the connection of multiple devices in a chain, where each device can communicate with the computer independently. This makes it suitable for RAID arrays, where multiple hard drives are combined for increased performance or data redundancy. SCSI also provides high data transfer rates and supports hot-swapping of devices, making it a commonly used technology in RAID configurations.
17.
(205) Which is not a characteristic of high-order languages?
Correct Answer
C. Source codes that are written closest to machine language.
Explanation
High-order languages are designed to be user-friendly and provide a level of abstraction from machine language. They are nearly self-documenting and use English-like statements, making them easier to read and understand. Additionally, high-order languages allow programs to be transportable between computers with few changes, as they are not tied to the specific hardware or architecture. The statement "Source codes that are written closest to machine language" is not a characteristic of high-order languages, as they are meant to be further away from low-level machine instructions.
18.
(206) Which selection is a set of markup symbols or codes inserted in a file intended for display
on a Web browser page?
Correct Answer
C. HyperText Markup Language (HTML).
Explanation
HTML is a set of markup symbols or codes that are inserted in a file intended for display on a web browser page. It is the standard markup language for creating web pages and is used to structure content, format text and images, and create hyperlinks. SGML, XML, and DHTML are also markup languages, but they are not specifically designed for display on web browsers like HTML is.
19.
(206) Which Web application is most likely to succeed Hypertext Markup Language (HTML)?
Correct Answer
D. Extensible HTML (XHTML).
Explanation
XHTML is the most likely Web application to succeed HTML because it is a stricter and more standardized version of HTML. It combines the syntax of HTML with the stricter rules of XML, making it more compatible with different devices and browsers. XHTML also allows for cleaner and more structured code, which improves accessibility and search engine optimization. Overall, XHTML offers a more advanced and future-proof approach to web development compared to other options like DHTML, XML, and SGML.
20.
(206) A standard Web application used to pass a Web user's request to a server's application
program and to exchange data back to the user is called a
Correct Answer
B. Common gateway interface (CGI).
Explanation
A standard Web application used to pass a Web user's request to a server's application program and to exchange data back to the user is called a common gateway interface (CGI). This is a protocol that allows the web server to communicate with external programs or scripts, enabling dynamic content generation. It acts as a bridge between the user's request and the server's application program, facilitating the exchange of data between them. Transport Layer Security (TLS) is a cryptographic protocol used for secure communication, Data Encryption Standard (DES) is a symmetric encryption algorithm, and Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a framework for managing public key encryption.
21.
(207) Which program can be used to automatically launch programs on a preset schedule?
Correct Answer
D. Task Scheduler.
Explanation
Task Scheduler is a program that can be used to automatically launch programs on a preset schedule. It allows users to schedule tasks, such as running a specific program or script, at a specified time or on a recurring basis. This feature is useful for automating routine tasks, such as system maintenance or backups, without requiring manual intervention. Disk Quotas, Check Disk, and Disk Defragmenter are not programs that have the capability to automatically launch programs on a preset schedule, making Task Scheduler the correct answer.
22.
(207) Which error-checking tool allows you to monitor the file system for errors?
Correct Answer
A. Check Disk.
Explanation
Check Disk is an error-checking tool that allows you to monitor the file system for errors. It scans the file system and checks for any errors or inconsistencies, such as bad sectors or corrupted files. It can also fix these errors and recover lost data. Disk Quotas, Task Scheduler, and Disk Defragmenter are not error-checking tools and do not perform the same functions as Check Disk.
23.
(208) Which numbering system characteristic is the leftmost non-zero digit of a numeric value?
Correct Answer
B. Most Significant Digit (MSD).
Explanation
The leftmost non-zero digit of a numeric value represents the highest place value in the number. This digit is the most significant digit (MSD) because it contributes the most to the overall value of the number. It determines the range and magnitude of the number.
24.
(209) What should each organization have that spells out which systems are prioritized in what
order for the basis of protecting those systems from disasters?
Correct Answer
B. List of Critical Devices.
Explanation
Each organization should have a list of critical devices that spells out which systems are prioritized in what order for the basis of protecting those systems from disasters. This list helps in identifying and prioritizing the most important devices or systems that need to be protected in case of a disaster. By having this list, organizations can allocate resources and implement appropriate preventative controls and recovery strategies to ensure the continuity and security of these critical devices. Emergency action plans may also be developed based on this list to outline specific actions to be taken in case of a disaster involving these devices.
25.
(210) Which type of backup would you use at the end of the week to save all data that you select
on your systems?
Correct Answer
D. Normal.
Explanation
At the end of the week, a normal backup would be used to save all the selected data on the systems. Normal backup involves backing up all the selected data regardless of whether it has been previously backed up or not. This ensures that all the data is saved and can be easily restored if needed. Incremental backup only saves the changes made since the last backup, differential backup saves the changes made since the last normal backup, and daily backup saves the changes made within a day.
26.
(210) Which type of backup will backup all files that have been altered in the last 24 hours?
Correct Answer
A. Daily.
Explanation
The correct answer is Daily. Daily backup will backup all files that have been altered in the last 24 hours. This means that every day, the backup system will create a backup of all the files that have been modified or created within the past 24 hours. This ensures that the most recent versions of the files are backed up regularly, providing a good level of data protection.
27.
(211) What is based around a central directory database containing information about all the domain
controllers in the network?
Correct Answer
A. Active Directory.
Explanation
Active Directory is based around a central directory database containing information about all the domain controllers in the network. It is a directory service developed by Microsoft and is used to manage and organize network resources, including users, computers, and other devices. Active Directory provides a centralized authentication and authorization mechanism, allowing users to access resources based on their permissions and privileges. It also enables administrators to manage and control the network environment efficiently. Domain Manager, Domain Name Service (DNS), and Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) are not specifically designed to contain information about all the domain controllers in the network.
28.
(211) What is a group of users, servers, and other resources that share a centralized database of
account and security information?
Correct Answer
A. Domain.
Explanation
A domain is a group of users, servers, and other resources that share a centralized database of account and security information. It is a logical grouping of network objects, such as computers, users, and devices, that share the same security policies and trust relationships. In a domain, a centralized database called Active Directory stores information about all the objects in the domain, including user accounts, computer accounts, group policies, and security settings. This allows for centralized management and control of resources within the domain.
29.
(211) What kind of server contains the master listing of all active directory objects in the forest?
Correct Answer
C. Global Catalog.
Explanation
A Global Catalog server contains the master listing of all active directory objects in the forest. It is a specialized domain controller that stores a partial replica of all objects in the forest. This allows users to search for objects across multiple domains in the forest without having to contact each individual domain controller. The Global Catalog server also holds a subset of attributes for each object, making it an efficient resource for searching and locating information in a distributed environment.
30.
(211) What is a set of rules that can be set to affect active directory leaf objects to control what can be
done by a user?
Correct Answer
C. Group Policy Objects.
Explanation
Group Policy Objects (GPOs) are a set of rules that can be set to affect active directory leaf objects, allowing administrators to control what can be done by a user. GPOs are used to manage various settings and configurations for users and computers in a network environment. They can be used to enforce security policies, control access to resources, and configure settings such as desktop backgrounds, software installation, and network connections. By applying GPOs, administrators can centrally manage and enforce consistent policies across multiple users and computers in an Active Directory domain.
31.
(212) Which type of interface is friendlier for the average user to use?
Correct Answer
B. Graphic User Interface.
Explanation
A Graphic User Interface (GUI) is a type of interface that allows users to interact with a computer system through visual elements such as icons, buttons, and menus. It provides a more intuitive and user-friendly experience compared to a Command Line Interface (CLI) or Menu Driven Interface. GUIs make it easier for average users to navigate and perform tasks without needing to memorize complex commands or navigate through text-based menus. Therefore, a GUI is considered friendlier for the average user to use.
32.
(212) Sitting at a computer and loading a software patch onto it is an example of what type of
software patch?
Correct Answer
B. Attended.
Explanation
Loading a software patch onto a computer while sitting at the computer implies that the user is actively involved in the process. Therefore, this is an example of an attended software patch, where the user is present and manually performing the patching process.
33.
(212) Which type of patch would utilize a remote installation services (RIS)?
Correct Answer
D. Unattended.
Explanation
Unattended patching refers to the process of installing patches on multiple computers without any user intervention. Remote Installation Services (RIS) is a feature in Windows Server that allows for remote installation of operating systems on client computers. In the context of patching, RIS can be used to remotely install patches on multiple computers in an unattended manner. Therefore, the correct answer is "Unattended."
34.
(213) Which components of domain name service (DNS) contain a database of associated names and
IP addresses?
Correct Answer
A. Name Servers.
Explanation
Name Servers contain a database of associated names and IP addresses in the domain name service (DNS). They are responsible for storing and managing the mapping between domain names and their corresponding IP addresses. Name Servers are crucial in the DNS infrastructure as they help in resolving domain names to their respective IP addresses and facilitate the smooth functioning of internet communication.
35.
(213) Which query is made by one name server to another name server?
Correct Answer
D. Non-recursive Query.
Explanation
A non-recursive query is made by one name server to another name server when it does not want the other name server to perform the entire resolution process on its behalf. Instead, it only wants the other name server to provide a referral to another name server that might have the answer. This type of query is commonly used in DNS to efficiently distribute the workload among multiple name servers and reduce the response time for resolving domain names.
36.
(214) Which software program manages an IP address allocation for a network?
Correct Answer
A. Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).
Explanation
DHCP is a software program that manages the allocation of IP addresses for a network. It automatically assigns and configures IP addresses to devices on a network, eliminating the need for manual configuration. DHCP ensures efficient utilization of IP addresses and simplifies network administration by centralizing IP address management. It also provides additional network configuration information, such as subnet mask and default gateway, to devices. Therefore, DHCP is the correct software program for managing IP address allocation in a network.
37.
(214) The group of IP addresses that a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server manages
is known as a
Correct Answer
C. Scope.
Explanation
A DHCP server manages a group of IP addresses known as a scope. A scope is a range of IP addresses that the DHCP server can assign to devices on a network. The DHCP server dynamically allocates these IP addresses to devices as they connect to the network, ensuring that each device has a unique IP address. Therefore, the correct answer is "Scope."
38.
(214) What is the minimum number of scopes a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server
can have?
Correct Answer
A. One.
Explanation
A dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server is responsible for assigning IP addresses to devices on a network. The minimum number of scopes a DHCP server can have is one. A scope is a range of IP addresses that the server can assign to devices. Having at least one scope is necessary for the DHCP server to function properly and provide IP addresses to devices on the network.
39.
(214) According to Air Force dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) policies, how long is the
lease that a noncritical workstation will have applied to them?
Correct Answer
B. 30 Days.
Explanation
According to Air Force dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) policies, a noncritical workstation will have a lease applied to them for 30 days. This means that the workstation will be assigned an IP address for a period of 30 days before it needs to renew the lease.
40.
(215) What type of service allows network administrators to install upgrades on any number of client
computers at one time from a centralized location?
Correct Answer
C. Remote installation services (RIS).
Explanation
Remote Installation Services (RIS) is a type of service that enables network administrators to install upgrades on multiple client computers simultaneously from a centralized location. This service simplifies the process of deploying software updates or operating system upgrades, as it eliminates the need for manual installation on each individual computer. With RIS, administrators can remotely initiate installations, saving time and effort in managing large networks.
41.
(216) Which is not a component of Internet information services (IIS)?
Correct Answer
D. Simple network management protocol (SNMP).
Explanation
Simple network management protocol (SNMP) is not a component of Internet Information Services (IIS). IIS is a web server software package developed by Microsoft, and it includes components such as FTP Server, Internet services manager, and Simple mail transport protocol (SMTP). SNMP, on the other hand, is a protocol used for managing and monitoring network devices. It is not directly related to IIS and its functionalities.
42.
(217) What component of windows unifies and simplifies day to day system management tasks?
Correct Answer
C. Microsoft management console (MMC).
Explanation
The Microsoft Management Console (MMC) is a component of Windows that unifies and simplifies day-to-day system management tasks. It provides a centralized platform for managing various aspects of Windows, such as configuring system settings, managing user accounts, and monitoring performance. With MMC, administrators can access multiple administrative tools and snap-ins from a single interface, making it easier to navigate and manage the system efficiently. DNS, IIS, and RIS are not components that specifically focus on system management tasks, making MMC the correct answer.
43.
(217) Which type of group manages user's rights assignments and access permissions?
Correct Answer
C. Security.
Explanation
The correct answer is "Security." In an information system, the security group is responsible for managing user's rights assignments and access permissions. This group ensures that only authorized individuals have the necessary privileges to access certain resources or perform specific actions within the system. They are in charge of setting up and maintaining security measures such as user authentication, authorization, and encryption to protect sensitive data and prevent unauthorized access.
44.
(217) Which special identity can represent users currently logged on to a particular computer and
accessing a given resource located on that computer?
Correct Answer
D. Interactive.
Explanation
The special identity "Interactive" represents users who are currently logged on to a particular computer and accessing a given resource located on that computer. This identity is used to differentiate users who are physically present at the computer and interacting with it, as opposed to users accessing the resource remotely or anonymously.
45.
(218) What defines the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource?
Correct Answer
B. Permissions.
Explanation
Permissions define the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource. They determine what actions can be taken on the resource, such as read, write, or execute. Permissions are typically assigned to users or groups and govern the level of access they have to the resource. Access Control Lists (ACLs) are a mechanism used to implement permissions by specifying who can perform specific actions on a resource. Hardware configuration refers to the physical setup and settings of the hardware and is not directly related to defining rules for resource operations.
46.
(218) What permission always overrides all other permissions assigned to a user or group to which the
user belongs?
Correct Answer
B. No Access.
Explanation
No Access is the correct answer because it completely denies the user or group any access to the resource. Even if the user or group has been assigned other permissions like Full Control, Change, or Write, the No Access permission will always take precedence and override all other permissions. This means that the user or group will not be able to view, modify, or interact with the resource in any way.
47.
(218) When a new folder or file is created on a new technology file system (NTFS) partition, whatpermissions are automatically assigned?
Correct Answer
D. Inherited permissions of the folder it's contained in.
Explanation
When a new folder or file is created on a new technology file system (NTFS) partition, the permissions that are automatically assigned are the inherited permissions of the folder it is contained in. This means that the new folder or file will inherit the same permissions as the parent folder, ensuring consistency and ease of management.
48.
(219) Which exchange service is the first service launched when Microsoft Exchange starts and the
last to stop when it is shut down?
Correct Answer
B. System Attendant.
Explanation
The System Attendant service is the first service launched when Microsoft Exchange starts and the last to stop when it is shut down. This service is responsible for managing the Exchange server, including tasks such as starting and stopping other Exchange services, monitoring mailbox databases, and handling directory service queries. It plays a crucial role in the overall functionality and operation of the Exchange server.
49.
(219) In Exchange System Manager, which container holds configuration objects such as Queues,
Mailbox stores and Public Folder stores and protocols information?
Correct Answer
D. Servers.
Explanation
In Exchange System Manager, the container that holds configuration objects such as Queues, Mailbox stores, Public Folder stores, and protocols information is the "Servers" container. This container allows administrators to manage and configure various server settings and properties within the Exchange environment. It is where they can view and modify server roles, settings, and properties related to the functioning of the Exchange servers.
50.
(220) Which type of lists uses pointers to connect each element together?
Correct Answer
B. Linked.
Explanation
Linked lists use pointers to connect each element together. In a linked list, each element contains a reference to the next element in the list, forming a chain-like structure. This allows for efficient insertion and deletion of elements at any position in the list. Unlike sequential lists, linked lists do not require elements to be stored in consecutive memory locations.