Effects And Uses Of Drugs
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which of the following is not a function of drugs?
- A.
Diagnosis
- B.
Prevention
- C.
Treatment
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. None of the aboveExplanation
Drugs have various functions, including diagnosis, prevention, and treatment. Therefore, the correct answer is "none of the above" because all of the options listed are functions of drugs.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following is not one of the body control systems on which drugs act upon?
- A.
Receptors
- B.
Ion channels
- C.
Genetic apparatus
- D.
Enzymes
- E.
Carrier proteins
Correct Answer
C. Genetic apparatusExplanation
The genetic apparatus is not one of the body control systems on which drugs act upon. Drugs typically target receptors, ion channels, enzymes, and carrier proteins to exert their effects on the body. The genetic apparatus refers to the machinery involved in DNA replication, transcription, and translation, which is not directly influenced by drugs.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following is not true about Gq-proteins
- A.
Increases DAG
- B.
Increases intracellular Ca+2 ions
- C.
Activates tyrosine kinase C
- D.
Linked to alpha-1 adrenergic receptors
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Activates tyrosine kinase CExplanation
The Gq-proteins are known to increase intracellular Ca+2 ions and DAG. They are also linked to alpha-1 adrenergic receptors. However, it is not true that Gq-proteins activate tyrosine kinase C. Therefore, the correct answer is "activates tyrosine kinase C."Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following is common between between DNA-linked receptors and NO receptors
- A.
They are found inside the cells
- B.
They both act on genetic apparatus
- C.
The action of both of them depends on the formation of a second messenger
- D.
They modify protein production
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. They are found inside the cellsExplanation
DNA-linked receptors and NO receptors are both found inside the cells. This means that they are located within the cell membrane and are not present on the cell surface. This is a common characteristic between these two types of receptors.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following is common between agonists and antagonists
- A.
They have the same rate of association and disassociation
- B.
They both have affinity
- C.
They both have efficacy
- D.
Two of the above
Correct Answer
B. They both have affinityExplanation
Both agonists and antagonists have affinity, which refers to their ability to bind to a specific receptor. Affinity is a measure of how tightly a drug binds to its target receptor. In the case of agonists, their binding to the receptor activates a response, while antagonists bind to the receptor without activating a response. Despite their different effects, both agonists and antagonists need to have affinity in order to interact with the receptor. Therefore, affinity is a common characteristic between agonists and antagonists.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following is used to calculate the effectiveness of the drug in relation to its dose
- A.
Emax
- B.
ED50
- C.
Therapeutic index
- D.
Steepness of slope of the dose-effect graph
- E.
Two of the above
Correct Answer
E. Two of the aboveExplanation
The two options that can be used to calculate the effectiveness of a drug in relation to its dose are Emax and ED50. Emax represents the maximum effect that can be achieved by the drug, while ED50 indicates the dose at which the drug produces 50% of its maximum effect. These measures are commonly used in pharmacology to assess the potency and efficacy of drugs. The therapeutic index and the steepness of the dose-effect graph are not specifically used for this purpose.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following parameters can't be obtained from a quantal-dose curve
- A.
Emax
- B.
ED50
- C.
LD50
- D.
Safety index
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. EmaxExplanation
Emax, also known as the maximum effect, cannot be obtained from a quantal-dose curve. A quantal-dose curve is used to determine the dose at which a certain percentage of individuals exhibit a specific response, typically a binary response of either having the effect or not having it. Emax, on the other hand, represents the maximum response that can be achieved regardless of the dose. It is not directly derived from the quantal-dose curve, but rather represents the upper limit of the response. Therefore, Emax cannot be obtained from the quantal-dose curve.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following regarding chronopharmacology is not correct?
- A.
Attacks of bronchial asthma are common at night
- B.
Circadian variation of sympathetic activity causes MI in mornings
- C.
Antihistamine treatment should be given at midnight
- D.
Irritant drugs should be given after meals
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Antihistamine treatment should be given at midnightExplanation
The answer "antihistamine treatment should be given at midnight" is not correct because chronopharmacology studies the effects of drugs on the body based on the time of day. Antihistamines are typically used to treat allergies and are not specifically recommended to be taken at midnight. The timing of antihistamine treatment may vary depending on the specific medication and the individual's symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A child is 5 years old and the dose of a drug he takes is 10mg.Find the adult dose
- A.
34mg
- B.
43mg
- C.
12mg
- D.
51mg
Correct Answer
A. 34mg -
- 10.
Which of the following drugs needs to be present in order to cause malignant hyperthermia
- A.
Succinylcholine
- B.
Halothane
- C.
Barbiturates
- D.
Sulphonamides
- E.
Succinylcholine and halothane together
Correct Answer
E. Succinylcholine and halothane togetherExplanation
Malignant hyperthermia is a potentially life-threatening reaction to certain medications used during general anesthesia. Succinylcholine and halothane are both known triggers for malignant hyperthermia. When used together, they can increase the risk of developing this condition. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this potential interaction and take necessary precautions to prevent and manage malignant hyperthermia in patients undergoing anesthesia.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which of the following drugs do not cause porphyrias in a person having genetic defeciency in second enzyme converting porphyrin to heme
- A.
Barbiturates
- B.
Aminoglycosides
- C.
Sulphonamides
- D.
Drugs stimulating ALA synthase
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. AminoglycosidesExplanation
Aminoglycosides do not cause porphyrias in a person with a genetic deficiency in the second enzyme converting porphyrin to heme. Porphyrias are a group of rare genetic disorders that affect the production of heme, a component of hemoglobin. Aminoglycosides are a class of antibiotics that work by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis. They do not directly affect the production of heme in humans, so they would not worsen the symptoms of porphyria in individuals with a genetic deficiency in the second enzyme involved in heme synthesis.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which of the following drugs cause hemolytic anemia due to G6PD defeciency
- A.
Fava beans
- B.
Antimalarials
- C.
Sulphonamides
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
All of the above drugs can cause hemolytic anemia in individuals with G6PD deficiency. G6PD deficiency is a genetic condition that affects the red blood cells' ability to protect themselves from oxidative damage. Fava beans contain a substance called vicine, which can trigger the breakdown of red blood cells in individuals with G6PD deficiency. Antimalarial drugs and sulfonamides can also cause oxidative stress and damage to red blood cells in individuals with this deficiency. Therefore, all of these drugs can lead to hemolytic anemia in people with G6PD deficiency.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The synthesis of which of the following clotting factors is not inhibited by warfarin
- A.
2
- B.
9
- C.
7
- D.
10
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
E. None of the aboveExplanation
Warfarin is a medication that inhibits the synthesis of certain clotting factors in the body. However, none of the clotting factors listed in the options (2, 9, 7, 10) are exempt from warfarin's inhibitory effects. Therefore, the correct answer is "none of the above."Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following match in teratogenic drugs is incorrect
- A.
I131-->fetal goiter
- B.
Antiepileptics-->cleft palate
- C.
Thalidomide-->fetal anomalies
- D.
Teracyclins-->dental hypoplasia
Correct Answer
C. Thalidomide-->fetal anomaliesExplanation
Thalidomide is known to cause a variety of fetal anomalies, making it a teratogenic drug. Therefore, the given answer stating that the match between thalidomide and fetal anomalies is incorrect is incorrect itself. Thalidomide is indeed associated with fetal anomalies, including limb abnormalities and organ malformations, and is notorious for causing birth defects when taken during pregnancy.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Iatrogenic diseases are of which type of adverse reactions
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
- E.
E
Correct Answer
A. AExplanation
Iatrogenic diseases are a type of adverse reaction caused by medical treatment or procedures. These diseases occur as a result of medical intervention, such as medication side effects, surgical complications, or healthcare-associated infections. Therefore, the correct answer is A.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Metronidazole induces which of the following type D reactions
- A.
Carcinogenecity
- B.
Teratogenecity
- C.
Mutagenecity
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. MutagenecityExplanation
Metronidazole is a medication that is commonly used to treat various types of infections. It has been found to have mutagenic properties, meaning it can cause changes in the DNA of cells, potentially leading to genetic mutations. This can have harmful effects on the body and increase the risk of developing certain diseases. Therefore, the correct answer is "mutagenicity" as metronidazole can induce mutagenic reactions.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Drug dependence is of which type of adverse effects
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
- E.
E
Correct Answer
C. CExplanation
Drug dependence is a type of adverse effect that occurs when an individual becomes physically or psychologically dependent on a drug. This means that their body and mind have adapted to the presence of the drug and they experience withdrawal symptoms when they try to stop using it. Drug dependence can lead to a range of negative consequences, including tolerance, cravings, and difficulty controlling drug use.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Hypertension adverse effect is caused by which of the following
- A.
Stoppage of clonidine
- B.
Stoppage of B-adrenergic blockers
- C.
Corticosteroids chronic use
- D.
Two of the above
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. Two of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "two of the above." Hypertension adverse effects can be caused by stopping the use of clonidine or B-adrenergic blockers. Additionally, chronic use of corticosteroids can also lead to hypertension. Therefore, both the stoppage of clonidine and B-adrenergic blockers, as well as the chronic use of corticosteroids, can contribute to hypertension adverse effects.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which of the following effects occur at therapeutic dose
- A.
Side effects
- B.
Seizure due to lidocaine
- C.
Toxic effect
- D.
Intolerance
- E.
Two of the above
Correct Answer
E. Two of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "two of the above." This means that two of the listed effects occur at therapeutic doses. The question does not specify which two effects are correct, so it could be any combination of side effects, seizure due to lidocaine, toxic effect, or intolerance.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Oral anticoagulants cause which of the following
- A.
Hepatotoxicity
- B.
Analgesic nephropathy
- C.
Addisonian crisis on stoppage
- D.
Thromboembolism
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. ThromboembolismExplanation
Oral anticoagulants are medications that help prevent the formation of blood clots. They work by inhibiting the clotting factors in the blood. Therefore, the correct answer is thromboembolism, as oral anticoagulants help reduce the risk of blood clots and subsequent complications such as deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism. The other options, hepatotoxicity, analgesic nephropathy, and Addisonian crisis on stoppage, are unrelated to the action of oral anticoagulants.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following relating to methods of drug transport is incorrect
- A.
Facilitated diffusion involves transport of substances across ion channels
- B.
Active transport moves substances against concentration gradient
- C.
Pinocytosis uses energy
- D.
Carrier mediated transport is subjected to saturation and competition
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Facilitated diffusion involves transport of substances across ion channelsExplanation
Facilitated diffusion involves the transport of substances across a cell membrane with the help of specific carrier proteins. It does not involve the transport of substances across ion channels. Ion channels are responsible for the passive transport of ions across the cell membrane, not facilitated diffusion.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which of the following is incorrect about transport factors related to drugs
- A.
Inorganic substanes are better absorbed than organic
- B.
Solutions are better absorbed than suspensions
- C.
More lipid soluble drugs are absorbed better than less lipid soluble ones(provided both have same solubility for water)
- D.
Ferric is better absorbed than ferrous
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. Ferric is better absorbed than ferrousExplanation
The statement "ferric is better absorbed than ferrous" is incorrect. In fact, the opposite is true. Ferrous (Fe2+) ions are better absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract compared to ferric (Fe3+) ions. This is because ferrous ions are more soluble and can be easily transported across the intestinal membrane, while ferric ions require conversion to ferrous ions before absorption can occur. Therefore, the correct answer is that none of the statements are incorrect about transport factors related to drugs.Rate this question:
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- 23.
A drug of weak basicity has a pKa of 3 and the ratio of unionized base to ionized base is 2:3.Find the pH of the medium containing the drug(correct to 2 decimal places)
- A.
2.82
- B.
3.18
- C.
4.02
- D.
2.37
Correct Answer
A. 2.82Explanation
The pKa value of a drug indicates the pH at which the drug is 50% ionized and 50% unionized. In this case, the pKa of 3 suggests that the drug is more ionized at a pH lower than 3 and more unionized at a pH higher than 3. The ratio of unionized base to ionized base is given as 2:3, which means that for every 2 molecules of the drug that are unionized, there are 3 molecules that are ionized. Since the ratio is greater for the ionized base, it suggests that the pH of the medium is lower than the pKa. Therefore, the pH of the medium containing the drug is 2.82.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which of the following body mechanisms is most useful in toxicity treatment of drugs with high pKa in the urine
- A.
Increasing pH of the urine
- B.
Decreasing pH of the urine
- C.
Increasing pH of plasma filtered
- D.
Decreasing pH of plasma filtered
Correct Answer
B. Decreasing pH of the urineExplanation
Decreasing the pH of the urine is the most useful body mechanism in the toxicity treatment of drugs with high pKa in the urine. This is because drugs with high pKa are ionized in alkaline environments, such as the urine. By decreasing the pH of the urine, the drugs will become less ionized and more easily reabsorbed by the renal tubules, allowing for their elimination from the body.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which of the following drugs is most absorbed by the stomach
- A.
Acidic drug
- B.
Basic drug
- C.
Neutral drug
- D.
All have the same absorbance
Correct Answer
A. Acidic drugExplanation
Acidic drugs are most absorbed by the stomach because the stomach is highly acidic, with a pH of around 1-3. Acidic drugs are able to dissolve and be absorbed more easily in this acidic environment. Basic drugs, on the other hand, may ionize and become less soluble in the stomach, leading to reduced absorption. Neutral drugs may also have reduced absorption as they are not as easily dissolved in the acidic environment. Therefore, acidic drugs have the highest absorbance in the stomach compared to basic or neutral drugs.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which of the following is incorrect about drugs metabolism
- A.
Codiene which is inactive is converted to morphine.
- B.
Microsomal enzyme is located in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
- C.
sulfate drugs are conjugated into steroids
- D.
uric acid is produced by oxidation of xanthine
Correct Answer
A. Codiene which is inactive is converted to morphine.Explanation
The incorrect statement about drug metabolism is that codeine, which is inactive, is converted to morphine. In reality, codeine is metabolized in the liver by a specific enzyme called CYP2D6 into morphine, which is an active metabolite. This conversion is responsible for codeine's analgesic effects.Rate this question:
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- 27.
A patient comes to a hospital complains from an abdomianl pain,the patient said that he had a herat attack bedfore one month and takes warfarin beby examination ,the dr notices that he has a bleeding in stomach due to another drug is taken witout prescription,what this drug is most likely to be ?!
- A.
Cyclosporin
- B.
estrogen
- C.
Rifampcin
- D.
Cholramphenicol
Correct Answer
C. RifampcinExplanation
The most likely drug that caused the bleeding in the patient's stomach is rifampcin. This is because rifampcin is known to interact with warfarin, which the patient is taking, and increase the risk of bleeding. The patient's history of a previous heart attack and the presence of abdominal pain suggests that the bleeding in the stomach is a result of this drug interaction. Cyclosporin, estrogen, and chloramphenicol do not have significant interactions with warfarin that would cause bleeding in the stomach.Rate this question:
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- 28.
All of the following are non-microsomal enzyme except ?
- A.
Xanthine oxidase
- B.
Peptidase
- C.
Cholinestrase
- D.
Erythromycin
Correct Answer
D. ErythromycinExplanation
Erythromycin is a macrolide antibiotic, not an enzyme. Xanthine oxidase, peptidase, and cholinesterase are all enzymes involved in various biochemical processes.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which of the following is incorrect ?
- A.
Toxicity is caused by taking cimetidine with carbamazepine
- B.
phenoparbitone is used to treat jaundice
- C.
Ciprofloxacin can cause rejection transplant if its taken with cyclosporin
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Ciprofloxacin can cause rejection transplant if its taken with cyclosporinExplanation
The given answer states that "ciprofloxacin can cause rejection transplant if it's taken with cyclosporin" is incorrect. This means that ciprofloxacin does not cause rejection of a transplant when taken with cyclosporin.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Toxic dose of paracetamol causes depletion of ?
- A.
Glycine
- B.
Glutothione
- C.
Steroid
- D.
NAPQL
Correct Answer
B. GlutothioneExplanation
A toxic dose of paracetamol can cause depletion of glutathione. Glutathione is an important antioxidant that helps protect cells from damage caused by toxic substances. Paracetamol overdose can lead to the production of a toxic metabolite called NAPQL, which can deplete glutathione levels. This depletion of glutathione can result in oxidative stress and damage to the liver. Therefore, maintaining sufficient levels of glutathione is crucial for protecting against the toxic effects of paracetamol overdose.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The bodies internal fluids are separated into 3 compartments, an intravascular compartment, an interstitial compartment, and an intracellular compartment, the volume (L) of each for a 40 Kg child respectively is:
- A.
4, 10, 28
- B.
2, 6, 16
- C.
2, 5, 14
- D.
5, 15, 20
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. 2, 6, 16Explanation
The correct answer is 2, 6, 16. This is because the intravascular compartment contains approximately 5% of the body weight, which for a 40 Kg child would be 2 liters. The interstitial compartment contains approximately 15% of the body weight, which for a 40 Kg child would be 6 liters. The intracellular compartment contains approximately 40% of the body weight, which for a 40 Kg child would be 16 liters.Rate this question:
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- 32.
A patient that has been injected with a toxin comes into your clinic, upon further assessment you determine that the toxin is a large molecule weight compound and that it doesn’t bind appropriately to plasma proteins, your first action for resolving the issue would be
- A.
Take a blood sample and try to come up an antidote
- B.
Ask the patient for help
- C.
Try to dilute the toxin with the appropriate solution
- D.
Inject the patient with metabolic drugs
- E.
Try to calculate the LD50 of the toxin
Correct Answer
C. Try to dilute the toxin with the appropriate solutionExplanation
In this scenario, the best course of action would be to try to dilute the toxin with the appropriate solution. Dilution can help decrease the concentration of the toxin in the patient's body, reducing its harmful effects. It can also potentially make it easier for the body to eliminate the toxin through natural detoxification processes. This initial step can be followed by other necessary actions such as administering specific antidotes or treatments based on the nature of the toxin and the patient's symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Calculate the amount of drug, that is administered by an IV injection (assuming no elimination), in the body of a 38 year old male, weighing 80kg, with volumes of 32L intracellular, 5L intra vascular, 12L interstitial, a plasma-drug concentration of 3 mg/L and the apparent volume of distribution of the drug is 100L:
- A.
100
- B.
200
- C.
300
- D.
400
- E.
500
Correct Answer
C. 300Explanation
The apparent volume of distribution (Vd) is a pharmacokinetic parameter that indicates the extent to which a drug is distributed throughout the body. It is calculated by dividing the amount of drug in the body by the plasma drug concentration. In this case, the Vd is given as 100L. To calculate the amount of drug administered, we can rearrange the Vd equation and solve for the amount of drug: Vd = amount of drug / plasma drug concentration. Plugging in the given values, we have 100L = amount of drug / 3 mg/L. Solving for the amount of drug, we find that it is equal to 300 mg.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Most drugs plasma protein binging drugs bind to:
- A.
Hemoglobin
- B.
Blood platelets
- C.
Deoxygenated blood cells
- D.
Albumin
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. AlbuminExplanation
Most drugs bind to plasma proteins, and the primary protein that drugs bind to is albumin. Albumin is the most abundant protein in the blood plasma and has a high binding capacity for drugs. It acts as a carrier protein, transporting drugs throughout the bloodstream. Therefore, the correct answer is albumin.Rate this question:
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- 35.
If a patient taking a class I drug is given a class II, with both having an affinity for albumin, this may lead to:
- A.
An increase in the concentration/effects of free class I drug
- B.
An increase in the concentration of free class I drug but a decrease in its effect.
- C.
An increase in the concentration/effect of free class II drug.
- D.
An increase in the concentration of free class II drug but decrease in its effect.
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. An increase in the concentration/effects of free class I drugExplanation
When a patient taking a class I drug is given a class II drug, both of which have an affinity for albumin, it can lead to an increase in the concentration/effects of the free class I drug. This is because both drugs compete for binding sites on albumin, and when the class II drug is introduced, it displaces the class I drug from albumin, leading to an increase in the concentration of free class I drug. As a result, the effects of the class I drug may be intensified.Rate this question:
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- 36.
If a drug with a 2-hour half life is given with an initial dose of 8 mcg/ml , assuming first order kinetics , how much drug will be left at 6 hours
- A.
8mcg/ml
- B.
4mcg/ml
- C.
2mcg/ml
- D.
1mcg/ml
- E.
0.5mcg/ml
Correct Answer
D. 1mcg/mlExplanation
The question states that a drug with a 2-hour half-life is given with an initial dose of 8 mcg/ml. This means that after 2 hours, half of the drug will be eliminated from the body, leaving 4 mcg/ml. After another 2 hours (total of 4 hours), another half of the remaining drug will be eliminated, leaving 2 mcg/ml. Finally, after another 2 hours (total of 6 hours), another half of the remaining drug will be eliminated, leaving 1 mcg/ml. Therefore, at 6 hours, 1 mcg/ml of the drug will be left.Rate this question:
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- 37.
For first order drug elimination , given the half life equation of t(1/2)=(0.693 *vd) / CL , how many half-lives would be necessary to reach steady state = ( ͠ 95%) without a loading dose ?
- A.
1 to 2
- B.
2 to 3
- C.
3 to 4
- D.
4 to 5
- E.
5 to 6
Correct Answer
D. 4 to 5 -
- 38.
Which of the following is not correct about First order kinetics
- A.
It has a liner elimination kinetics (using log conc-time curve
- B.
A steady state concentration is reached on repeated dosing
- C.
Drug metabolites do not vary with dose
- D.
No fear of significant toxicity
- E.
Aspirin is one of the example about it
Correct Answer
E. Aspirin is one of the example about itExplanation
The statement "Aspirin is one of the example about it" is not correct about First order kinetics. Aspirin follows zero-order kinetics, where the rate of elimination is constant regardless of the concentration of the drug. First order kinetics, on the other hand, have a linear elimination kinetics, meaning the rate of elimination is proportional to the concentration of the drug.Rate this question:
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- 39.
To increase renal excretion of the basic ephedrine drug , you should give the patient
- A.
K acetate
- B.
NaHCO3
- C.
Vitamin C
- D.
Bicarbonate
- E.
Two of the above
Correct Answer
C. Vitamin CExplanation
Vitamin C can increase the renal excretion of basic ephedrine drug. This is because vitamin C is known to acidify the urine, which can enhance the elimination of basic drugs through the kidneys. Acidification of urine can increase the ionization of basic drugs, making them more water-soluble and easier to be excreted in urine. Therefore, giving the patient vitamin C can help increase the renal excretion of the basic ephedrine drug.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Lipophilicity reduce
- A.
Vd
- B.
Hepatic elimination
- C.
Renal reabsorption
- D.
Drug absorption
- E.
Renal excretion
Correct Answer
E. Renal excretionExplanation
Renal excretion refers to the process by which drugs are eliminated from the body through the kidneys. Lipophilicity, or the ability of a drug to dissolve in fat, is inversely related to renal excretion. Drugs that are highly lipophilic tend to be reabsorbed by the kidneys and therefore have a lower rate of renal excretion. On the other hand, drugs that are less lipophilic are more likely to be excreted by the kidneys. Therefore, lipophilicity reduces renal excretion.Rate this question:
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