6c051 All UREs

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6c051 All UREs - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) Which situation would preclude a ratification?

    • A.

      Government not obtaining a benefit from the performance.

    • B.

      CO determining the price to be fair and reasonable.

    • C.

      CO recommending payment and legal counsel concurs.

    • D.

      Availability of funds that were available at the time the unauthorized commitment was made.

    Correct Answer
    A. Government not obtaining a benefit from the performance.
  • 2. 

    (001) What action may be taken for a nonratifiable commitment?

    • A.

      Process of claim under the Disputes Act.

    • B.

      Request of a no-cost settlement from the contractor.

    • C.

      Charge to the individual who committed the unauthorized commitment.

    • D.

      Resolution by the GAO claim procedures.

    Correct Answer
    D. Resolution by the GAO claim procedures.
  • 3. 

    (002) What publications series represents Contracting?

    • A.

      62

    • B.

      63

    • C.

      64

    • D.

      65

    Correct Answer
    C. 64
  • 4. 

    (002) Which AFI defines the roles and responsibilities of positions within the operational contracting squadron?

    • A.

      AFI 38-101.

    • B.

      AFI 64-102.

    • C.

      AFI 65-109.

    • D.

      AFPD 64-1.

    Correct Answer
    B. AFI 64-102.
  • 5. 

    (002) FAR is issued under the joint authority of the

    • A.

      Administrator of General Services, the Secretary of Defense, and the Administrator of the NASA.

    • B.

      Administrator of General Services, the National Security Council, and the Administrator of NASA.

    • C.

      Administrator of General Services, the National Security Council, and the Secretary of Defense.

    • D.

      Secretary of Defense, the Administrator of NASA, and the National Security Council.

    Correct Answer
    A. Administrator of General Services, the Secretary of Defense, and the Administrator of the NASA.
  • 6. 

    (002) What councils prepare all FAR revisions?

    • A.

      DAR Council and the National Security Acquisition Council.

    • B.

      DAR Council and the CAA Council.

    • C.

      General Council and the National Security Acquisition Council.

    • D.

      General Council and the CAA Council.

    Correct Answer
    B. DAR Council and the CAA Council.
  • 7. 

    (002) What is meant by implementing FAR?

    • A.

      Adding material that is unique to the Air Force.

    • B.

      Adding material that is unique to DOD.

    • C.

      Providing agency procedures to carry out the prescriptions in FAR.

    • D.

      Numbering when the text cannot be integrated intelligibly with its FAR counterparts.

    Correct Answer
    C. Providing agency procedures to carry out the prescriptions in FAR.
  • 8. 

    (002) Which DFARS reference identifies supplemental information?

    • A.

      219.502–2.

    • B.

      219.502–2–70.

    • C.

      5319.502–2.

    • D.

      5319.502–70.

    Correct Answer
    B. 219.502–2–70.
  • 9. 

    (002) DFARS is updated

    • A.

      Daily.

    • B.

      Monthly.

    • C.

      Quarterly.

    • D.

      Annually.

    Correct Answer
    C. Quarterly.
  • 10. 

    (002) In determining the action to take in a specific case requiring a contract adjustment, the Comptroller General Decisions are referred to and used as

    • A.

      The supplementing regulation.

    • B.

      The negotiating authority.

    • C.

      Rulings.

    • D.

      Precedents.

    Correct Answer
    D. Precedents.
  • 11. 

    (002) Where are short briefs of new Comptroller General Decisions located?

    • A.

      Federal Register.

    • B.

      Federal Acquisition Circular.

    • C.

      Defense Acquisition Circular.

    • D.

      DFARS Appendix A.

    Correct Answer
    A. Federal Register.
  • 12. 

    (003) A government action may be protested by

    • A.

      The next low bidder.

    • B.

      An interested party.

    • C.

      All responsible bidders.

    • D.

      The next low small business bidder.

    Correct Answer
    B. An interested party.
  • 13. 

    (003) Once an agency is notified by telephone that a protest has been filed, the agency (under most circumstances) has how many days to submit a complete report to GAO?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      45

    • D.

      60

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
  • 14. 

    (003) When an agency receives notice of a protest from GAO within 10 days after contract award or within five days after a debriefing date, the contracting officer immediately

    • A.

      Begins consolidating a complete report.

    • B.

      Provides a 30 day cancellation notice to the contractor.

    • C.

      Suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract.

    • D.

      Suspends performance for 60 days, then processes a contract cancellation.

    Correct Answer
    C. Suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract.
  • 15. 

    (003) How many days does an interested party have to protest after the basis of a protest is known, or should have been known?

    • A.

      No later than 10 days.

    • B.

      No later than 30 days.

    • C.

      Within one year.

    • D.

      Up to six years.

    Correct Answer
    A. No later than 10 days.
  • 16. 

    (003) How many days does GAO have to issue its recommendation on a protest?

    • A.

      30

    • B.

      45

    • C.

      100

    • D.

      120

    Correct Answer
    C. 100
  • 17. 

    (003) What action may the contractor take when a dispute cannot be resolved by mutual agreement of the contracting parties?

    • A.

      Submit a claim under the Default clause.

    • B.

      Submit a claim under the Disputes clause.

    • C.

      File a claim with the United States Court of Federal Appeals.

    • D.

      File a claim with ASBCA.

    Correct Answer
    B. Submit a claim under the Disputes clause.
  • 18. 

    (003) Contractor claims must be submitted to the CO for a decision within

    • A.

      30 days after accrual of the claim

    • B.

      180 days after accrual of the claim

    • C.

      Two years after accrual of the claim

    • D.

      Six years after accrual of the claim

    Correct Answer
    D. Six years after accrual of the claim
  • 19. 

    (003) Who is responsible for reviewing the contracting officer’s final decision on claims exceeding $100,000 prior to sending the decision to the contractor?

    • A.

      Functional area chief

    • B.

      US Court of Federal Claims

    • C.

      Air Force Material Command Law Center

    • D.

      Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals

    Correct Answer
    D. Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals
  • 20. 

    (003) If the contracting officer decides the contractor should be compensated for a claim, when is the amount paid to the contractor?

    • A.

      With final contract payment

    • B.

      With the next scheduled contract payment

    • C.

      As soon as possible after resolution of any appeal

    • D.

      As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal.

    Correct Answer
    D. As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal.
  • 21. 

    (003) How long after the contracting officer’s final decision does the contractor have to appeal to ASBCA?

    • A.

      90 days from the receipt of the contracting officer’s decision

    • B.

      180 days from the receipt of the contracting officer’s decision

    • C.

      Six months from the date of the contracting officer’s decision

    • D.

      12 months from the date of the contracting officer’s decision

    Correct Answer
    A. 90 days from the receipt of the contracting officer’s decision
  • 22. 

    (003) Upon learning of an appeal to ASBCA, the contracting officer must comply with Rule 4 of the ASBCA rules found in

    • A.

      AFFARS Appendix AA

    • B.

      DFARS Appendix A.

    • C.

      AFFARS Appendix CC.

    • D.

      DFARS Appendix C.

    Correct Answer
    B. DFARS Appendix A.
  • 23. 

    (003) Two techniques of ADR are

    • A.

      Mitigation and controversy hearings

    • B.

      Mediation and controversy hearings

    • C.

      Mitigation and arbitration

    • D.

      Mediation and arbitration

    Correct Answer
    D. Mediation and arbitration
  • 24. 

    (004) Which government requirement is violated when the wrong “color of money” is used?

    • A.

      Procurement Act.

    • B.

      Anti-Deficiency Act

    • C.

      Bona-fide Needs Rule

    • D.

      Misappropriations Act

    Correct Answer
    D. Misappropriations Act
  • 25. 

    (004) What act is violated when an organization obligates more funds than are available?

    • A.

      Procurement Act.

    • B.

      Anti-Deficiency Act

    • C.

      Misappropriations Act.

    • D.

      Continuing Appropriations Act.

    Correct Answer
    B. Anti-Deficiency Act
  • 26. 

    (004) The Bona-Fide Need rule requires current year funds be obligated

    • A.

      Prior to expiration of the funds.

    • B.

      As necessary to meet mission requirements

    • C.

      For the purpose the funds are authorized for

    • D.

      In the same year the government will use the supplies or services

    Correct Answer
    D. In the same year the government will use the supplies or services
  • 27. 

    (004) NAFs are generated through

    • A.

      Appropriations Act.

    • B.

      Taxpayer dollars.

    • C.

      Enabling and Procedural Acts.

    • D.

      Morale, Welfare and Recreational facilities.

    Correct Answer
    D. Morale, Welfare and Recreational facilities.
  • 28. 

    (004) O&M funds are categorized as what type of appropriation?

    • A.

      No-year.

    • B.

      Annual.

    • C.

      Continuing.

    • D.

      Multiple year.

    Correct Answer
    B. Annual.
  • 29. 

    (004) Who directs the overall operation of NAF services facilities at an installation?

    • A.

      Mission Support Group Commander.

    • B.

      Force Support Squadron Commander.

    • C.

      Contracting Squadron Commander.

    • D.

      NAF contracting officer.

    Correct Answer
    B. Force Support Squadron Commander.
  • 30. 

    (004) What part of FAR determines whether to include contract financing through progress payments?

    • A.

      Part 30

    • B.

      Part 31

    • C.

      Part 32

    • D.

      Part 33

    Correct Answer
    C. Part 32
  • 31. 

    (004) The aggregate of commercial advance payments cannot exceed what amount of the contract price?

    • A.

      10%

    • B.

      15%

    • C.

      20%

    • D.

      25%

    Correct Answer
    B. 15%
  • 32. 

    (005) Whose job is it to ensure the local purchase program effectively meets customer needs while complying with all applicable statutes, executive orders, regulations, and AFIs?

    • A.

      Contracting squadron commander

    • B.

      Director of business programs

    • C.

      Plans and programs flight chief

    • D.

      Contracting superintendent

    Correct Answer
    A. Contracting squadron commander
  • 33. 

    (005) Which position is responsible for managing the socio-economic and other public policy programs?

    • A.

      Management analysis and support flight chief

    • B.

      Contracting squadron commander

    • C.

      Director of business operations

    • D.

      Contracting superintendent

    Correct Answer
    C. Director of business operations
  • 34. 

    (005) Which is not a function of the contracting superintendent?

    • A.

      Advising the commander on enlisted issues

    • B.

      Managing the self-inspection program

    • C.

      Appointing COs

    • D.

      Military career advisor

    Correct Answer
    C. Appointing COs
  • 35. 

    (006) A CO responsibility includes

    • A.

      Entering funding documents into ABSS

    • B.

      Ensuring contractors receive equitable treatment.

    • C.

      Developing requirements for customers

    • D.

      Approving improper invoices

    Correct Answer
    B. Ensuring contractors receive equitable treatment.
  • 36. 

    (006) Who is responsible for precisely describing a requirement in a purchase request?

    • A.

      Contractor

    • B.

      Customer.

    • C.

      Contracting officer.

    • D.

      Contract specialist

    Correct Answer
    B. Customer.
  • 37. 

    (006) What is a purpose of the customer education program?

    • A.

      Develop open lines of communication.

    • B.

      Increase quantity of contract requirements.

    • C.

      Ensure customers follow the chain of command.

    • D.

      Teach how to get started as a government contractor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Develop open lines of communication.
  • 38. 

    (006) Which of the following topics is used for contractor education activities?

    • A.

      Federal wage rates.

    • B.

      Avoiding wasteful spending

    • C.

      Variations in appropriations

    • D.

      Providing suggested sources

    Correct Answer
    A. Federal wage rates.
  • 39. 

    (006) The Prompt Payment Act requires that final payment of construction contracts be made within

    • A.

      30 days of acceptance by the government

    • B.

      60 days of acceptance by the government

    • C.

      14 days from the receipt of a proper invoice

    • D.

      45 days from the receipt of a proper invoice

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 days of acceptance by the government
  • 40. 

    (006) What contractor education method may be used to assist new small business concerns achieve a clear and mutual understanding of all contract requirements?

    • A.

      Pre-award orientation

    • B.

      Pre-award debriefing

    • C.

      Post-award orientation

    • D.

      Post-award debriefing

    Correct Answer
    C. Post-award orientation
  • 41. 

    (007) What skill level identifies a contracting journeyman?

    • A.

      6C031.

    • B.

      6C051.

    • C.

      6C061.

    • D.

      6C091.

    Correct Answer
    B. 6C051.
  • 42. 

    (007) What tool assists the contracting management team in determining whether or not a unit is in compliance with applicable laws and regulations?

    • A.

      Self-inspection program

    • B.

      Weekly staff meeting

    • C.

      Quality indicators

    • D.

      Peer reviews

    Correct Answer
    A. Self-inspection program
  • 43. 

    (007) What program is designed to prevent sensitive information from getting into the wrong hands?

    • A.

      ID

    • B.

      OPSEC

    • C.

      EM

    • D.

      AT/FP

    Correct Answer
    B. OPSEC
  • 44. 

    (007) What is the definition of a classified contract?

    • A.

      Any contract document established for a classified contract.

    • B.

      Any contract document that includes nonclassified information

    • C.

      Any contract that requires, or may require, access to classified information by the contractor in the performance of the contract

    • D.

      Any contract that requires, or may require, access to classified information by the customer in the performance of the contract

    Correct Answer
    C. Any contract that requires, or may require, access to classified information by the contractor in the performance of the contract
  • 45. 

    (007) Who is responsible for identifying safety hazards?

    • A.

      Unit safety monitor

    • B.

      Unit commander

    • C.

      All personnel

    • D.

      Supervisors.

    Correct Answer
    C. All personnel
  • 46. 

    (007) Who must comply with OSHA requirements?

    • A.

      Contractors only.

    • B.

      Government employees only

    • C.

      Construction personnel only

    • D.

      Contractors and government employees

    Correct Answer
    D. Contractors and government employees
  • 47. 

    (007) What document must contractors and vendors submit when they supply hazardous materials to the government?

    • A.

      Material Safety Data Sheet

    • B.

      Proof of liability for potential hazards

    • C.

      Material Shipping Document Sheet

    • D.

      Proof of EPA notification

    Correct Answer
    A. Material Safety Data Sheet
  • 48. 

    (007) Products or services that have a lesser negative effect on human health or the environment when compared with competing products or services that serve the same purpose are known as

    • A.

      Recycled materials

    • B.

      Recovered materials

    • C.

      Environmentally friendly

    • D.

      Environmentally preferable

    Correct Answer
    D. Environmentally preferable
  • 49. 

    (008) The Buy American Act allows exceptions for articles, materials, and supplies purchased

    • A.

      For use in the United States

    • B.

      Specifically for commissary resale

    • C.

      At a reasonable price from a domestic source

    • D.

      When the contracting officer determines that domestic preference would be in the public’s interest

    Correct Answer
    B. Specifically for commissary resale
  • 50. 

    (008) What action should the CO take if contract award is made on the nonqualifying country offer and the duty is exempted by the Duty-Free clause? 

    • A.

      Award the contract at the offered price plus the amount

    • B.

      Award the contract at the offered price minus the amount of duty

    • C.

      Withhold award of the contract until certificate of exemption is received

    • D.

      Withhold award of the contract until additional funds for duty are verified

    Correct Answer
    B. Award the contract at the offered price minus the amount of duty

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Oct 27, 2017
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 26, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Freitag.dave
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