Ultimate Quiz On Planning & Process Vol 2
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
(201) Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises, determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?
- A.
Deliberate planning
- B.
Crisis action planning
- C.
Mobilization planning
- D.
Force rotational planning
Correct Answer
B. Crisis action planningExplanation
Crisis action planning is the correct answer because it involves developing predetermined responses to potential crises, determining the forces required to achieve objectives, preparing deployment plans, and continually evaluating selected courses of action. This process is specifically designed to address and respond to unexpected or rapidly evolving situations, allowing for quick decision-making and deployment of resources. Deliberate planning, mobilization planning, and force rotational planning may also involve some level of deployment planning, but they do not specifically focus on developing responses to potential crises.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(201) Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?
- A.
Volume 1
- B.
Volume 2
- C.
Volume 3
- D.
Volume 4
Correct Answer
A. Volume 1Explanation
Volume 1 provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(202) Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?
- A.
Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center
- B.
Installation Deployment Officer (IDO)
- C.
Unit Deployment Monitor (UDM)
- D.
Joint Staff
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) CenterExplanation
The Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(202) Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service’s core mission?
- A.
Standard Unit Type Code (UTC)
- B.
Joint force/capability
- C.
In-lieu-of (ILO)
- D.
Ad hoc
Correct Answer
B. Joint force/capabilityExplanation
The correct answer is "Joint force/capability". This type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking involves one service providing a force or capability to fulfill the core mission of another service. This could happen when a service is unable to fulfill its mission due to various reasons such as resource limitations or operational constraints. In such cases, another service steps in to provide the required force or capability, ensuring that the mission is still carried out effectively.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(203) Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?
- A.
Training
- B.
Personnel
- C.
Facility Condition
- D.
Equipment Condition
Correct Answer
C. Facility ConditionExplanation
The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) measures and reports on various areas related to military resources and readiness. It includes training, personnel, and equipment condition. However, facility condition is not one of the areas measured and reported by SORTS.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(203) Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?
- A.
Training
- B.
Personnel
- C.
Home Station Mission
- D.
Equipment Condition
Correct Answer
C. Home Station MissionExplanation
The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) measures readiness categories to assess the preparedness of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force. These categories include training, personnel, and equipment condition. However, the "Home Station Mission" is not a readiness category measured by ART.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(203) The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting is AFI
- A.
10-201
- B.
10-244
- C.
10-401
- D.
10-403
Correct Answer
B. 10-244Explanation
The correct answer is 10-244. This is because AFI 10-244 provides the governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting. AFI 10-201, 10-401, and 10-403 do not specifically pertain to ART reporting.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(204) Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements?
- A.
AFI 10-201
- B.
AFI 10-244
- C.
AFI 10-401
- D.
AFI 10-403
Correct Answer
A. AFI 10-201Explanation
AFI 10-201 provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(204) Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)?
- A.
Pilot Units
- B.
Joint Planners
- C.
Logistics Readiness Squadron
- D.
Each unit is responsible for building its own LOGDET
Correct Answer
A. Pilot UnitsExplanation
Pilot Units develop logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC).Rate this question:
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- 10.
(205) Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?
- A.
Force protection
- B.
Airfield operations
- C.
Force accountability
- D.
Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD)
Correct Answer
D. Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD)Explanation
The open the airbase force module has several initial capabilities that are required for its functioning. These include force protection, airfield operations, and force accountability. However, explosive ordinance disposal (EOD) is not an initial capability of the module. EOD deals with the detection, identification, and disposal of explosive materials, which is a specialized field and not directly related to the initial operations of an airbase force module.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(205) The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are
- A.
Force protection and logistics
- B.
Intelligence and force protection
- C.
Secure communications and intelligence
- D.
Secure communications and force accountability
Correct Answer
C. Secure communications and intelligenceExplanation
The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are secure communications and intelligence. Secure communications are necessary to ensure that information is transmitted securely and can be accessed by authorized personnel only. Intelligence refers to the collection, analysis, and dissemination of information to support decision-making and situational awareness. By having secure communications and intelligence capabilities, a command and control system can effectively coordinate and manage operations.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(205) Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission?
- A.
Robust the airbase
- B.
Operate the airbase
- C.
Establish the airbase
- D.
Generate the mission
Correct Answer
C. Establish the airbaseExplanation
The correct answer is "Establish the airbase." This force module is responsible for setting up and preparing the airbase to be operational. It involves tasks such as constructing infrastructure, deploying equipment, and establishing communication and logistical capabilities. By successfully establishing the airbase, it enables the integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities, allowing the airfield to generate air support and accomplish its assigned mission.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(205) Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?
- A.
2 days, 7 days
- B.
2 days, 14 days
- C.
7 days, 14 days
- D.
14 days, 30 days
Correct Answer
B. 2 days, 14 daysExplanation
The airbase force module is estimated to arrive within 2 days after opening the airbase. The delivery is estimated to be complete within 14 days.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(205) Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?
- A.
Generate the mission
- B.
Establish the airbase
- C.
Operate the airbase
- D.
Robust the airbase
Correct Answer
D. Robust the airbaseExplanation
The force module that contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established is "Robust the airbase." This implies that the support forces required to strengthen and fortify the airbase are not immediately available and would take around 30 days to arrive.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(206) The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at
- A.
Scott AFB, IL
- B.
Travis AFB, CA
- C.
Peterson AFB, CO
- D.
Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ
Correct Answer
D. Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJExplanation
The correct answer is Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ. This is the headquarters location for the Contingency Response Wing.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(206) What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?
- A.
O-4
- B.
O-5
- C.
O-6
- D.
O-7
Correct Answer
C. O-6Explanation
The typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander is O-6. This means that the commander holds the rank of Colonel in the military.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(206) Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to150 users in a café environment?
- A.
Command and Control
- B.
Operate the airbase
- C.
Robust the airbase
- D.
Open the airbase
Correct Answer
A. Command and ControlExplanation
The correct answer is Command and Control. Command and Control force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to 150 users in a café environment.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(206) In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?
- A.
2 km
- B.
4 km
- C.
8 km
- D.
16 km
Correct Answer
D. 16 kmExplanation
The maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D) in the operate the air base module is 16 km.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(207) Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?
- A.
Strategy
- B.
Combat Plans
- C.
Combat Support
- D.
Combat Operations
Correct Answer
C. Combat SupportExplanation
The Air and Space Operations Center is responsible for coordinating and executing air and space operations. The divisions within the center include Strategy, Combat Plans, Combat Support, and Combat Operations. Combat Support is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center as it falls under the responsibility of the Combat Support Command.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(207) Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?
- A.
MQ-9 Reaper
- B.
RQ-11B Raven
- C.
MQ-1B Predator
- D.
RQ-4B Global Hawk
Correct Answer
B. RQ-11B RavenExplanation
The RQ-11B Raven is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS) because it is a lightweight and portable drone that is typically used for short-range reconnaissance and surveillance missions. Unlike the other options listed, such as the MQ-9 Reaper, MQ-1B Predator, and RQ-4B Global Hawk, the Raven is designed for close-range operations and is often used by military and law enforcement agencies for tactical purposes.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(208) Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?
- A.
3D0X3, Cyber Surety
- B.
3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems
- C.
3D1X3, RF Transmission Systems
- D.
3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems
Correct Answer
A. 3D0X3, Cyber Surety -
- 22.
(208) Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?
- A.
38 Engineering Squadron (ES)
- B.
38 Contracting Squadron (CONS)
- C.
38 Operations Support Squadron (OSS)
- D.
85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS)
Correct Answer
D. 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS)Explanation
The correct answer is 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS). This unit is the only one mentioned that provides specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis. The other units listed do not mention these specific capabilities.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(208) All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN) in
- A.
1942
- B.
1954
- C.
1988
- D.
1998
Correct Answer
D. 1998Explanation
In 1998, all armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN). This merger brought together all the broadcasting entities that catered to the armed forces, creating a unified network. This consolidation likely aimed to streamline operations, improve efficiency, and provide a more cohesive and comprehensive broadcasting service to the military personnel.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(209) What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?
- A.
MPTO 00-33A-1001
- B.
MPTO 00-33A-1002
- C.
MPTO 00-33A-2001
- D.
MPTO 00-33A-2002
Correct Answer
A. MPTO 00-33A-1001 -
- 25.
(209) The five phases of Project Management are initiate,
- A.
Funding, execute, close, and control
- B.
Plan, execute, monitor, and control
- C.
Plan, execute, close, and control
- D.
Plan, control, close, and support
Correct Answer
C. Plan, execute, close, and controlExplanation
The correct answer is "plan, execute, close, and control." This sequence of phases represents the typical flow of activities in project management. The first phase, planning, involves defining project objectives, creating a detailed project plan, and identifying necessary resources. The execution phase involves carrying out the plan, coordinating tasks, and managing resources. The closing phase involves wrapping up the project, conducting final reviews, and documenting lessons learned. Finally, the control phase involves monitoring project progress, making adjustments as needed, and ensuring that project objectives are met.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(209) What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?
- A.
Funding
- B.
Technical Solution
- C.
Requirements Management Plan
- D.
Answers, Guidance, and Eductation
Correct Answer
D. Answers, Guidance, and EductationExplanation
In the Initiate Phase, the project manager provides answers, guidance, and education. This means that they are responsible for providing information, advice, and training to the project team and stakeholders. They help to clarify any questions or concerns, provide direction on project activities, and ensure that everyone involved has a clear understanding of their roles and responsibilities. This support and guidance from the project manager is crucial in setting the project up for success from the very beginning.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(209) What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability called?
- A.
Processes
- B.
Priorities
- C.
Requirements
- D.
Technical Solutions
Correct Answer
C. RequirementsExplanation
Requirements are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability. These documents outline the necessary features, functions, and capabilities that the infrastructure must have in order to meet the needs of the organization or project. By identifying and documenting the requirements, organizations can ensure that the cyberspace infrastructure is designed and implemented to fulfill specific objectives and goals.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(210) Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?
- A.
Cost Management Plan
- B.
Allied Support Plan
- C.
Technical Plan
- D.
Material Plan
Correct Answer
A. Cost Management PlanExplanation
The correct answer is Cost Management Plan. The Project Plan is a comprehensive document that outlines the objectives, scope, deliverables, and timelines of a project. It also includes various management plans such as the Cost Management Plan, which outlines how the project's costs will be estimated, budgeted, and controlled. The Allied Support Plan, Technical Plan, and Material Plan are not specifically mentioned as items contained in the Project Plan.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(211) The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as
- A.
The Status
- B.
A Milestone
- C.
A Deliverable
- D.
The Final Result
Correct Answer
C. A DeliverableExplanation
A deliverable refers to the desired outcome, product, or service of a project. It is the tangible or intangible result that is produced at the end of a project phase or the entire project. This can include documents, reports, software, prototypes, or any other tangible or intangible item that is produced as part of the project. The deliverable is what the project team and stakeholders are working towards and is typically defined and agreed upon at the beginning of the project. It represents the final result that is expected to be achieved through the project.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(211) Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project not meeting requirement specifications?
- A.
Status Request
- B.
Defect Repairs
- C.
Preventive Action
- D.
Corrective Action
Correct Answer
B. Defect RepairsExplanation
Defect Repairs is the correct answer because it refers to a type of change request that is used to correct a portion of the project that does not meet the specified requirements. This means that if there are any defects or issues found in the project that deviate from the original requirements, a defect repair change request can be submitted to address and fix these issues.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(212) What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system?
- A.
AFTO Form 745
- B.
AFTO Form 747
- C.
AFTO Form 749
- D.
AF Form 1747
Correct Answer
B. AFTO Form 747Explanation
AFTO Form 747 is the correct answer because it is a document that is used to mark the end of a project and validate the successful installation of a communications system. This form is commonly used in the military to document and certify the completion of maintenance or installation tasks. It serves as a record of the work performed and provides confirmation that the system is functioning correctly.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(212) Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed
- A.
Major
- B.
Minor
- C.
Major and Minor
- D.
Major and Critical
Correct Answer
A. MajorExplanation
Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed "Major." This means that there are certain issues or problems that can arise within a system that are significant enough to hinder its ability to fulfill the desired operational requirements. These exceptions may have a major impact on the system's functionality and may require immediate attention and resolution in order to ensure that the system is able to meet its intended operational requirements.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(213) What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase?
- A.
Follow-Up
- B.
Controlling
- C.
Organization
- D.
Documenting
Correct Answer
A. Follow-UpExplanation
In order to ensure that the overall project progresses accordingly, follow-up is critical. This involves regularly checking and monitoring the project's progress, identifying any issues or delays, and taking necessary actions to address them. By consistently following up, project managers can stay on top of the project's status and make necessary adjustments to keep it on track. This helps in controlling the project and ensuring that it stays aligned with the planned timeline and objectives.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(213) Changes are requested during a project using an
- A.
AF Form 1146
- B.
AF Form 1147
- C.
AFTO Form 46
- D.
AFTO Form 47
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 1146Explanation
The correct answer is AF Form 1146. This form is used to request changes during a project. It is likely that the other forms listed are not specifically designed for this purpose or are not commonly used in this context.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(214) Who implements a technical solution for a base?
- A.
Project Monitor
- B.
Project Manager
- C.
Communication Squadron
- D.
Implementing Organization
Correct Answer
D. Implementing OrganizationExplanation
The Implementing Organization is responsible for implementing a technical solution for a base. This means that they are the ones who actually carry out the necessary actions and steps to put the solution into place. The Project Monitor oversees the project and ensures that it is on track, while the Project Manager is responsible for planning and coordinating the project. The Communication Squadron may be involved in providing communication support, but they are not specifically responsible for implementing the technical solution.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(214) What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties?
- A.
Project Monitor
- B.
Project Manager
- C.
Program Action Officer
- D.
Program Action Monitor
Correct Answer
C. Program Action OfficerExplanation
A Program Action Officer is a title given to someone who is assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties. They are responsible for taking action and implementing the necessary steps to ensure the successful execution of the program. They work closely with the program manager and provide support in various aspects such as planning, coordination, and monitoring of program activities.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(215) The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service life cycle are service strategy,
- A.
Service design, service transition, service plan, and continual service improvement
- B.
Service plan, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement
- C.
Service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement
- D.
Service design, service disposition, service operation, and continual service improvement
Correct Answer
C. Service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvementExplanation
The correct answer is "service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement." This is the correct sequence of stages in the ITIL service life cycle. Service design involves designing new or changed services that meet the needs of the business and customers. Service transition involves transitioning these services into the live environment. Service operation involves managing and delivering the services on a day-to-day basis. Continual service improvement involves continuously improving the services to ensure they meet the changing needs of the business and customers.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(215) In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you determine the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle?
- A.
Service Improvement
- B.
Service Transition
- C.
Service Strategy
- D.
Service Design
Correct Answer
C. Service StrategyExplanation
In the Service Strategy stage of the ITIL, the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle are determined. This stage focuses on understanding the organization's business objectives and how IT services can support them. It involves defining the overall strategy for delivering IT services, identifying opportunities for improvement, and making decisions on resource allocation. By determining the underlying principles in this stage, organizations can align their IT services with business goals and ensure effective service delivery.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(215) In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you create the framework to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment?
- A.
Service Design
- B.
Service Strategy
- C.
Service Transition
- D.
Service Operation
Correct Answer
C. Service TransitionExplanation
Service Transition is the correct answer because this stage in the ITIL framework focuses on transitioning the designed service into the live environment. It involves activities such as testing, training, and deploying the service to ensure its effective and efficient implementation. This stage also includes managing any changes or updates to the service during its transition.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(216) Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
A. 1Explanation
Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by the Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier 1.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(217) Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)?
- A.
AFI 33-115
- B.
AFI 33-150
- C.
TO 00-33D-3001
- D.
TO 00-33D-3004
Correct Answer
B. AFI 33-150Explanation
AFI 33-150 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Instruction that provides guidance for the use of the Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS). This instruction outlines the policies and procedures for planning, managing, and maintaining the Air Force's cyberspace infrastructure. It ensures that CIPS is used effectively and efficiently to support the Air Force's mission and objectives in cyberspace operations.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(217) Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order?
- A.
Work Orders
- B.
Trouble Tickets
- C.
Infrastructure Requirements
- D.
Communications and Information Systems Installation Records (CSIR)
Correct Answer
A. Work OrdersExplanation
The Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area that supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order is Work Orders. Work Orders are used to request and track maintenance tasks and are typically completed within a short timeframe. This functional area allows for quick and efficient improvements to be made to the cyberspace infrastructure.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(217) Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implement using base level support and resources?
- A.
Organic
- B.
Contract
- C.
Inorganic
- D.
Self-Help
Correct Answer
D. Self-HelpExplanation
The local communications squadron implements the funding option of Self-Help using base level support and resources. Self-Help refers to the practice of utilizing internal resources and capabilities to address funding needs and complete projects without relying on external assistance or contractors. This allows the squadron to rely on their own skills, knowledge, and resources to fund and complete projects, reducing the need for external funding or support.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(217) Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program?
- A.
TO 00-33A-1001
- B.
TO 00-33D-3003
- C.
Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)
- D.
Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)
Correct Answer
B. TO 00-33D-3003Explanation
TO 00-33D-3003 is the correct answer because it is a technical order that provides a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program. The other options listed are either technical orders for different purposes or systems unrelated to the question.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(218) As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technical solutions?
- A.
Base Communications Systems Officer
- B.
Affected Work Center
- C.
Base Civil Engineer
- D.
Project Managers
Correct Answer
C. Base Civil EngineerExplanation
The Base Civil Engineer is not required to review and validate technical solutions. This is because their role primarily focuses on overseeing construction and maintenance projects, rather than evaluating or approving technical solutions. The other options, such as the Base Communications Systems Officer, Affected Work Center, and Project Managers, are more likely to be involved in the review and validation process as they have a direct impact on the technical aspects of the solutions.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(218) Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?
- A.
Requires services from outside agencies
- B.
Mobility (deployment) equipment
- C.
Requires additional manpower
- D.
Requires additional funding
Correct Answer
D. Requires additional fundingExplanation
The requirement for additional funding is not considered a special cause for requirements because it is a common and expected aspect of many projects or initiatives. It is often necessary to allocate additional funds to meet the needs and goals of a project, and it does not necessarily make the requirements unique or special. The other options listed, such as requiring services from outside agencies, mobility equipment, and additional manpower, can be considered special causes as they may introduce unique challenges or considerations to the project.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(219) In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements?
- A.
Concept Plan
- B.
Functional Plan
- C.
Supporting Plan
- D.
Operational Plan
Correct Answer
A. Concept PlanExplanation
A concept plan is a type of plan where writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing an assigned mission in the event of a future situation. However, they only provide a summary of the mobility and logistic requirements. In other words, a concept plan focuses on the overall strategy and approach to achieving the mission, without going into detailed logistics and mobility considerations.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(219) When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans?
- A.
Concept Plan
- B.
Functional Plan
- C.
Supporting Plan
- D.
Operational Plan
Correct Answer
C. Supporting PlanExplanation
When tasked by the supported combatant commander, a supporting plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans. A supporting plan is a detailed plan that outlines specific actions, resources, and tasks required to support the overall mission or objective. It provides guidance and instructions to subordinate units or organizations on how to effectively support the larger operational plan. This plan focuses on the logistics, sustainment, and coordination aspects necessary to ensure the success of the mission.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(219) If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the
- A.
Programming Plan (PPLAN)
- B.
Program Action Directive (PAD)
- C.
Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph
- D.
Time Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD)
Correct Answer
C. Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraphExplanation
If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(219) What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime?
- A.
Special Measures
- B.
Administration
- C.
Assumptions
- D.
Logistics
Correct Answer
D. LogisticsExplanation
The area of the Annex K that is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime is Logistics.Rate this question:
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