Ophthalmology

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Ophthalmology - Quiz




Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    1. The cilioretinal arteries:

    • A.

      A) originate from the central retinal artery;

    • B.

      B) originate from the posterior ciliary arteries;

    • C.

      C) are present in 40 percent of the population;

    • D.

      D) ensure coverage of the area adjacent to the optic nerve;

    • E.

      E) are often involved in a phenomena of a vascular occlusive type 

    • F.

      E) are often involved in a phenomena of a vascular occlusive type 

    Correct Answer
    B. B) originate from the posterior ciliary arteries;
  • 2. 

    2. Retinal angiography with indocyanine green:

    • A.

      A) provides useful information on the retinal circulation;

    • B.

      B) is effected by means of a fluorescein dye;

    • C.

      C) provides useful information on the choroidal circulation;

    • D.

      D) is an examination in disuse;

    • E.

      E) takes place without injection of dye

    Correct Answer
    C. C) provides useful information on the choroidal circulation;
  • 3. 

    3. The red reflex test:

    • A.

      A) can be carried out by a specialist;

    • B.

      B) is a common and simple test, available to the general practitioner to assess the transparency of the dioptric media;

    • C.

      C) is usually performed at the slit lamp;

    • D.

      D) is used to assess the presence of refractive defects;

    • E.

      E) it must be performed in a very bright

    Correct Answer
    B. B) is a common and simple test, available to the general practitioner to assess the transparency of the dioptric media;
  • 4. 

    4. Sjogren's syndrome:

    • A.

      A) mainly affects women with age> 40 years;

    • B.

      B) it affects mostly men with age> 20 years;

    • C.

      C) he has inherited autosomal dominant;

    • D.

      D) he has inherited autosomal recessive;

    • E.

      E) is characterized by a special visual field defect;

    Correct Answer
    A. A) mainly affects women with age> 40 years;
  • 5. 

    5. The Bell reflex:

    • A.

      A) is a physiological phenomenon;

    • B.

      B) the closing of the eyelids, involves the elevation and external rotation of the eyeball;

    • C.

      C) makes it possible to ensure greater protection of the cornea;

    • D.

      D) it must always be evaluated in case of lagophthalmos (inability to close the eyelids);

    • E.

      E) All the above answers are correct

    Correct Answer
    E. E) All the above answers are correct
  • 6. 

    6. Keratoconus:

    • A.

      A) is a non-deep ulcerative keratitis;

    • B.

      B) is a hereditary type of alteration of the palpebral district;

    • C.

      C) typically occurs in patients with age> 60 years;

    • D.

      D) never determines impairment in visual acuity;

    • E.

      E) is characterized by central corneal ectasia;

    Correct Answer
    E. E) is characterized by central corneal ectasia;
  • 7. 

    7. Photorefractive keratectomy (PRK):

    • A.

      A) is carried out for the removal of cataracts

    • B.

      B) is a surgical technique that uses an excimer laser for the correction of refractive defects

    • C.

      C) is a surgical technique that uses the argon laser for the correction of refractive defects;

    • D.

      D) is a specialized technique used for the treatment of peripheral retinal degenerations;

    • E.

      E) None of the answers and correct

    Correct Answer
    B. B) is a surgical technique that uses an excimer laser for the correction of refractive defects
  • 8. 

    8. Papillary stroke:

    • A.

      A) is when the optic nerve head suffers in the pathogenesis of ischemic occlusion of the ciliary vessels;

    • B.

      B) is presented as a pure papilledema;

    • C.

      C) determines a functional impairment early and is imposing;

    • D.

      D) results in the appearance of an atrophy of the optic nerve;

    • E.

      E) All answers are correct

    Correct Answer
    E. E) All answers are correct
  • 9. 

    9. The surgery for retinal detachment is preferable to perform:

    • A.

      A) after 6 months of diagnosis;

    • B.

      B) after 3 months of diagnosis;

    • C.

      C) as early as possible after diagnosis;

    • D.

      D) only when it is complicated by widespread inflammation of the eye;

    • E.

      E) only when it is associated with cataracts;

    Correct Answer
    C. C) as early as possible after diagnosis;
  • 10. 

    10. The use of ACE inhibitors:

    • A.

      A) is shown to delay the progression of diabetic retinopathy in normotensive ​​​​​​​diabetics;

    • B.

      B) is shown and utilized in patients with retinitis pigmentosa;

    • C.

      C) is proven to help in slowing the development of cataracts;

    • D.

      D) is proven to help in preventing age related macular degeneration;

    • E.

      E) none of these answers are correct;

    Correct Answer
    A. A) is shown to delay the progression of diabetic retinopathy in normotensive ​​​​​​​diabetics;
  • 11. 

    11. Acquired toxoplasmosis of the eye more frequently causes:

    • A.

      a) keratoconjunctivitis;

    • B.

      B) episcleritis;

    • C.

      C) retinochoroiditis;

    • D.

      D) chronic dacryoadenitis;

    • E.

      E) oculomotor palsy;

    Correct Answer
    C. C) retinochoroiditis;
  • 12. 

    12. Which pathology is evident more frequently in the course of an HIV infection:

    • A.

      A) cytomegalovirus retinitis;

    • B.

      B) cataract;

    • C.

      C) keratoconus;

    • D.

      D) chalazion;

    • E.

      E) molluscum eyelid;

    Correct Answer
    A. A) cytomegalovirus retinitis;
  • 13. 

    13. Which of the following drugs stimulates the iris dilator muscle?

    • A.

      A) pilocarpine;

    • B.

      B) timolol;

    • C.

      C) priscolina;

    • D.

      D) Tobramycin

    • E.

      E) epinephrine

    Correct Answer
    E. E) epinephrine
  • 14. 

    14. In Marfan syndromes, the most characteristic ocular symptom is:

    • A.

      A) megalocornea

    • B.

      B) ectopia lentis

    • C.

      C) astigmatism;

    • D.

      D) sclerocornea;

    • E.

      E) microphthalmos;

    Correct Answer
    B. B) ectopia lentis
  • 15. 

    15. Red eye for conjunctival reactions and diffuse pericheratica with violent pains, deficits in eyesight, dilated pupil (mydriasis) and corneal clouding argues for:

    • A.

      A) acute iritis;

    • B.

      B) corneal ulcer;

    • C.

      C) acute glaucoma;

    • D.

      D) acute conjunctivitis;

    • E.

      E) papillitis

    Correct Answer
    C. C) acute glaucoma;
  • 16. 

    16. Iridocyclitis in chronic juvenile rheumatoid arteritis can lead to:

    • A.

      A) bandelletta keratopathy;

    • B.

      B) complicated cataracts;

    • C.

      C) secondary glaucoma;

    • D.

      D) decrease of vision;

    • E.

      E) all of the above answers are correct.

    Correct Answer
    E. E) all of the above answers are correct.
  • 17. 

    17. The red eye with iniezione pericheratica (congestion of scleral vessels) with more or less intense pain, normal cornea and miotic (constricted) pupil argues for:

    • A.

      A) corneal abrasion;

    • B.

      B) dacryocystitis;

    • C.

      C) acute conjunctivitis;

    • D.

      D) acute iritis;

    • E.

      E) cataract intumescent

    Correct Answer
    D. D) acute iritis;
  • 18. 

    18. Which of the following statements about keratoconus is false?

    • A.

      A) 1-use contact lenses are useful;

    • B.

      B) appears in advanced age;

    • C.

      C) has a progressive evolution;

    • D.

      D) results in high myopic astigmatism;

    • E.

      E) may require corneal transplantation.

    Correct Answer
    B. B) appears in advanced age;
  • 19. 

    19. Red eye in widespread conjunctival hyperemia that is a little sore, with normal visual acuity, normal cornea and pupil argues for:

    • A.

      A) corneal abrasion;

    • B.

      B) acute iritis;

    • C.

      C) acute glaucoma:

    • D.

      D) acute conjunctivitis;

    • E.

      E) bleeding of the conjunctiva

    Correct Answer
    D. D) acute conjunctivitis;
  • 20. 

    20. One symptom that provides evidence for the paralysis of the sixth cranial nerve (CN VI) is:

    • A.

      A) ptosis:

    • B.

      B) dilated pupils:

    • C.

      C) lacrimation disorder:

    • D.

      D) deviated eye inside (LR muscle dysfunction);

    • E.

      E) lagophthalmos;

    Correct Answer
    D. D) deviated eye inside (LR muscle dysfunction);
  • 21. 

    21. The early stages of proliferative diabetic retinopathy treatment can be performed with:

    • A.

      A) angiography:

    • B.

      B) laser photocoagulation;

    • C.

      C) trabeculectomy;

    • D.

      D) phacoemulsification;

    • E.

      E) scleral buckling;

    Correct Answer
    B. B) laser photocoagulation;
  • 22. 

    22. The acute symptoms of iridocyclitis (anterior uveitis or iritis) present all of the following except:

    • A.

      A) pupillary miosis;

    • B.

      B) enophthalmos;

    • C.

      C) pain;

    • D.

      D) injection pericheratica;

    • E.

      E) visual loss;

    Correct Answer
    B. B) enophthalmos;
  • 23. 

    23. An ocular symptom that can lead to suspicion of a peripheral paralysis of cranial nerve VII (CN VII) is:

    • A.

      A) ptosis

    • B.

      B) enophthalmos

    • C.

      C) diplopia

    • D.

      D) lagophthalmos

    • E.

      E) entropion

    Correct Answer
    D. D) lagophthalmos
  • 24. 

    24. One ocular symptom that can lead to the suspicion of a paralysis of the third cranial nerve (CN III) is:

    • A.

      A) amblyopia;

    • B.

      B) lagophthalmos;

    • C.

      C) exophthalmos;

    • D.

      D) ptosis;

    • E.

      E) homonymous quadrantanopia;

    Correct Answer
    D. D) ptosis;
  • 25. 

    25. Concomitant strabismus frequently accompanies a young child with:

    • A.

      A) diplopia;

    • B.

      B) amblyopia;

    • C.

      C) epicanthus;

    • D.

      D) anisocoria;

    • E.

      E) no correct answer;

    Correct Answer
    B. B) amblyopia;
  • 26. 

    26. Dacryocystitis is acute infection against the:

    • A.

      A) lacrimal gland;

    • B.

      B) accessory lacrimal glands;

    • C.

      C) lacrimal puncta;

    • D.

      D) meibomian gland;

    • E.

      E) lacrimal sac;

    Correct Answer
    E. E) lacrimal sac;
  • 27. 

    27. Which of the following symptoms appears in rhegmatogenous retinal detachment:

    • A.

      A) visual reduction;

    • B.

      B) ocular pain;

    • C.

      C) floaters;

    • D.

      D) photopsia;

    • E.

      E) visual field alterations;

    Correct Answer
    B. B) ocular pain;
  • 28. 

    28. Exophthalmos may be due to the following conditions, except:

    • A.

      A) fistula carotid-cavernous

    • B.

      B) end-stage glaucoma;

    • C.

      C) acute sinusitis;

    • D.

      D) hyperthyroidism;

    • E.

      E) glioma of the optic nerve;

    • F.

      E) glioma of the optic nerve;

    Correct Answer
    B. B) end-stage glaucoma;
  • 29. 

    29. Neovascular glaucoma is secondary to:

    • A.

      A) keratoconus;

    • B.

      B) sero-hemorrhagic (wet) macular degeneration;

    • C.

      C) bandelletta keratopathy;

    • D.

      D) ischemic retinal vascular disease;

    • E.

      E) atrophic (dry) macular degeneration;

    Correct Answer
    D. D) ischemic retinal vascular disease;
  • 30. 

    30. Which of the following diseases cannot be due to neovascular glaucoma:

    • A.

      A) retinal vein occlusion;

    • B.

      B) uveitis;

    • C.

      C) epidemic keratoconjunctivitis;

    • D.

      D) retinal detachment;

    • E.

      E) diabetic retinopathy

    Correct Answer
    C. C) epidemic keratoconjunctivitis;
  • 31. 

    31. Which of the following causes of eye redness requires a more urgent treatment:

    • A.

      A) acute dacryocystitis;

    • B.

      B) acute glaucoma;

    • C.

      C) actinic keratoconjunctivitis;

    • D.

      D) ulcerative blepharitis;

    • E.

      E) keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eye syndrome).

    Correct Answer
    B. B) acute glaucoma;
  • 32. 

    32. Which of the following factors is more important in determining the appearance of retinal lesions in diabetes mellitus?

    • A.

      A) any other associated diseases;

    • B.

      B) age of onset of diabetes;

    • C.

      C) duration of diabetes;

    • D.

      D) quality of metabolic control;

    • E.

      E) all of the above;

    Correct Answer
    E. E) all of the above;
  • 33. 

    33. Which of the following are characteristics of an epidemic keratoconjunctivitis?

    • A.

      A) highly contagious, viral etiology and retrobulbar pain;

    • B.

      B) retrobulbar pain and decreased visual acuity;

    • C.

      c) high contagiousness and retrobulbar pain;

    • D.

      D) high contagiousness and overtone;

    • E.

      E) viral etiology, lymphadenopathy (preauricular), highly contagious

    Correct Answer
    E. E) viral etiology, lymphadenopathy (preauricular), highly contagious
  • 34. 

    34. What are the possible side effects of local steroid therapy (eye drops)?

    • A.

      A) cataracts, redness and pain;

    • B.

      B) ocular hypertension, cataracts and blepharospasm;

    • C.

      C) ocular hypertension, cataracts and dacryocystitis;

    • D.

      D) ocular hypertension and cataracts;

    • E.

      E) ocular hypertension, cataracts and blepharitis;

    Correct Answer
    D. D) ocular hypertension and cataracts;
  • 35. 

    35. Which of the following eye drops should be prescribed in the course of iridocyclitis (anterior uveitis)?

    • A.

      A) vasoconstrictors, miotics and cortisone

    • B.

      B) miotics, steroids and antibiotics

    • C.

      C) mydriatics and cortisone

    • D.

      D) mydriatic, artificial tears and hypotonics;

    • E.

      e) decongestants and miotics

    Correct Answer
    C. C) mydriatics and cortisone
  • 36. 

    36 The metamorphopsia are:

    • A.

      A) the photophobia that accompanies the presence of a keratitis;

    • B.

      b) color vision different from reality;

    • C.

      C) characterized by an anomalous vision of moving objects;

    • D.

      D) the deformed vision of the images

    • E.

      E) the vision of carpi furniture.

    Correct Answer
    D. D) the deformed vision of the images
  • 37. 

    37 · The bitemporal hemianopia can be secondary to which of the following injuries:

    • A.

      A) lesion of the lower beam of optical radiation;

    • B.

      B) injury superiare band of optical radiation;

    • C.

      C) injury bandelletta optics;

    • D.

      D) lesion side of optic chiasm;

    • E.

      E) median lesion of the optic chiasm.

    Correct Answer
    E. E) median lesion of the optic chiasm.
  • 38. 

    38- Typical symptoms of orbital cellulitis include:

    • A.

      A) headache, proptosis, fever;

    • B.

      B) fever, headache, decreased ocular motility;

    • C.

      C) entropion enaftalrno, proptosis;

    • D.

      D) fever, headache, enoftalrna unilateral;

    • E.

      e) fever, headache, ectropion.

    Correct Answer
    B. B) fever, headache, decreased ocular motility;
  • 39. 

    39 .The Foster-Kennedy syndrome it is characterized by:

    • A.

      A) pseudopapillite ipsilateral to the tumor vascular front and contralateral papilla ·

    • B.

      B) bilateral optic atrophy;

    • C.

      C) optic atrophy ipsilateral to the tumor front and papilledema contralateral;

    • D.

      D) bilateral ischemic edema of the optic disc;

    • E.

      E) papilledema ipsilateral to the tumor front and contralateral optic atrophy

    Correct Answer
    C. C) optic atrophy ipsilateral to the tumor front and papilledema contralateral;
  • 40. 

    40 Which of the following are characteristics of a Temporal arteritis:

    • A.

      A) orbital cellulitis, proptosis, senile age;

    • B.

      B) elevated ESR, mild functional impairment, unilateral young age;

    • C.

      C) panophthalmitis, orbital cellulitis;

    • D.

      D) elevated ESR, severe functional impairment, bilateralism, senile age;

    • E.

      E) elevated ESR, mild functional impairment, manolateral, age senile

    Correct Answer
    D. D) elevated ESR, severe functional impairment, bilateralism, senile age;
  • 41. 

    41. von Hippel-Lindau: (I think it is supposed to be retinal capillary hemangioma, but none of the answers exactly translated to that)

    • A.

      A) I tapestry in retinal degeneration associated with cataracts:

    • B.

      B) a serious form of an angle associated with cataracts

    • C.

      C) an angiomatosis location with retinal and cerebellar;

    • D.

      D) a cerebellar malformation associated with papilla stasis.

    • E.

      E) a widespread neuroretinopatia hereditary family.

    Correct Answer
    C. C) an angiomatosis location with retinal and cerebellar;
  • 42. 

    42. Leukocoria is:

    • A.

      A) the most typical post-traumatic papillary alteration

    • B.

      B) the total color blindness;

    • C.

      C) a whitish pupil reflex

    • D.

      E) the typical alteration secondary to the Mirzuo phenomenon

    • E.

      D) the macular whitening typical of retinopathy fro toxic agents

    Correct Answer
    C. C) a whitish pupil reflex
  • 43. 

    43 What is Stargardt's disease

    • A.

      A) macular degeneration secondary to warts Bruch's membrane

    • B.

      B) a juvenile macular degeneration

    • C.

      C) optic neuropathy alcohol-smoking status

    • D.

      D) a peripheral retinal degeneration

    • E.

      E) an age related macular degeneration senile

    • F.

      E) an age related macular degeneration senile

    Correct Answer
    B. B) a juvenile macular degeneration
  • 44. 

    44 · Retinal angiography in retinal fluorescein angiography is :

    • A.

      A) a physiological response of the retina to light ·

    • B.

      B) a retinal lesion;

    • C.

      C) a diagnostic test for the typical pathologies of the retina and choroid

    • D.

      D) a newly formed choroidal ·

    • E.

      E) a rare retinal disease.

    Correct Answer
    C. C) a diagnostic test for the typical pathologies of the retina and choroid
  • 45. 

    45. Which of the following diseases is an ophthalmologic emergency and not a simple matter of medical urgency:

    • A.

      A) occlusion of the central retinal artery

    • B.

      B) oclussion of the the central retinal vein

    • C.

      C) neovascular glaucoma

    • D.

      D) retinal detachment

    • E.

      E) detachment of the choroid

    Correct Answer
    A. A) occlusion of the central retinal artery
  • 46. 

    46 · The fluorescein angiography is especially useful in the course of which of the following groups of diseases:

    • A.

      A) cataract and other diseases characterized by opacity of the media;

    • B.

      B) the eyelid malignancies;

    • C.

      C) keratoconjunctivitis;

    • D.

      D) chronic conjunctivitis;

    • E.

      E) chorioretinal vascular diseases

    Correct Answer
    E. E) chorioretinal vascular diseases
  • 47. 

    47 The biomicroscopy (slit-lamp examination) is used:

    • A.

      A) to evaluate the power accommodative;

    • B.

      B) to evaluate the visual field;

    • C.

      C) to study histology of the ocular tumors;

    • D.

      D) to evaluate the adaptation to light;

    • E.

      E) to examine the anterior segment

    Correct Answer
    E. E) to examine the anterior segment
  • 48. 

    48 In which ametropia fire of light rays coming from infinity is formed behind the retina:

    • A.

      A) compound myopic astigmatism

    • B.

      B) hypermetropia

    • C.

      C) degenerative myopia

    • D.

      D) simple myopic astigmatism

    • E.

      E) simple myopia

    Correct Answer
    B. B) hypermetropia
  • 49. 

    49 The ottotipica scale serves:

    • A.

      A) to measure the length of the bulb

    • B.

      B) to determine visual acuity

    • C.

      C) to measure the diameter of the eye

    • D.

      D) to assess the field of vision

    • E.

      E) to evaluate the adaptation to light

    Correct Answer
    B. B) to determine visual acuity
  • 50. 

    50 What is the Ishihara test used for:

    • A.

      A) to evaluate the sensitivity of color;

    • B.

      B) to define more precisely 1cm of vision;

    • C.

      C) to evaluate one 'visual acuity in the illiterate;

    • D.

      D) to define the field of view in the visually impaired;

    • E.

      e) to evaluate the sensitivity to contrast

    Correct Answer
    A. A) to evaluate the sensitivity of color;

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Nov 04, 2020
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 28, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Marisol Doglioli

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