Usaf - 3DX7X CDC UREs Vol 2
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- 1.(201) Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises, determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?
- A.
Deliberate planning.
- B.
Crisis action planning.
- C.
Mobilization planning.
- D.
Force rotational planning.
- 2.(201) Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?
- A.
Volume 1.
- B.
Volume 2.
- C.
Volume 3.
- D.
Volume 4.
- 3.(202) Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?
- A.
Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center.
- B.
Installation Deployment Officer (IDO).
- C.
Unit Deployment Monitor (UDM).
- D.
Joint Staff.
- 4.(202) Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service’s core mission?
- A.
Standard unit type code (UTC).
- B.
Joint force/capability.
- C.
In-lieu-of (ILO).
- D.
Ad hoc.
- 5.(203) Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?
- A.
Training.
- B.
Personnel.
- C.
Facility condition.
- D.
Equipment condition.
- 6.(203) Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?
- A.
Training.
- B.
Personnel.
- C.
Home station mission.
- D.
Equipment condition.
- 7.(203) The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting is AFI
- A.
10–201.
- B.
10–244.
- C.
10–401.
- D.
10–403.
- 8.(204) Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements?
- A.
AFI 10–201.
- B.
AFI 10–244.
- C.
AFI 10–401.
- D.
AFI 10–403.
- 9.(204) Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)?
- A.
Pilot Units.
- B.
Joint Planners.
- C.
Logistics Readiness Squadron.
- D.
Each unit is responsible for building its own LOGDET.
- 10.(205) Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?
- A.
Force protection.
- B.
Airfield operations.
- C.
Force accountability.
- D.
Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD).
- 11.(205) The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are
- A.
Force protection and logistics.
- B.
Intelligence and force protection.
- C.
Secure communications and intelligence.
- D.
Secure communications and force accountability.
- 12.(205) Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission?
- A.
Robust the airbase.
- B.
Operate the airbase.
- C.
Establish the airbase.
- D.
Generate the mission.
- 13.(205) Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?
- A.
2 days, 7 days.
- B.
2 days, 14 days.
- C.
7 days, 14 days.
- D.
14 days, 30 days.
- 14.(205) Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?
- A.
Generate the mission.
- B.
Establish the airbase.
- C.
Operate the airbase.
- D.
Robust the airbase.
- 15.(206) The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at
- A.
Scott AFB, IL.
- B.
Travis AFB, CA.
- C.
Peterson AFB, CO.
- D.
Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.
- 16.(206) What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?
- A.
O–4.
- B.
O–5.
- C.
O–6.
- D.
O–7.
- 17.(206) Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to 150 users in a café environment?
- A.
Command and control.
- B.
Operate the airbase.
- C.
Robust the airbase.
- D.
Open the airbase.
- 18.(206) In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?
- A.
2 kilometers (km).
- B.
4 km.
- C.
8 km.
- D.
16 km.
- 19.(207) Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?
- A.
Strategy.
- B.
Combat plans.
- C.
Combat support.
- D.
Combat operations.
- 20.(207) Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?
- A.
MQ–9 Reaper.
- B.
RQ–11B Raven.
- C.
MQ–1B Predator.
- D.
RQ–4B Global Hawk.
- 21.(208) Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?
- A.
3D0X3, Cyber Surety.
- B.
3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems.
- C.
3D1X3, RF Transmission Systems.
- D.
3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems.
- 22.(208) Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?
- A.
38 Engineering Squadron (ES).
- B.
38 Contracting Squadron (CONS).
- C.
38 Operations Support Squadron (OSS).
- D.
85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS).
- 23.(208) All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN) in
- A.
1942.
- B.
1954.
- C.
1988.
- D.
1998.
- 24.(209) What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?
- A.
MPTO 00–33A–1001.
- B.
MPTO 00–33A–1002.
- C.
MPTO 00–33A–2001.
- D.
MPTO 00–33A–2002.
- 25.(209) The five phases of Project Management are initiate,
- A.
Funding, execute, close, and control.
- B.
Plan, execute, monitor, and control.
- C.
Plan, execute, close, and control.
- D.
Plan, control, close, and support.
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