Microbiology Midterm 2

50 Questions | Total Attempts: 29

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Microbiology Midterm 2

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    TNK
    • A. 

      Tumor necrosis factor

    • B. 

      Cytokine

    • C. 

      Has only deleterious (injurious) effects in the host

    • D. 

      A and b

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 2. 
    Monokines are
    • A. 

      Always interleukins

    • B. 

      Always produced by monocytes/macrophages

    • C. 

      Cytokines

    • D. 

      A and c

    • E. 

      B and c

  • 3. 
    IL-1 is
    • A. 

      Exogenous pyrogen

    • B. 

      Endogenous pyrogen

    • C. 

      B cell mitogen

    • D. 

      A and c

    • E. 

      B and c

  • 4. 
    IL-2 
    • A. 

      Macrophage growth factor

    • B. 

      T cell mitogen

    • C. 

      Endogenous pyrogen

    • D. 

      A and b

    • E. 

      B and c

  • 5. 
    TH1
    • A. 

      Helps activate TH2

    • B. 

      Acts systemically

    • C. 

      Can make IFN gamma

    • D. 

      A and c

    • E. 

      B and c

  • 6. 
    Example(s) of Ag presenting cell(s)
    • A. 

      Macrophage

    • B. 

      Dendritic cell

    • C. 

      B cell

    • D. 

      A and b

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 7. 
    TH2
    • A. 

      Acts systemically

    • B. 

      Helps B cells

    • C. 

      Helps activate TC

    • D. 

      A and b

    • E. 

      A and c

  • 8. 
    Super antigen
    • A. 

      Binds B cells non-specifically

    • B. 

      Binds T cells non-specifically

    • C. 

      Results in cytokine storm

    • D. 

      A and c

    • E. 

      B and c

  • 9. 
    TCRs
    • A. 

      Have both specificity and diversity

    • B. 

      Same for every TH

    • C. 

      Same for every TC

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      All but one of the above

  • 10. 
    T independent Ag
    • A. 

      Weaker; more short lived

    • B. 

      Stronger; more long lived

    • C. 

      Toxoid is an example

    • D. 

      A and c

    • E. 

      B and c

  • 11. 
    Cytotoxic T cells
    • A. 

      TCR binds to MHC II

    • B. 

      TCR binds to MHC I

    • C. 

      Have no specificity

    • D. 

      A and c

    • E. 

      B and c

  • 12. 
    T dependent Ag
    • A. 

      Children can respond

    • B. 

      Children are not able to respond

    • C. 

      Pentacel is example

    • D. 

      A and c

    • E. 

      B and c

  • 13. 
    Epitope
    • A. 

      Smallest antigenic unit

    • B. 

      Also known as antigenic determinant (site)

    • C. 

      Complex Ag

    • D. 

      A and b

    • E. 

      B and c

  • 14. 
    CD4
    • A. 

      Helps assure TCR binding to MHC I

    • B. 

      Found on TC

    • C. 

      Found on TH

    • D. 

      A and c

    • E. 

      B and c

  • 15. 
    Plasma cells
    • A. 

      Derived from B cells

    • B. 

      Derived from T cells

    • C. 

      Long lived

    • D. 

      A and c

    • E. 

      B and c

  • 16. 
    Establishment of lymphocyte diversity
    • A. 

      Happens during development from stem cells

    • B. 

      Happens after initial Ag exposure

    • C. 

      Arises after mutational and rearrangement events

    • D. 

      A and c

    • E. 

      B and c

  • 17. 
    Antiserum given to Nome AK diptheria patients
    • A. 

      Natural passive immunity

    • B. 

      Natural active immunity

    • C. 

      Artificial passive immunity

    • D. 

      Artificial active immunity

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 18. 
    Natural passive immunity
    • A. 

      Preformed Ab from mother to fetus/neonate

    • B. 

      Memory cells produced

    • C. 

      Long lasting and persistent

    • D. 

      A and b

    • E. 

      A and c

  • 19. 
    Natural active immunity
    • A. 

      You form Ab after having the disease

    • B. 

      You form Ab after being vaccinated

    • C. 

      Ab is formed in another host

    • D. 

      IgG is neonates' blood indicates this

    • E. 

      Ig crosses the placenta

  • 20. 
    Terms describing Ig parts for antigenic specificity
    • A. 

      Constant regions

    • B. 

      Fabs

    • C. 

      Variable/hypervariable regions

    • D. 

      A and b

    • E. 

      B and c

  • 21. 
    IgA
    • A. 

      Pentamer

    • B. 

      First to react

    • C. 

      Major Ig in secretions

    • D. 

      A and b

    • E. 

      A and c

  • 22. 
    Primary response
    • A. 

      Produces lots of IgG early

    • B. 

      Happens after second exposure

    • C. 

      Produces lots of IgM early

    • D. 

      A and b

    • E. 

      B and c

  • 23. 
    Memory cells
    • A. 

      Characteristic of B cells

    • B. 

      Characteristic of T cells

    • C. 

      Long lived

    • D. 

      A and c

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 24. 
    Main Ig during secondary (anamnestic) response
    • A. 

      IgM

    • B. 

      IgG

    • C. 

      IgA

    • D. 

      A and b

    • E. 

      B and c

  • 25. 
    Monoclonal Ab
    • A. 

      Can be made form a myeloma cell and a mouse spleen cell

    • B. 

      One Ab

    • C. 

      Can be polyclonal

    • D. 

      A and b

    • E. 

      A and c

  • 26. 
    Types of Ag-Ab interactions
    • A. 

      H bonds

    • B. 

      Covalent bonds

    • C. 

      Van der Waals forces

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      All but one of the above

  • 27. 
    Antibody affinity
    • A. 

      Strength of the bonds between one Fab and one epitope

    • B. 

      Strength of bonds between multiple Fab and multiple copies of the same epitopes

    • C. 

      Is same as avidity

    • D. 

      A and c

    • E. 

      B and c

  • 28. 
    Can be found on surface of B cells
    • A. 

      IgM and IgD

    • B. 

      MHC II

    • C. 

      MHC I

    • D. 

      A and b

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 29. 
    An effective strategy for vaccine development
    • A. 

      Form of response

    • B. 

      Site for response

    • C. 

      Appropriate target

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      All but one of the above

  • 30. 
    Examples of subcellular/acellular vaccines
    • A. 

      Diphtheria toxoid

    • B. 

      Current pertussis vaccine

    • C. 

      Polio vaccine

    • D. 

      All but one of the above

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 31. 
    Caveats for living attenuated vaccines
    • A. 

      Can revery to wild type (and cause disease)

    • B. 

      Can be a problem for immunocompromised

    • C. 

      Often short lasting; need frequent boosts

    • D. 

      A and b

    • E. 

      A and c

  • 32. 
    Disease caused by Group A Streptococcus
    • A. 

      Impetigo

    • B. 

      Strep throat

    • C. 

      Pyoderma

    • D. 

      All but one of the above

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 33. 
    Group A Streptococcus non suppurative sequela(e)
    • A. 

      Empyema

    • B. 

      Rheumatic fever

    • C. 

      Impetigo

    • D. 

      All but one of the above

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 34. 
    Adhesion(s) of Group A Streptococcus
    • A. 

      M protein

    • B. 

      Lipoteichoic acid

    • C. 

      Hyaluronic acid capsule

    • D. 

      A and b

    • E. 

      A and c

  • 35. 
    Streptococcus pneumoniae prevention
    • A. 

      Vaccine for children is T independent

    • B. 

      Vaccine for children is T dependent

    • C. 

      Adult vaccine is same as that for children

    • D. 

      A and c

    • E. 

      B and c

  • 36. 
    Streptococcus pneumoniae
    • A. 

      Frank pathogen

    • B. 

      Opportunistic pathogen

    • C. 

      Unimmunized young children frequently at risk

    • D. 

      A and c

    • E. 

      B and c

  • 37. 
    Virulence factor(s) of Bordetella pertussis
    • A. 

      FHA

    • B. 

      Teichoic acid

    • C. 

      Tracheal cytotoxin

    • D. 

      A and b

    • E. 

      A and c

  • 38. 
    Whooping cough
    • A. 

      Is a vaccine preventable disease

    • B. 

      Has recently increased in incidence in Central TX and Southern CA

    • C. 

      Mainly a problem for very young children

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      All but one of the above

  • 39. 
    Gonorrhea
    • A. 

      Most commonly reported bacterial STD

    • B. 

      Many females are asymptomatic

    • C. 

      Many males have symptoms

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      All but one of the above

  • 40. 
    Pelvic inflammatory disease
    • A. 

      Can cause male infertility

    • B. 

      Can cause ectopic pregnancy

    • C. 

      Can cause salpingitis

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      All but one of the above

  • 41. 
    DGI
    • A. 

      Can affect both genders equally

    • B. 

      Affects one gender more than the other

    • C. 

      Strains that cause it are not readily attacked by host defenses

    • D. 

      A and c

    • E. 

      B and c

  • 42. 
    Dimorphic life cycle for Chlamydia trachomatis
    • A. 

      E bodies are infectious

    • B. 

      R bodies become E bodies

    • C. 

      E bodies are fragile

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      All but one of the above

  • 43. 
    Chlamydia trachomatis
    • A. 

      Viral pathogen

    • B. 

      Facultative intracellular pathogen

    • C. 

      Small bacterial pathogen

    • D. 

      A and b

    • E. 

      B and c

  • 44. 
    Chlamydia trachomatis
    • A. 

      Tetracycline is drug of choice

    • B. 

      Penicillin is drug of choice

    • C. 

      Has peptidoglycan

    • D. 

      A and c

    • E. 

      B and c

  • 45. 
    Chlamydia trachomatis
    • A. 

      Second most common cause of bacterial STD

    • B. 

      Child-bearing age females most at risk

    • C. 

      Males most at risk

    • D. 

      A and b

    • E. 

      A and c

  • 46. 
    Syphilis
    • A. 

      Often called the "great imitator"

    • B. 

      Can have three stages

    • C. 

      Is treatable at all stages

    • D. 

      A and b

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 47. 
    Treponema pallidum
    • A. 

      Has dimorphic life cycle

    • B. 

      Must live inside a cell

    • C. 

      Cannot be grown on laboratory media

    • D. 

      A and c

    • E. 

      B and c

  • 48. 
    Diagnosis of syphilis
    • A. 

      EIA is confirmatory

    • B. 

      FTA is confirmatory

    • C. 

      EIA is looking for Ab against the organism itself

    • D. 

      A and c

    • E. 

      B and c

  • 49. 
    A healed syphilitic chancre without antibiotic treatment
    • A. 

      Means the disease is cured

    • B. 

      Can mean disease still persists

    • C. 

      Can progress to secondary stage

    • D. 

      A and c

    • E. 

      B and c

  • 50. 
    Syphilis
    • A. 

      Vertical and horizontal transmission

    • B. 

      Signs and symptoms for vertical and horizontal transmission are different

    • C. 

      Signs and symptoms for vertical and horizontal transmission are very similar

    • D. 

      A and b

    • E. 

      A and c