Review Quiz: Microbiology Trivia Questions

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Review Quiz: Microbiology Trivia Questions

Are you a microbiology student looking for some trivia questions to stimulate yourself and see how much you have understood in class this whole year? If you said yes, then the test below is what the doctor prescribed as it covers most of the topics that might come in the final exam. All the best, as you try it out!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Interferons are produced by
    • A. 

      Viruses as they begin replication

    • B. 

      Various body cells on infection by viruses

    • C. 

      Bacteria in response to viral infection

    • D. 

      Drug companies for use against bacteria

  • 2. 
    All viruses possess
    • A. 

      A capsid and an envelope

    • B. 

      DNA as well as RNA

    • C. 

      A genome and a capsid

    • D. 

      A nucleocapsid and envelope

  • 3. 
    • A. 

      Budding through a membrane of the host cell

    • B. 

      Synthesizing envelope lipids under direction of the virus

    • C. 

      An outgrowth of the genome membrane

    • D. 

      Reaction with interferon protein

  • 4. 
    Oncogens are genes that
    • A. 

      Transform normal cells to cancer cells

    • B. 

      Influence ongoing protein production

    • C. 

      Encourage recombinations in bacteria

    • D. 

      The virus uses to replicate itself

  • 5. 
    The neuraminidase of influenza viruses assists in
    • A. 

      Host cell infection and spread to other cells

    • B. 

      Digestion of nuclear components of the cell

    • C. 

      Disintegration of the cell at the conclusion of the replication cycle

    • D. 

      Assembly of viral components

  • 6. 
    The retrovirus can synthesize DNA from RNA because it contains
    • A. 

      The necessary glucose molecules

    • B. 

      Envelope proteins that provide receptor sites

    • C. 

      The enzyme reverse transcriptase

    • D. 

      Cytoplasm within its genome

  • 7. 
    The cytopathic effect (CPE)
    • A. 

      Are replicating in tissue culture cells

    • B. 

      Have induced cells to produce interferons

    • C. 

      Are forming new capsid proteins

    • D. 

      Have entered the state of lysogeny with host cells

  • 8. 
    Base analogs are antiviral drugs that are
    • A. 

      Related to penicillin

    • B. 

      Erroneously incorporated into viral DNA

    • C. 

      Effective against bacteriophages but not human viruses

    • D. 

      Able to induce interferon production in cells

  • 9. 
    All of the following are classes of antiviral drugs except
    • A. 

      Reverse transcriptase inhibitors

    • B. 

      DNAase inhibitiors

    • C. 

      Protease inhibitors

    • D. 

      Neuraminidase inhibitors

  • 10. 
    A human form of BSA is called
    • A. 

      Scrapie

    • B. 

      Wasting disease

    • C. 

      Variant CJD

    • D. 

      TSE

  • 11. 
    Which one of the following is true of the influenza virus?
    • A. 

      Transmission usually occurs by water contamination

    • B. 

      The virion has no protein associated with it

    • C. 

      The virion has no envelope

    • D. 

      The virion undergoes antigenic variations

  • 12. 
    The respiratory syncytial virus takes its name from the
    • A. 

      Formation of giant cells in tissue culture cells

    • B. 

      Involvement of the liver tissue

    • C. 

      Lysis of the red blood cells, which accompanies the disease

    • D. 

      Involvement of the nervous system

  • 13. 
    The TORCH diseases are those that
    • A. 

      Are associated with high fever syndromes

    • B. 

      Pass from a pregnant woman to the developing fetus

    • C. 

      Cause the body to burn with fever

    • D. 

      Can be treated with antibiotics

  • 14. 
    One of the reasons for the success of the smallpox eradication campaign was that 
    • A. 

      Smallpox could be treated with antibiotics

    • B. 

      Smallpox viruses were used in the vaccine

    • C. 

      Smallpox occurred only in humans

    • D. 

      Smallpox was not a transmissible disease

  • 15. 
    German measles is similar to measles because
    • A. 

      Both diseases are caused by the same virus

    • B. 

      The gastrointestinal tract is involved in both diseases

    • C. 

      A skin rash occurs in both diseases

    • D. 

      Both diseases lead to Reyes syndrome

  • 16. 
    Herpes zoster, or shingles, is an adult disease caused by
    • A. 

      An RNA virus with spikes

    • B. 

      The rubeola virus

    • C. 

      A virus transmitted mainly by arthropods

    • D. 

      The same virus that causes chickenpox

  • 17. 
    The MMR immunization program has significantly affected the annual incidence of all the following disease except
    • A. 

      Rubella

    • B. 

      Mumps

    • C. 

      Measles

    • D. 

      Chickenpox

  • 18. 
    The scientific name for measles is
    • A. 

      Rubella

    • B. 

      Variola

    • C. 

      Varicella

    • D. 

      Rubeola

  • 19. 
    Viruses that have spikes on their envelopes and contain both hemagglutinin and neuraminidase cause
    • A. 

      Chickenpox

    • B. 

      Influenza

    • C. 

      Smallpox

    • D. 

      The common cold

  • 20. 
    Thich one of the following is not caused by a member of the Herpesviridae
    • A. 

      Chickenpoc

    • B. 

      Shingles

    • C. 

      Smallpox

    • D. 

      Cold sores

  • 21. 
    A drug thought to inhibit viral disease because it is a base analog substitute is
    • A. 

      Acyclovir

    • B. 

      Zanamivir

    • C. 

      Amanitadine

    • D. 

      TORCH

  • 22. 
    SARS is caused by a 
    • A. 

      Coronavirus

    • B. 

      Paramyxovirus

    • C. 

      Herpesvirus

    • D. 

      Retrovirus

  • 23. 
    Once the symptoms have fully materialized in an individual, rabies has
    • A. 

      Increased susceptibility to antibiotic treatment

    • B. 

      No chance of beiing transmitted among animals

    • C. 

      A great susceptibility to antibodies

    • D. 

      One of the highest motility rates of any human diseases

  • 24. 
    The adjectives western equine, La Crosse, California, and St. Louis all apply
    • A. 

      Forms of arboviral encephalitis

    • B. 

      Types of hepatitis B virus

    • C. 

      Different modes of gastroenteritis

    • D. 

      Types of influenza virus

  • 25. 
    The noroviruses are notable because they
    • A. 

      Cause of viral gastroenteritis

    • B. 

      Have no capsid

    • C. 

      Are one of the largest viruses known

    • D. 

      Have both DNA and RNA

  • 26. 
    Infectious mononucleosis is caused by Epstein-Barr virus. Another condition caused by this virus is
    • A. 

      Cytomegalovirus disease

    • B. 

      Lyme arthritis

    • C. 

      Serum hepatitis

    • D. 

      Burkitts lymphoma

  • 27. 
    An animal that is wide-eyed, drooling, and eager to attach anything in sight may be suffering from
    • A. 

      Marburg disease

    • B. 

      Furious disease

    • C. 

      Leptospirosis

    • D. 

      Dumb rabies

  • 28. 
    All of the following are used to treat HIV infections except
    • A. 

      Cephalosporin

    • B. 

      Azidothymidine

    • C. 

      Protease inhibitors

    • D. 

      Indinavir

  • 29. 
    The person who studies fungi
    • A. 

      Must be highly trained in zoology

    • B. 

      Is called a mycologist

    • C. 

      Is called a phycologist

    • D. 

      Must be highly trained in anatomy

  • 30. 
    Chitin is a component of the fungal
    • A. 

      Cytoplasm

    • B. 

      Krebs cycle where energy is formed

    • C. 

      Cell wall

    • D. 

      Cell nucleus

  • 31. 
    • A. 

      Excessive intake of alcoholic beverages

    • B. 

      Overuse of antibiotics

    • C. 

      Overgrowth of certain bacteria in the intestine

    • D. 

      Production of fungal toxins

  • 32. 
    Aspergillus flavus is a special problem in agriculture because
    • A. 

      Is contaminates grapes

    • B. 

      It lessens the yield of wheat by causing rust diseases

    • C. 

      It produces aflatoxins in agriculture products

    • D. 

      It contaminates potatoes

  • 33. 
    Nystatin is
    • A. 

      A supplement added to fungal growth media

    • B. 

      An antifungal agent used to treat candidiasis

    • C. 

      A toxin produced during the growth of Claviceps purpurea

    • D. 

      None of the above (A-C) is correct

  • 34. 
    The yeast disease in humans usually refers to
    • A. 

      A form of coccidioidomycosis

    • B. 

      The infection due to Candida albicans

    • C. 

      Infection with Saccharomyces ellipsoideus

    • D. 

      An untreatable and usually fatal fungal infection

  • 35. 
    Which one of the following applies to the fungus Cryptococcus neoformans
    • A. 

      The organism belongs to the phylum Ascomycota

    • B. 

      The organism grows in the dropping of pigeons

    • C. 

      The organism is an anaerobic fungus

    • D. 

      The organism is normally found in the human intestine

  • 36. 
    Dermatophytosis refers to fungal diseases
    • A. 

      That resists antibiotic treatment

    • B. 

      Of the hair, skin and nails

    • C. 

      That spreads to the internal organs

    • D. 

      That accompanies predisposing factors

  • 37. 
    Histoplasmosis is primarily a disease of
    • A. 

      The lungs

    • B. 

      Soldiers and other military personnel

    • C. 

      The winter months

    • D. 

      Oak trees and grape vines

  • 38. 
    The drug often used to treat cryptococcosis is
    • A. 

      Ampiotericin B

    • B. 

      Gentian violet

    • C. 

      Griseofulvin

    • D. 

      Nystatin

  • 39. 
    The triatomid bug is best known as the
    • A. 

      Vector of South American sleeping sickness

    • B. 

      Insect that harbors balantidium species

    • C. 

      Arthropod that transmits toxoplasmosis

    • D. 

      Mosquito that carries malaria

  • 40. 
    A distinguising feature of cases of amoebiasis is
    • A. 

      Sever anemia due to loss of red blood cells

    • B. 

      Intestinal ulcers

    • C. 

      Interference with reproductive functions in the victim

    • D. 

      Deterioration of the mental capacity

  • 41. 
    Cysts formation by certain protozoa permits
    • A. 

      Survival in the arthropod vector

    • B. 

      Enhanced reproduction by the protozoan

    • C. 

      Passage through the stomach acid

    • D. 

      Using of carbon dioxide as an energy source

  • 42. 
    Two important means for contracting toxoplasmosis are
    • A. 

      Inhaling protozoa and an arthropod bite

    • B. 

      An arthropod bite and consuming rare beef

    • C. 

      Consuming rare beef and contact with a cat

    • D. 

      Contact with a cat and inhaling protozoa

  • 43. 
    The malaria attack coincides with
    • A. 

      The bite of the moswuito

    • B. 

      Entry of the parasites to the liver

    • C. 

      The release of parasites from infected red blood cells

    • D. 

      Destruction of the spleen in the body

  • 44. 
    Ontrolled byEpidemics of African trypanosomiasis may be c
    • A. 

      Eliminating infestations of tsetse flies

    • B. 

      Treting infections in pigs

    • C. 

      Filtering the local water supplies

    • D. 

      Cooking beef thoroughly before cooking

  • 45. 
    This protozoan can cause serious problems if a pregnant woman becomes infected. The fetus may become infected because the parasites pass across the placenta. They may cause brain and eye damage, lensions of the visceral organs, or spontaneous abortion.
    • A. 

      Toxoplasma gondii

    • B. 

      Trypanosoma brucei

    • C. 

      Trypanosoma cruzi

    • D. 

      Trichomonas vaginalis

  • 46. 
    Which of the following is not a characteristic of giardiases
    • A. 

      It is caused by a flagellated protozoan

    • B. 

      Diarrhea is a notable sign

    • C. 

      Outbreaks have been reported in mountainous areas of the US

    • D. 

      Transmission occurs by tick bites

  • 47. 
    The sporozoite merozoite, and gametocyte are all stages of
    • A. 

      The ciliate that causes balantidiases

    • B. 

      The amoebia that causes PAM

    • C. 

      The arthropod that transmits babesiosis

    • D. 

      Plasmodium that invades red blood cells

  • 48. 
    Quinine is effective in the treatment of disease caused by members of the genus
    • A. 

      Plasmodium

    • B. 

      Toxoplasma

    • C. 

      Giardia

    • D. 

      Leishmania

  • 49. 
    A sexually transmitted protozoal disease is
    • A. 

      African trypanosomiasis

    • B. 

      Trichomoniasis

    • C. 

      American trypanosomiasis

    • D. 

      Toxoplasmosis

  • 50. 
    One of the limitations of the autoclave is that
    • A. 

      Some plasticware melts in the high heat

    • B. 

      Glassware melts in the high heat

    • C. 

      Endospores are not destroyed

    • D. 

      Protozoal cysts are not destroyed

  • 51. 
    The principal effect of ultraviolet light on bacterial cells takes place
    • A. 

      In the cell membrane

    • B. 

      In the DNA of the cell

    • C. 

      In the peptidoglycan layer of the cell wayy

    • D. 

      In the ribosomes of the cell

  • 52. 
    A substance that has been pasteurized
    • A. 

      Contains no microbial life

    • B. 

      Has no bacterial spores

    • C. 

      May contain pathogenic bacteria

    • D. 

      Is not considered sterile

  • 53. 
    Low temperature is
    • A. 

      Bactericidal

    • B. 

      A good method of sterilization

    • C. 

      Bacteriostatic

    • D. 

      As effective as high temperature in coagulating proteins

  • 54. 
    Detergents display their antimicrobial ability by
    • A. 

      Reacting with tyrosine molecules in proteins

    • B. 

      Altering the nucleic acid composition of the chromosome

    • C. 

      Inducing leakage through the cell membrane

    • D. 

      Reacting with adjacent amino groups in proteins

  • 55. 
    The chemical counterpart of the autoclave uses
    • A. 

      Mercury oxide in a closed chamber

    • B. 

      Iodine in an iodophor solution

    • C. 

      Phenol in the form of cresol

    • D. 

      Ethylene oxide with an inert gas

  • 56. 
    Silver nitrate may be used to
    • A. 

      Kill coliform bacteria in polluted water

    • B. 

      Rinse pasteurization tubes

    • C. 

      Sterilize plastics

    • D. 

      Prevent gonorrhea in the eyes of newborns

  • 57. 
    Hexylresorcinol and hexachlorophene are related because
    • A. 

      Both are derivatives of phenol

    • B. 

      Both are used in commercial mouthwash

    • C. 

      Both have substantial side effects on the kidney

    • D. 

      Both are formaldehyde derivatives

  • 58. 
    Soft contact lenses and heat sensitive plastics are disinfective in about 30 minutes using
    • A. 

      Benzoic acid

    • B. 

      Phenol

    • C. 

      Hydrogen peroxide

    • D. 

      Sulfuric acid

  • 59. 
    The gas used in municipal water supplies to keep bacterial populations low is
    • A. 

      A phenol derivative

    • B. 

      Also used to preserve food

    • C. 

      Chlorine

    • D. 

      Silver

  • 60. 
    Iodophors are
    • A. 

      Halogenated derivatives of compounds containing amino acids

    • B. 

      Solutions of ethyl alcohol containing low concentrations of iodine and sodium iiodide

    • C. 

      Used in very dilute solutions for the disinfection of swimming pools

    • D. 

      Complexes of iodine and detergents that release iodine over long periods of time

  • 61. 
    The two major drawbacks to the use of penicillin are
    • A. 

      Kidney damage and immune complex formation

    • B. 

      Allergic reactions and development of drug resistant bacteria

    • C. 

      Aplastic anemia and anaplylactic hypersensitivity

    • D. 

      Loss of hearing and cytotoxic hypersenstivity

  • 62. 
    Sulfanilamide is active against those bacteria that
    • A. 

      Form granular lesions in the body

    • B. 

      Synthesize folic acid

    • C. 

      Induce allergic reactions

    • D. 

      Are commonly found in polluted water

  • 63. 
    Chloroquine, primaquine, and quinine are of value for the treatment eof
    • A. 

      Urinary tract infections

    • B. 

      Cases of malaria

    • C. 

      Infections cause by bacteria of the intestinal tract

    • D. 

      Fungal diseases

  • 64. 
    Tetracycline is the drug of choice in treating most
    • A. 

      Gram + bacterial infections

    • B. 

      Fungal infections

    • C. 

      Gram - infections

    • D. 

      Rickettsial infections

  • 65. 
    All aminoglycoside antibiotics function by
    • A. 

      Interfering with cell wall synthesis

    • B. 

      Attaching irreversibility to bacterial ribosomes

    • C. 

      Blocking absorption at the cell membrane

    • D. 

      Blocking DNA transcription

  • 66. 
    Cephalosporins act by
    • A. 

      Inhibiting protein synthesis

    • B. 

      Interfering with cell wall biosynthesis

    • C. 

      Competitively inhibiting folic acid biosynthesis

    • D. 

      Inhibiting RNA synthesis

  • 67. 
    Flucytosine, cltrimazole, and ketoconazole typify the 
    • A. 

      Drugs for treating leprosy

    • B. 

      Modern salfonamide drugs

    • C. 

      Antifungal antibiotics

    • D. 

      Cell wall inhibitors