Micro Nova E Learning July

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Quizzes Created: 77 | Total Attempts: 17,489
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Micro Nova E Learning July - Quiz


Welcome to July E-Learning Test
Here is an opportunity to test your Product knowledge and Strategy.
You have 20 minutes to complete this test.
Please enter your name , Emp. Code ,HQ and Select your state. Then press "Start" to begin the test. You can only attend the test once and hence make sure you have uninterrupted internet connectivity.

All the best
Micro Leadership Academy


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Dolopar Incentive is on – 

    • A. 

      Solids and for 1 Year

    • B. 

      Group and for 1 Year

    • C. 

      Solids and for 6 months

    • D. 

      Group and for 6 months

    Correct Answer
    C. Solids and for 6 months
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Solids and for 6 months." This suggests that the Dolopar Incentive applies specifically to solid forms of the product and is valid for a duration of 6 months.

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  • 2. 

    As per RCPA Booklet, how many doctors to be selected for Microcef, Microcef-CV, Dolopar, Azilide and Pantotab-DSR respectively : 

    • A. 

      15,10,10,15,10

    • B. 

      10,10,15,15,10

    • C. 

      10,10,20,10,10

    • D. 

      10,10,10,20,10

    Correct Answer
    B. 10,10,15,15,10
    Explanation
    According to the RCPA Booklet, the number of doctors to be selected for Microcef, Microcef-CV, Dolopar, Azilide, and Pantotab-DSR respectively is 10, 10, 15, 15, and 10.

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  • 3. 

     Which are the P1,P2,P3 and P4 brands of the division

    • A. 

      Microcef,Azilide, Dolopar, Ventryl

    • B. 

      Microcef, Azilide,Dolopar, Pantotab

    • C. 

      Microcef, Dolopar, Pantotab,Ventryl

    • D. 

      Microcef, Folfit,Dolopar,Azilide

    Correct Answer
    B. Microcef, Azilide,Dolopar, Pantotab
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Microcef, Azilide, Dolopar, Pantotab. This is the correct answer because it includes all four brands mentioned in the question: Microcef, Azilide, Dolopar, and Pantotab. The other options either do not include all four brands or include additional brands not mentioned in the question.

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  • 4. 

    Available scheme on Dolopar Tablets and Dolopar 650 are –

    • A. 

      20% and 10%

    • B. 

      10% and 10%

    • C. 

      40% and 20%

    • D. 

      20% and 20%

    Correct Answer
    A. 20% and 10%
    Explanation
    The available scheme on Dolopar Tablets and Dolopar 650 is 20% off on Dolopar Tablets and 10% off on Dolopar 650.

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  • 5. 

    PEARLS study is for – 

    • A. 

      AZILIDE

    • B. 

      DOLOPAR

    • C. 

      PANTOTAB-DSR

    • D. 

      MICROCEF

    Correct Answer
    C. PANTOTAB-DSR
    Explanation
    The PEARLS study is specifically conducted for the drug PANTOTAB-DSR. This study aims to evaluate the efficacy, safety, and tolerability of PANTOTAB-DSR in a particular population or for a specific indication. The study may involve comparing PANTOTAB-DSR with other drugs or a placebo, assessing its long-term effects, or investigating its use in a specific patient population. The results of the PEARLS study will provide valuable information about the effectiveness and safety profile of PANTOTAB-DSR, helping healthcare professionals make informed decisions about its use.

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  • 6. 

    COMET study is for – 

    • A. 

      Microcef-CV

    • B. 

      Dolopar

    • C. 

      Pantotab

    • D. 

      Folfit

    Correct Answer
    A. Microcef-CV
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Microcef-CV. The COMET study refers to a specific study or clinical trial that is being conducted for Microcef-CV. The other options (Dolopar, Pantotab, Folfit) are not related to the COMET study.

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  • 7. 

    Cefpodoxime is 10 folds more potent in eradicating S pneumonia compared to  : 

    • A. 

      Cefuroxime

    • B. 

      Cefixime

    • C. 

      Co-amoxyclav

    • D. 

      Cefepime

    Correct Answer
    B. Cefixime
    Explanation
    Cefpodoxime is 10 times more effective than cefixime in eliminating S pneumonia.

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  • 8. 

    Clinical success rates in tonsillopharyngitis for Azilide is : 

    • A. 

      92%

    • B. 

      94%

    • C. 

      96%

    • D. 

      98%

    Correct Answer
    C. 96%
    Explanation
    The clinical success rate for Azilide in treating tonsillopharyngitis is 96%. This means that 96% of patients who received Azilide experienced successful treatment outcomes for their condition. This high success rate suggests that Azilide is an effective medication for treating tonsillopharyngitis.

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  • 9. 

    Recommended Azithromycin dose Streptococcal Pharyngitis by IAP is : 

    • A. 

      12.5 mg/kg/day for 3 days

    • B. 

      10.0 mg/kg/day for 3 days

    • C. 

      12.5 mg/kg/day for 5 days

    • D. 

      10.0 mg/kg/day for 5 days

    Correct Answer
    C. 12.5 mg/kg/day for 5 days
  • 10. 

    Dolopar 650 start releasing paracetamol in just : 

    • A. 

      1 minutes

    • B. 

      2 minutes

    • C. 

      5 minutes

    • D. 

      10 minutes

    Correct Answer
    B. 2 minutes
    Explanation
    Dolopar 650 starts releasing paracetamol in just 2 minutes. This means that after taking Dolopar 650, the paracetamol in the medication starts to be released and absorbed by the body within 2 minutes. This quick release time allows for faster relief from pain or fever symptoms.

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  • 11. 

     Taste of Ventryl is : 

    • A. 

      Raspberry – Pineapple flavoured

    • B. 

      Mint Flavoured

    • C. 

      Pineapple Flavoured

    • D. 

      Strawberry flavoured

    Correct Answer
    C. Pineapple Flavoured
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Pineapple Flavoured. This means that the taste of Ventryl is pineapple-flavored.

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  • 12. 

    Pantotab-DSR indication is –

    • A. 

      Acid Reflux with Nausea and Vomiting

    • B. 

      Hyperacidity and Heartburn...

    • C. 

      Functional Dyspepsia, Gastroparesis and APD

    • D. 

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Acid Reflux with Nausea and Vomiting
    Explanation
    The indication for Pantotab-DSR is acid reflux with nausea and vomiting. This means that this medication is specifically used to treat the symptoms of acid reflux, such as the regurgitation of stomach acid into the esophagus, which can cause nausea and vomiting. It is not indicated for hyperacidity and heartburn or functional dyspepsia, gastroparesis, and APD.

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  • 13. 

    Microcef 200 DT tablets is manufactured at :

    • A. 

      Sikkim

    • B. 

      Baddi, Himachal Pradesh

    • C. 

      Bommasandra, Karnataka

    • D. 

      Pune, Maharashtra

    Correct Answer
    C. Bommasandra, Karnataka
    Explanation
    Microcef 200 DT tablets are manufactured in Bommasandra, Karnataka. This information is not explicitly mentioned in the question, but it can be inferred based on the given options. The question asks for the location where Microcef 200 DT tablets are manufactured, and out of the provided options, Bommasandra, Karnataka is the only location mentioned. Therefore, it can be concluded that Microcef 200 DT tablets are manufactured in Bommasandra, Karnataka.

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  • 14. 

    Z&B is available with : 

    • A. 

      Caplet technology

    • B. 

      Liposomal technology

    • C. 

      Barrier Coating technology

    • D. 

      Softlet technology

    Correct Answer
    D. Softlet technology
    Explanation
    Softlet technology refers to a type of drug delivery system that involves the use of soft gelatin capsules. These capsules are made from a gelatin-based material that is soft and flexible, allowing for easy swallowing and absorption in the body. Softlet technology is often used for drugs that have poor solubility or stability, as the soft gelatin capsules can help to protect the drug and improve its bioavailability. This technology is a popular choice for pharmaceutical companies as it offers advantages such as improved patient compliance and enhanced drug performance.

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  • 15. 

     Strength of Microcef Tablets available in DT form : 

    • A. 

      200 mg

    • B. 

      100 mg

    • C. 

      50 mg

    • D. 

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The strength of Microcef Tablets available in DT form includes 200 mg, 100 mg, and 50 mg. This means that all three options mentioned in the question are correct.

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  • 16. 

    Available scheme of Azilide 500 and 250 is : 

    • A. 

      20%

    • B. 

      10%

    • C. 

      30%

    • D. 

      No scheme

    Correct Answer
    B. 10%
    Explanation
    The available scheme for Azilide 500 and 250 is 10%. This means that customers can avail a discount of 10% on the purchase of these medications.

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  • 17. 

     Microcef Incentives are applicable on

    • A. 

      Microcef

    • B. 

      Microcef and Microcef-CV

    • C. 

      Microcef-CV

    • D. 

      Microcef and Microcef-CV excluding Microcef-O

    Correct Answer
    D. Microcef and Microcef-CV excluding Microcef-O
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Microcef and Microcef-CV excluding Microcef-O." This means that the incentives are applicable on the products Microcef and Microcef-CV, but not on Microcef-O.

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  • 18. 

     Microcef 100 DT tablet is available in

    • A. 

      Orange flavour

    • B. 

      Pineapple flavour

    • C. 

      Banana flavour

    • D. 

      Mint Flavour

    Correct Answer
    A. Orange flavour
    Explanation
    Microcef 100 DT tablet is available in orange flavour.

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  • 19. 

    Minimum number of Doctor calls/month required to earn Navdisha incentives 

    • A. 

      200

    • B. 

      250

    • C. 

      285

    • D. 

      271

    Correct Answer
    D. 271
    Explanation
    To earn Navdisha incentives, the minimum number of doctor calls per month required is 271. This means that a salesperson or representative needs to make at least 271 calls to doctors in order to qualify for the incentives. Making fewer calls than this number would not meet the minimum requirement for earning the incentives.

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  • 20. 

    AMs are eligible for incentive of Rs. 12000/- when expiry is reduced by 

    • A. 

      10%

    • B. 

      25%

    • C. 

      50%

    • D. 

      75%

    Correct Answer
    C. 50%
    Explanation
    AMs are eligible for an incentive of Rs. 12000 when the expiry is reduced by 50%. This means that if the AM is able to reduce the expiry of a certain product or service by 50%, they will receive a bonus of Rs. 12000. This incentive is likely put in place to motivate the AMs to work towards reducing the expiry and ensuring that products or services are utilized efficiently within the given time frame.

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