Microbiology Quiz: Cell And DNA! Trivia Questions

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Microbiology Quiz: Cell And DNA! Trivia Questions

Human beings can pass their genetics to their children, thanks to their DNA. Cells are the building blocks of the human body. This quiz is made up of only OUR old tests, and possibly some end of chapter tests. All you need to do to be ready for your exams is to tackle the questions below, and you will have reviewed every chapter examinable.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    If placed for too long in pure water, an animal cell will burst, although most bacterial cells will not. a) Why will water cause the animal cell to burst? 
  • 2. 
    If placed for too long in pure water, an animal cell will burst, although most bacterial cells will not.  Why will the bacterial cell not burst?
  • 3. 
    Know whether its: Eukaryote or prokaryote Cell size unicellular/ multicellular/ both cell wall Bacteria:
  • 4. 
    Know whether its: Eukaryote or prokaryote Cell size unicellular/ multicellular/ both cell wall Fungi
  • 5. 
    Know whether its: Eukaryote or prokaryote Cell size unicellular/ multicellular/ both cell wall Protozoa
  • 6. 
    Know whether its: Eukaryote or prokaryote Cell size unicellular/ multicellular/ both cell wall Algae
  • 7. 
    Simple diffusion: Is energy required? Are "carriers" used? Moves substances from low to high conc.
  • 8. 
    Facilitated Diffusion: Is energy required? Are "carriers" used? Moves substances from low to high conc.
  • 9. 
    Active transport: Is energy required? Are "carriers" used? Moves substances from low to high conc.
  • 10. 
  • 11. 
    Describe what lysogenic conversion is and its significance.
  • 12. 
    List the three types of symbiosis and give an example of each
  • 13. 
    Specify what happens as a result of complement activation (What does complement activation lead to?)
  • 14. 
    List 3 virulence factors (excluding endo and exotoxins), include what that virulence factor does.
  • 15. 
    Bitten by a copperhead. Rushed to emergency room and physician injects him with antivenin. What is antivenin? How was it produced (most likely)
  • 16. 
    Fill in chemical nature, bacterial source, heat stable?, and able to form toxoid? Exotoxin
  • 17. 
    Fill in chemical nature, bacterial source, heat stable?, and able to form toxoid? Endotoxin
  • 18. 
    Be able to draw the general structure of an antibody molecule. Label heavy and light chains, the antigen binding sites (6 points)
  • 19. 
    Be able to complete a cgraph for secondary exposure, T-dependent and T-independent
  • 20. 
    Physicians administering live attenuated vaccines prepared in chick embryos have epinephrine on hand. Why?
  • 21. 
    Considering only patient safety, which antibiotic would be better to use, an aminoglycoside with a therapeutic index of 2, or penicillin G with a therapeutic index of 10?
  • 22. 
    Define mycotoxin. Give an example of a mycotoxin. 
  • 23. 
    What types (group) of bacteria are more likely to result in fatal septic shock and why?
  • 24. 
    Compare and contrast antigenic shift and antigenic drift as it coours in the influenza virus
  • 25. 
    HIV is referred to as a "highly mutable" virus. What accounts for the high mutation rate of HIV?
  • 26. 
    List the 4 main ways bacteria are resistant to antibiotics (measn of resistance). Include a specific example of each, explaining in detail the mechanism of resistance in each case
  • 27. 
    Specify what the following designations of bacteria indicate: F+
  • 28. 
    Specify what the following designations of bacteria indicate Pen(^s)
  • 29. 
    Specify what the following designations of bacteria indicate His+
  • 30. 
    Considering obligate aerobes and obligate anaerobes, explain what makes them "obligate" (i.e if you think obligate anaerobe means they can't live in the presence of kryptonite-explain why that is)
  • 31. 
    What condititons must exist (what must be present/absent) for the lac operon to be "on" in normal, wild type E. coli?
  • 32. 
    Considering the pUC 19 plasmid, what does the LacZ gene code for? When used in recombinant DNA technology, how do you know if the transformed bacteria contains the original pUC 19 plasmid, or the recombinant plasmid?
  • 33. 
    To make a vaccine against chicken cholera that would not kill the chicken, Pasteur
    • A. 

      Used heat to kill the microorganisms

    • B. 

      Attenuated the strain

    • C. 

      Used a related but different microorganism from animals

    • D. 

      Used very large amounts of material

  • 34. 
    The prokaryotic members of the microbial world include: 1-algae 2-fungi 3-bacteria 4-archaea
    • A. 

      1 and 2

    • B. 

      2 and 3

    • C. 

      3 and 4

    • D. 

      1 and 3

    • E. 

      All

  • 35. 
    Pure water has all of the following properties except
    • A. 

      Polar covalent bonds

    • B. 

      Ability to form hydrogen bonds

    • C. 

      High surface tension

    • D. 

      Ability to dissolve lipids

    • E. 

      Heats and cools slowly

  • 36. 
    The most hydrophobic molecure would be the one with the most:
    • A. 

      C-O and C-N bonds

    • B. 

      C-C and C-H bonds

    • C. 

      N-H bonds

    • D. 

      O-H bonds

    • E. 

      Ionic bonds

  • 37. 
    The primary structure of a protein is its
    • A. 

      Sequence of amino acids

    • B. 

      Length

    • C. 

      Shape

    • D. 

      Bonds between amino acids

  • 38. 
    Radioisotopes are frequently used in the study of cells. Assume a culture of E. coli is grown in a culture medium containing radioactive sulfur. At the end of 48 hours you would expect to find teh radioactive label located in proteins. 
    • A. 

      Proteins

    • B. 

      DNA

    • C. 

      RNA

    • D. 

      Phospholipids

    • E. 

      All

  • 39. 
    Living, unstained cells and organisms are best observed best using
    • A. 

      Fluorescent microscopy

    • B. 

      TEM

    • C. 

      Phase contrast microscopy

    • D. 

      SEM

    • E. 

      All

  • 40. 
    Which microscope achieves the highes magnification and greatest resolution?
    • A. 

      Compound light microscope

    • B. 

      Phase-contrast microscope

    • C. 

      Darkfield microscope

    • D. 

      Fluorescence microscope

    • E. 

      Electron microscope

  • 41. 
    Some bacteria are considered pleomorphic. This means
    • A. 

      They are shaped like bent rods

    • B. 

      They have a corkscrew shape

    • C. 

      They do not have just one shape

    • D. 

      They have a spherical shape

  • 42. 
    Pili function to 
    • A. 

      Attach bacteria to various surfaces

    • B. 

      Cause bacteria mo through fluids

    • C. 

      Sense changes in nutrient concentration

    • D. 

      Secrete exoenzymes

  • 43. 
    The typical bacterial cytoplasmic membrane contains:
    • A. 

      Ether-linked phospholipids, but no sterols

    • B. 

      Ester-linked phospholipids and sterols

    • C. 

      Ester-linked phospholipids, but no sterols

    • D. 

      Ether-linked phospholipids, sulfolipids, and glycolipids

  • 44. 
    When different forms for the same atom exist due to the difference in the number of neutrons, they are known as
    • A. 

      Atoms

    • B. 

      Isotopes

    • C. 

      Neurtrons

    • D. 

      Molecules

    • E. 

      Chiral centers

  • 45. 
    When hydrogen ion concentration increases, pH
    • A. 

      Increases

    • B. 

      Decreases

    • C. 

      Doesn't change

    • D. 

      Changes to neutral

  • 46. 
    Which of these are NOT a part of polynucleotides?
    • A. 

      Ribose or deoxyribose

    • B. 

      Nitrogenous organic bases

    • C. 

      Phosphate groups

    • D. 

      Purines and pyrimides

    • E. 

      Peptides

  • 47. 
    In prokaryotes, lipid bilayers are associated with the 1-gram positive cell wall 2-gram negative cell wall 3-cytoplasmic membrane 4-capsule 5-nuclear membrane
    • A. 

      1 and 2

    • B. 

      2 and 3

    • C. 

      2 and 4

    • D. 

      3 and 5

    • E. 

      All

  • 48. 
    You are observing a cell through a microscope and note that it has no apparent nucleus. You conclude that it most likely
    • A. 

      Has a peptidoglycan cell

    • B. 

      Has a cellulose cell was

    • C. 

      Moves by pseudopods

    • D. 

      Is part of a multicellular animal

    • E. 

      Is a plant cell

  • 49. 
    Which of the following is NOT among the structures found in ALL cells?
    • A. 

      Plasma (cell) membrane

    • B. 

      DNA as the genetic material

    • C. 

      Mitochondria to make ATP

    • D. 

      Enzymes to speed up chemical reactions

    • E. 

      Ribosomes to produce proteins

  • 50. 
    Cell walls, when they exist, usually contain peptidoglycan in
    • A. 

      Eukaryotes only

    • B. 

      Procaryotes only

    • C. 

      Viruses

    • D. 

      Both procaryotes and eucaryotes

  • 51. 
    What is the purpose of bacterial endospores?
    • A. 

      Allow the bacterium to make hundreds of "seeds" to spread on the wind

    • B. 

      Help the bacterium to differentiate into faster growing stages of bacteria

    • C. 

      Allow the bacterium to survive the absence of oxygen

    • D. 

      Allow the bacterium to survive extended periods of heat or dryness

  • 52. 
    The light reaction of photosynthesis is where
    • A. 

      Carbohydrates are formed from CO2 and water

    • B. 

      Polysaccharides are formed in the pyrenoid

    • C. 

      Proteins within the stroma are made to give off photons of light

    • D. 

      Photons from light are harnessed to generate ATP

  • 53. 
    DNA is the primary molecule for information storage in 
    • A. 

      Procaryotes only

    • B. 

      Eucaryotes only

    • C. 

      Both procaryotes and eucaryotes

  • 54. 
    Thin, flowing, loosely bound glycocalyx is referred to as
    • A. 

      Slime layer

    • B. 

      Capsule

    • C. 

      Biofilm

    • D. 

      Cell membrane

  • 55. 
    Membrane bound organelles such as lysosomes and Golgi are found in
    • A. 

      Procaryotes only

    • B. 

      Eucaryotes only

    • C. 

      Both procaryotes and eucaryotes

  • 56. 
    Denaturation of an enzyme refers to the
    • A. 

      Proper arrangement of the enzyme in a metabolic pathway

    • B. 

      Improper arrangement of the enzyme in a metabolic pathway

    • C. 

      Loss of the enzyme's proper shape

    • D. 

      Formation of the enzyme's proper shape

    • E. 

      Formation of a new isozyme for the enzyme

  • 57. 
    Identify the reaction below: Lactose+H20------>glucose+galactose
    • A. 

      Synthesis reaction

    • B. 

      Hydrolysis reaction

    • C. 

      Exchange reaction

    • D. 

      Reversible reaction

    • E. 

      Allosteric reaction

  • 58. 
    In lactic acid fermentation the final electron acceptor is
    • A. 

      Oxygen

    • B. 

      Nitrate

    • C. 

      Acetyl-CoA

    • D. 

      Glucose

    • E. 

      Pyruvate

  • 59. 
    Aerobic respiration differs from anaerobic respiration in which of the following respects?
    • A. 

      Anaerobic respiration is glycolysis

    • B. 

      The final electron acceptors are different

    • C. 

      Aerobic respiration requires the electron transport chain

    • D. 

      Aerobic respiration gets electrons from the Krebs cycles

    • E. 

      Aerobic respiration produces less ATP

  • 60. 
    Which of the following best explains why the production of ethanol is important in yeast cells that are under anaerobic conditions?
    • A. 

      Ethanol keeps the electron transport system functioning

    • B. 

      Yeast would be unable to activate the enzymes of the Krebs cycle without ethanol

    • C. 

      The process generates oxygen, which is required for glycolysis

    • D. 

      The process regenerated NAD+, which is required for glycolysis

    • E. 

      Ethanol stimulates mitochondrial activity

  • 61. 
    You are growing animal cells in culture and notice that the cells do not look very healthy. After some checking you discover that there is a lot of lactic acid in the culture fluid. What is probably wrong with this culture?
    • A. 

      Too much sugar in the medium

    • B. 

      Ethyl alcohol is being produced in excess

    • C. 

      The cells do not have enough oxygen

    • D. 

      The cells have too much oxygen

    • E. 

      Glycolysis is being inhibited

  • 62. 
    Which one of the following is produced in the greatest numbers during one "turn" of the Krebs cycle?
    • A. 

      NADH

    • B. 

      Acetyl CoA

    • C. 

      FADH2

    • D. 

      Carbon dioxide

    • E. 

      ATP

  • 63. 
    In glycolysis ATP is created by
    • A. 

      Oxidative phosphorylation

    • B. 

      Photophosphorylation

    • C. 

      The chemiosmotic mechanism

    • D. 

      Substrate level phosphorylation

    • E. 

      The pentose phosphate pathway

  • 64. 
    Which of the following is the best example of a polymer?
    • A. 

      Nucleotide

    • B. 

      Amino acid

    • C. 

      Monosaccharide

    • D. 

      Polysaccharide

    • E. 

      Fatty acid

  • 65. 
    200 nm=______ um (micro)
  • 66. 
    A news report had an article about a "smart bandage", a product that would indicate whetehr the bacteria infecting a wouund are gram-positive or gram-negative. according to the article, the adhesive's pores contain a synthetic chemical that changes color upon binding to a certain molecule that is characteristic of gram-negative bacteria. What is a molecule that could be diagnostic for gram-negative bacteria?
  • 67. 
    Given the DNA sequence below, indicate what the complimentary sequence would be. ATTACGGA
  • 68. 
    The first person credited with observing cells was
  • 69. 
    The first person credited with observing microorganisms was 
  • 70. 
    Disproved spontaneous generation
  • 71. 
    Plays a major role in decomposition of plant material
  • 72. 
    Bonds formed when electrons are transferred are
  • 73. 
    Bonds formed when electrons are shared are 
  • 74. 
    Amino acids in living organisms are typically the ________ isomer
  • 75. 
    Bacteria lacking a cell wall belong to the Genus
  • 76. 
    In chemiosmosis (production of ATP) _______ are passed down the electron transport chain which results in _______ being pumped across the membrane
  • 77. 
    Methanogens are potentially of great importance because
    • A. 

      They produce methane

    • B. 

      They consume methane

    • C. 

      Methane is an energy source

    • D. 

      Both a and c

    • E. 

      Both b and c

  • 78. 
    A protozoan is typically a
    • A. 

      Motile procaryotic unicellular protist

    • B. 

      Motile eucaryotic unicellular protist

    • C. 

      Motile eucaryotic unicellular photosynthetic protist

    • D. 

      Motile eucaryotic multicellular protist

    • E. 

      Non motile eucaryotic unicellular protist

  • 79. 
    Dimorphic fungi are fungi that
    • A. 

      Grow at pH's greater than 7

    • B. 

      Have mold-like growth and yeast-like growth

    • C. 

      Require a high moisture level

    • D. 

      Do not produce spores

    • E. 

      Are usually not pathogenic

  • 80. 
    Fungi are more likely than bacteria to contaminate packaged bandages because
    • A. 

      They are aerobic

    • B. 

      They cannot tolerate high osmotic pressure

    • C. 

      They prefer a neutral environment (pH 7)

    • D. 

      They have a fermentative metabolism

    • E. 

      They can tolerate low-moisture conditions

  • 81. 
    In general, fungi derive nutrients through
    • A. 

      Photosynthesis

    • B. 

      Engulfing bacteria

    • C. 

      Digesting organic substrates

    • D. 

      Parasitism

    • E. 

      Chemiosmosis

  • 82. 
    Parasitic worms typically have a highly developed ______system.
    • A. 

      Digestive

    • B. 

      Nervous

    • C. 

      Respiratory

    • D. 

      Muscular

    • E. 

      Reproductive

  • 83. 
    Concerning viruses, plaques are:
    • A. 

      Clear areas in a lawn of cultured cells caused by virus infection

    • B. 

      Stained areas in a cell culture indicating cells infected by a virus

    • C. 

      Virus colonies on agar

    • D. 

      Bacterial colonies on agar

    • E. 

      Lysogenic viruses

  • 84. 
    Reverse transcription by reverse transcriptase is characteristic of
    • A. 

      Gram positive bacteria

    • B. 

      Influenza viruses

    • C. 

      Rhinoviruses

    • D. 

      Retroviruses

    • E. 

      Archaea

  • 85. 
    The envelope of an animal virus is derived form the _____ of its host cell. 
    • A. 

      Cell wall

    • B. 

      Cell membrane

    • C. 

      Glycocalyx

    • D. 

      Receptors

    • E. 

      Nucleus

  • 86. 
    What concept is used to describe the finding that %100 immunization is not necessary in order to prevent a disease from spreading in a population?
    • A. 

      Nosocomial protection

    • B. 

      Herd immunity

    • C. 

      Cycle of disease

    • D. 

      Public health

    • E. 

      Endemic immunity

  • 87. 
    The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the
    • A. 

      Fomite

    • B. 

      Carrier

    • C. 

      Vector

    • D. 

      Reservoir

    • E. 

      Source

  • 88. 
    Which of the following terms refers to an infection due to bacterial growth in the blood?
    • A. 

      Septicemia

    • B. 

      Bacteremia

    • C. 

      Sepsis

    • D. 

      Toxemia

    • E. 

      Viremia

  • 89. 
    Antibiotics can lead to septic shock if used to treat
    • A. 

      Viral infections

    • B. 

      Gram-negative bacterial infections

    • C. 

      Gram-positive bacterial infections

    • D. 

      Protozoan infections

    • E. 

      Helminth infestations

  • 90. 
    The occurence of an infectious disease depends upon
    • A. 

      The virulence of the pathogen

    • B. 

      Infection of the host by the pathogen

    • C. 

      The resistance of the host

    • D. 

      A and b

    • E. 

      All

  • 91. 
    Washing your body regularly with antibacterial agents can result in
    • A. 

      Body odor

    • B. 

      Fewer diseases

    • C. 

      Increased susceptibility

    • D. 

      Normal microbiota returning immediately

    • E. 

      No bacterial growth because washing removes their food source

  • 92. 
    Which of the following is not a characteristic of inflammation
    • A. 

      Redness

    • B. 

      Pain

    • C. 

      Local heat

    • D. 

      Fever

    • E. 

      Swelling

  • 93. 
    Which of the following is found normally in serum
    • A. 

      Complement

    • B. 

      Interferon

    • C. 

      Histamine

    • D. 

      Lysozyme

    • E. 

      Bacteria

  • 94. 
    Opsonization refers to
    • A. 

      Parasitic lysosomal degranulation

    • B. 

      Aggulutination of red blood cells

    • C. 

      Coating of microorganisms or other particles by antibody and/or complement

    • D. 

      Adherence to mucosal epithelial cells

    • E. 

      Antibody mediated viral inactivation

  • 95. 
    If blood is isolated and fractionated, the portion known as serum differs from plasma in that serum:
    • A. 

      Contains white blood cells

    • B. 

      Does not have antibodies

    • C. 

      Contains red blood cells

    • D. 

      Does not contain clotting proteins

    • E. 

      A and c are correct

  • 96. 
    After phagocytosis, which cellular organelle binds with the phagosomes and digests it?
    • A. 

      Nucleus

    • B. 

      Golgi apparatus

    • C. 

      Lysosome

    • D. 

      Peroxisome

    • E. 

      Endoplasmic reticulum

  • 97. 
    An epitope is
    • A. 

      A gamma globulin

    • B. 

      A T-cell

    • C. 

      A B-cell

    • D. 

      An antibody

    • E. 

      A small portion of the antigen

  • 98. 
    Which of the following is the major immunoglobulin in human serum, accounting for 80% of the immunoglobulin pool?
    • A. 

      IgA

    • B. 

      IgD

    • C. 

      IgE

    • D. 

      IgG

    • E. 

      IgM

  • 99. 
    Which antibody class can fix complement?
    • A. 

      IgD

    • B. 

      IgA

    • C. 

      IgM

    • D. 

      IgY

    • E. 

      IgE

  • 100. 
    Antibodies found in mucus, saliva, and tears
    • A. 

      IgA

    • B. 

      IgD

    • C. 

      IgE

    • D. 

      IgG

    • E. 

      IgM

  • 101. 
    These large antibodies agglutinate antigens
    • A. 

      IgA

    • B. 

      IgD

    • C. 

      IgE

    • D. 

      IgG

    • E. 

      IgM

  • 102. 
    The antibodies produced in T independent responses are
    • A. 

      IgA

    • B. 

      IgD

    • C. 

      IgE

    • D. 

      IgG

    • E. 

      IgM

  • 103. 
    A doctor discovers that her patient can produce antibodies against some bacterial pathogens, but he is unable to protect himjself against viral infections. The doctor suspects a disorder in her patients:
    • A. 

      B cells

    • B. 

      Neutrophils

    • C. 

      Cytotoxic T cells

    • D. 

      Suppressor T cells

    • E. 

      Macrophages

  • 104. 
    Which of the following organs is most essential for proper immune maturation and functioning:
    • A. 

      Spleen

    • B. 

      Liver

    • C. 

      Thyroid

    • D. 

      Thymus

    • E. 

      Lymph nodes

  • 105. 
    Cytokines are:
    • A. 

      Hormone-like proteins that are used for communications between cells

    • B. 

      A form of cell adhesion molecule

    • C. 

      A type of ELISA analysis

    • D. 

      Haptens

    • E. 

      Anti-phagocytic compounds

  • 106. 
    T helper cells have their cell surface _______ which binds to _______ on APC
    • A. 

      CD8:MHC I

    • B. 

      CD4: MHC II

    • C. 

      Complement: mannose

    • D. 

      CD4: CD8

    • E. 

      T helper cells don't interact with APC

  • 107. 
    List the distinctive features of the following bacterium. Mycoplasma
  • 108. 
    List the distinctive features of the following bacterium. Mycobacterium
  • 109. 
    List the distinctive features of the following bacterium. Agrobacterium:
  • 110. 
    List the distinctive features of the following bacterium. Clostridium
  • 111. 
    List the distinctive features of the following bacterium. Rickettsa
  • 112. 
    List the distinctive features of the following bacterium. Chlymidia
  • 113. 
    Specify the major ecological roles of the following: Algae
  • 114. 
    Specify the major ecological roles of the following: Fungi
  • 115. 
    Specify the major ecological roles of the following: lichens
  • 116. 
    Two major phagocytic cells are ___________ and ________
  • 117. 
    Administration of immune serum globulin is a form of ______ immunization that _____
    • A. 

      Active, prevents exposure

    • B. 

      Passive, prevents infection

    • C. 

      Artificial, stimulates antibody production

    • D. 

      Prophylactic, stimulates the immune system

    • E. 

      Secondary, stimulates neutrophils

  • 118. 
    When mixed together, antigen and antibody molecules will form a visible precipitate if they:
    • A. 

      Neutralize viruses

    • B. 

      Include IgE antibodies

    • C. 

      Attract phagocytes

    • D. 

      Stimulate cytokine production

    • E. 

      Interact to form a cross-linked lattice structure

  • 119. 
    In tissue typing, if human cells expressing an unknown HLA are mixed with anti-HLA-A3 antibodies, complement, and trypan blue, how do you know if the cells have the HLA-A3?
    • A. 

      A hydridoma cell is formed

    • B. 

      Complement is inactivated

    • C. 

      Trypan blue enters the cell

    • D. 

      Antibody doesn't bind to the cells

    • E. 

      None of the above; the T cells are missing

  • 120. 
    In monoclona antibody production, the cell type that is grown in culture that produces the monoclonal antibodies are the:
    • A. 

      T cells

    • B. 

      Myeloma cells

    • C. 

      Hybridomas

    • D. 

      Spleen cells

    • E. 

      Macrophages

  • 121. 
    An attenuated vaccine is composed of
    • A. 

      Killed microorganisms

    • B. 

      Living, weakened microorganisms

    • C. 

      Inactivated bacterial toxins

    • D. 

      Purified macromolecules

    • E. 

      Recombinant vectors

  • 122. 
    In doing the usual complement fixation test to test for the presence of antibodies against a given antigen, at the conclusion of teh complement fixation test, the technician observes whether
    • A. 

      Red blood cells undergo lysis

    • B. 

      Precipitates of toxin form

    • C. 

      Phagocytosis increases in rate

    • D. 

      Lymph nodes of the patient swell

    • E. 

      Animals live or die

  • 123. 
    Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes a "western" from a "southern" blot
    • A. 

      Southern, protein is bound to the filter; western, RNA is bound to the filter

    • B. 

      Western, protein is bound to the filter; Southern, RNA bound to the filter

    • C. 

      Southern, DNA bound to filter; western: protein bound to filter

    • D. 

      Southern, protein bound to filter; western, DNA bound to filter

    • E. 

      Southern, DNA bound to filter; Western, RNA bound to filter

  • 124. 
    Desensitization to an allergen involves injection of the allergen beneath the skin to induce production of which of the following immunoglobulins.
    • A. 

      IgA

    • B. 

      IgD

    • C. 

      IgE

    • D. 

      IgG

    • E. 

      IgM

  • 125. 
    Organ transplants such as kidney transplants
    • A. 

      Are only in the experimental stages

    • B. 

      Work best if the donor and recipient are not related

    • C. 

      Are more likely to be successful if the MHC match

    • D. 

      Can only be done between identical twins

    • E. 

      Can be done from any person without any problems

  • 126. 
    Rheumatoid arthritis is an ________ that affects the _______.
    • A. 

      Immunodeficiency: muscles

    • B. 

      Autoimmune disease: nerves

    • C. 

      Allergy: cartilage

    • D. 

      Autoimmune disease: joints

  • 127. 
    HIV infections usually determined by
    • A. 

      Viral isolation

    • B. 

      Viral culture

    • C. 

      Viral reverse transcriptate activity

    • D. 

      Viral antigens

    • E. 

      The presence of anti-HIV antibodies in the blood

  • 128. 
    Which of the following HIV-positive patients would be most likely to have a positive test result in the indirect ELISA?
    • A. 

      A patient first exposed to HIV yesterday

    • B. 

      A patient who was infected last week

    • C. 

      A patient who was infected six months ago and is feeling fine

    • D. 

      A and B

    • E. 

      A,B, and C

  • 129. 
    Infection with HIV will ultimately result in a depletion of 
    • A. 

      CD1+ cells

    • B. 

      CD2+ cells

    • C. 

      CD3+ cells

    • D. 

      CD4+ cells

    • E. 

      CD8+ cells

  • 130. 
    Co-receptors for HIV infection into cells are
    • A. 

      MHC receptors

    • B. 

      IL-1 receptors

    • C. 

      Complement receptors

    • D. 

      TCR receptors

    • E. 

      Chemokine receptors

  • 131. 
    _____ is a drug that inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis
    • A. 

      Tetracycline

    • B. 

      Sulfa drugs

    • C. 

      Rifampicin

    • D. 

      Penicillin

    • E. 

      Erythromycin

  • 132. 
    _____ is a drug that inhibits bacterial protein synthesis.
    • A. 

      Tetracycline

    • B. 

      Sulfa drugs

    • C. 

      Rifampicin

    • D. 

      Penicillin

    • E. 

      Cephalosporin

  • 133. 
    _______ is a drug that inhibits bacterial folic acid synthesis.
    • A. 

      Tetracycline

    • B. 

      Sulfa drugs

    • C. 

      Rifampicin

    • D. 

      Penicillin

    • E. 

      Erythromycin

  • 134. 
    Protozoan and helminth disease are difficult to treat because
    • A. 

      Their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells

    • B. 

      They replicate inside human cells

    • C. 

      They don't have ribosomes

    • D. 

      They don't reproduce

    • E. 

      They have more genes than bacteria

  • 135. 
    Use of antibiotics in animal feed leads to antibiotic-resistant bacteria because
    • A. 

      Bacteria from other animals replace those killed by the antibiotics

    • B. 

      The few surviving bacteria that are affected by the antibiotic develop immunity to the antibiotic, which they pass on to their progeny

    • C. 

      The antibiotics cause new mutations to occur in the surviving bacteria, which results in resistance to antibiotics

    • D. 

      The antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few that are naturally resistant live and reproduce and their progeny repopulate the host animal

    • E. 

      The antibiotics persist in soil and water

  • 136. 
    The first reported cases of penicillin-resistant Neisseria gonorrhoeae were U.S. military personnel stationed in the philippines. The resistant strain was traced to Vietnamese prostitues who were taking penicillin prophylactically. This fact illustrates the microbial concept that:
    • A. 

      Laws against prostitution should be better enforced

    • B. 

      Military personnel should also take penicillin prophylactically

    • C. 

      Overuse of antibiotics selects for antibiotic-resistant bacteria

    • D. 

      The penicillin used in Vietnam was defective

  • 137. 
    If a penicillin would be the drug of choice, what would the usual choice of treatment for a person who is allergic to penicillin?
    • A. 

      Methicillin

    • B. 

      Erythromycin

    • C. 

      Amoxicillin

    • D. 

      Isoniazid

    • E. 

      Ampicillin

  • 138. 
    An effective vaccine against the common cold does not appear feasible because:
    • A. 

      Rhinoviruses cannot be cultivated in cell culture

    • B. 

      Rhinoviruses cannot be attenuated for safe use

    • C. 

      There is no immunity to rhinoviruses

    • D. 

      There are over 100 different rhinoviruses

  • 139. 
    The major causative agent of traveler's diarrhea is
    • A. 

      Listeria

    • B. 

      Shigella

    • C. 

      Salmonella

    • D. 

      Staphylococcus

    • E. 

      Escherichia

  • 140. 
    Most cases of posttransfusion hepatitis are caused by
    • A. 

      Hepatitis A virus

    • B. 

      Hepatitis B virus

    • C. 

      Hepatitis C virus

    • D. 

      All of these

    • E. 

      None of these

  • 141. 
    A friend of yours who knows you are taking Microbiology has a GI infection caused by Salmonella. Before going to the doctor he asks you for the usual treatment. What would the correct response be?
    • A. 

      DPT vaccine

    • B. 

      Ampicillin

    • C. 

      Fluid and electrolytes

    • D. 

      Ampicillin and gentamicin

    • E. 

      All of these

  • 142. 
    Which of these is not caused by herpes virus?
    • A. 

      Chicken pox

    • B. 

      Shingles

    • C. 

      Fever blisters

    • D. 

      Hepatitis C

    • E. 

      None of these

  • 143. 
    The major cause of meningitis in children under two years of age is:
    • A. 

      STreptococcus pneumoniae

    • B. 

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • C. 

      Streptococcus pyogenes

    • D. 

      Haemophilus influenzae

    • E. 

      Yersinia pestis

  • 144. 
    Dr. Boyce comes in complaining of constant vomiting and diarrhea within the past three hours of eating reheated food. You have determined that she probably has food posioning. Which bacterium is most likely the cuase of her indigestion?
    • A. 

      Streptococcus pyogenes

    • B. 

      Neisseria gonorrhea

    • C. 

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • D. 

      Borrelia burgdoferi

    • E. 

      Clostridium difficile

  • 145. 
    Some strains of Staphylococcus aureus secrete leukocidins. Leukocidins function in:
    • A. 

      Digestion of mucous membranes

    • B. 

      Adherence

    • C. 

      Inactivation lysosomal enzymes

    • D. 

      Triggering release of water from host cells

    • E. 

      Killing white blood cells

  • 146. 
    A 15 year old girl was hospitalized with fever, lethargy, and rash. Gram-negative diplococci were cultured from her cerebrospinal fluid. Her symptoms were most likely cuased by
    • A. 

      A prion

    • B. 

      Clostridium tetani

    • C. 

      Mycobacterium leprae

    • D. 

      Neisseria meningitidis

    • E. 

      Lyssavirus

  • 147. 
    Specify the type of hypersensitivity: Localized anaphylaxis
  • 148. 
    Specify the type of hypersensitivity: Contact dermatitis
  • 149. 
    Specify the type of hypersensitivity: Due to immune complexes
  • 150. 
    Reaction to an incompatible blood transfusion
  • 151. 
    Specify the type of immunity this represents: immunity following vaccination with the Sabin vaccine for polio
  • 152. 
    Specify the type of immunity this represents: immunity following recovery after having chickenpox
  • 153. 
    Specify the type of immunity this represents: immunity following injection of RhoGAM to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn
  • 154. 
    Specify the type of immunity this represents: a babies immunity due to breast feeding
  • 155. 
    Usual cause of: Puerperal sepsis
  • 156. 
    Usual cause of: Subacute bacterial endocarditis
  • 157. 
    Usual cause of: Acute bacterial endocarditis
  • 158. 
    Usual cause of: Rheumatic fever
  • 159. 
    Considering bacteria responsible for many skin infections, answer the following: What bacteria are identified by a positive coagulase test?
  • 160. 
    Considering bacteria responsible for many skin infections, answer the following: What bacteria are characterized as gorup A beta-hemolytic?
  • 161. 
    If bacteria in the log phase of growht were transferred to fresh medium of exactly the same composition, which phase of a batch culture would not be observed in this new culture?
    • A. 

      Lag phase

    • B. 

      Stationary phase

    • C. 

      Log phase

    • D. 

      Death phase

  • 162. 
    A bacterial culture neters stationary phase because: 1) the cells are "tooling up" for rapid growth 2) toxic products of metabolism have accumulated 3) the energy source is being depleted 4) the cells have aged and old cells cease diving 5) it must synthesize new proteins before it can resume growth
    • A. 

      1,5

    • B. 

      2,4

    • C. 

      1,4

    • D. 

      2,3

    • E. 

      1,2

  • 163. 
    Microbe with a growth temperature optimum of about 40C are reffered to as
    • A. 

      Thermophiles

    • B. 

      Psychrophiles

    • C. 

      Mesophiles

    • D. 

      Iceoduric

    • E. 

      Xerophiles

  • 164. 
    The addition of which of the following would change a chemically defined medium inot a complex medium?
    • A. 

      .1 mg Biotin (a vitamin)

    • B. 

      1 g K2HP04

    • C. 

      2 g NH4NO3

    • D. 

      1.5 g Maltose

    • E. 

      3 g Yeast extract

  • 165. 
    Which of the following procedures is commonly used to isolate a pure culture of a bacterium from a mixture?
    • A. 

      Steaking

    • B. 

      Dilution plating

    • C. 

      Enrichment culture

    • D. 

      Membrane filtration technique

    • E. 

      None of these

  • 166. 
    Addition of salt to a culture medium only allows the salt-tolerant bacteria to grow. This is an example of a 
    • A. 

      Complex media

    • B. 

      Chemically defined media

    • C. 

      Autotrophic media

    • D. 

      Differential media

    • E. 

      Selective media

  • 167. 
    Thirty-six colonies grew in nutrient agar from 1.0 ml of sample withdrawn from a solution diluted to 1:10,000 in a standard plate count procedure. How many cells were in the original sample?
    • A. 

      360

    • B. 

      3600

    • C. 

      360,000

    • D. 

      1,800,000

    • E. 

      3,600,000

  • 168. 
    The term facultative anaerobe refers to an organism that
    • A. 

      Doesn't use oxygen but tolerates it

    • B. 

      Is killed by oxygen

    • C. 

      Uses oxygen when present or grows without oxygen when oxygen is absent

    • D. 

      Requires less oxygen than is present in air

    • E. 

      Prefers to grow without oxygen

  • 169. 
    Which of the following is best to sterilize heat labile (sensitive) solutions
    • A. 

      Incineration

    • B. 

      Autoclave

    • C. 

      Membrane filtration

    • D. 

      Lyophilization

    • E. 

      Pasteurization

  • 170. 
    The  reduction of the microbial population to levels that are considered safe by public health standars is called
    • A. 

      Antisepsis

    • B. 

      Sterilization

    • C. 

      Disinfection

    • D. 

      Sanitization

    • E. 

      Prosepsis

  • 171. 
    Nutrient agar is an example of a:
    • A. 

      Selective medium

    • B. 

      Synthetic medium

    • C. 

      Complex medium

    • D. 

      Tissue culture medium

  • 172. 
    You have been bothered by food spoilage in the crisper drawer of you rrefrigerator. Most likely the microbial culprit is a/an: 
    • A. 

      Psychrophile

    • B. 

      Mesophile

    • C. 

      Barophile

    • D. 

      Acidophile

    • E. 

      Thermophile

  • 173. 
    Preservation of foods by using salts and sugars works by
    • A. 

      Raising pH

    • B. 

      Depleting nutrients

    • C. 

      Lowering osmotic pressure

    • D. 

      Creating hypertonic environment

    • E. 

      Creating a hypotonic environment

  • 174. 
    Which of the following is bactericidal?
    • A. 

      Membrane filtration

    • B. 

      Ionizing radiation

    • C. 

      Freeze-drying

    • D. 

      Deep freezing

    • E. 

      All

  • 175. 
    Which of the following is a limitation of the autoclave
    • A. 

      It takes too long to sterilize

    • B. 

      It lacks the ability to inactivate viruses

    • C. 

      It lacks the ability to kill endospores

    • D. 

      It will destroy heat labile (sensitive) material

    • E. 

      It cannot be used with glassware

  • 176. 
    A(n)_____ is used to prevent infection by killing or inhibiting pathogen growth on skin
    • A. 

      Bacteriostatic agent

    • B. 

      Sterilant

    • C. 

      Sanitizer

    • D. 

      Disinfectant

    • E. 

      Antiseptic

  • 177. 
    If a population of 10^6 CFU/ml bacteria are treated such that a "D value reduction" occurs, ___CFU/ml remains
    • A. 

      10^7

    • B. 

      9x10^6

    • C. 

      10^5

    • D. 

      10

    • E. 

      None remaining

  • 178. 
    UV radiation woudl be an effective way to disinfect which of the following
    • A. 

      A sealed box of soil

    • B. 

      A paper-wrapped glass tube

    • C. 

      Contaminated hamburger

    • D. 

      A counter top

    • E. 

      All

  • 179. 
    DNA differs from RNA in that:
    • A. 

      RNA is composed of the sugar ribose

    • B. 

      RNA tends to be single stranded

    • C. 

      RNA contains the base uracil

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 180. 
    In an Hfr strain
    • A. 

      Lambda prophage directs transfer of chromosomal genes

    • B. 

      The plasmid involved in conjugation is replicated autonomously

    • C. 

      A high frequency of recombination is occuring because transposons are jumping between DNA molecures

    • D. 

      The F factor has integrated in o the chromosome

    • E. 

      The F factor is transferred first in conjugation

  • 181. 
    R plasmids are medically important because they
    • A. 

      Can transform eukaryotic cells into tumor cells

    • B. 

      Encode for enterotoxin production

    • C. 

      Convert non-pathogenic bacteria to pathogens

    • D. 

      Cause certain types of bacterial diseases

    • E. 

      Carry genes specifying resistance to certain antibiotics

  • 182. 
    If the normal wild type E. coli is able to synthesize the amino acid lysine, a strain of E. coli that requires lysine added to the medium growth is termed a/an
    • A. 

      Lysotroph

    • B. 

      Autotroph

    • C. 

      Prototype

    • D. 

      Auxotroph

    • E. 

      Prototroph

  • 183. 
    The ames test is a simple and cost-effective method to screen chemical agents that might be carcinogenic. The rationale behind the test is that
    • A. 

      Most carcinogenic agents are mutagenic

    • B. 

      Mutations in bacteria always result in auxotrophy

    • C. 

      The rate of spntaneous mutation in bacteria is much higher than in eukaryotic cells

    • D. 

      Bacteria are transfomred to tumor cells more easily than are eukaryotic cells

    • E. 

      Bacteria have no repair mechanisms to cope with alterations in their DNA

  • 184. 
    Another name for the three stop codons which aid in termination of translation is 
    • A. 

      Nonsense codons

    • B. 

      Missense codons

    • C. 

      Pause codons

    • D. 

      Sense codons

    • E. 

      Translatase codons

  • 185. 
    Most bacterial protein synthesis begin with the amino acid
    • A. 

      N-formylleucine

    • B. 

      N-formylmethionine

    • C. 

      N-formylserine

    • D. 

      Methionine

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 186. 
    The usual start codon is
    • A. 

      GUA

    • B. 

      UAA

    • C. 

      AUG

    • D. 

      UGA

    • E. 

      TATAAT

  • 187. 
    Which of the following is not a product of transcription
    • A. 

      RRNA

    • B. 

      MRNA

    • C. 

      A new strand of DNA

    • D. 

      TRNA

    • E. 

      All are products of transcription

  • 188. 
    The minimum number of nucleotide bases on a strand of DNA required to code for a polypetide consisting of 150 amino acids would be
    • A. 

      50

    • B. 

      150

    • C. 

      300

    • D. 

      450

    • E. 

      1500

  • 189. 
    In bacteria, what enzyme cleaves lactose to glucose and galactose?
    • A. 

      Lactose

    • B. 

      Glucose synthetase

    • C. 

      B-lactamase

    • D. 

      B-galactoside

    • E. 

      B-glucosidase

  • 190. 
    The corepressor of the Trp operon is
    • A. 

      TRNA Trp

    • B. 

      Tryptophan

    • C. 

      Tryptophanase

    • D. 

      Tryptophan attenuator

    • E. 

      CAMP

  • 191. 
    DNA molecules can be seperated on the basis of differences in size by:
    • A. 

      The Maxam-Gilbert procedure

    • B. 

      Spectroscopy

    • C. 

      Agrose gel electrophoresis

    • D. 

      The Sanger dideoxy procedure

    • E. 

      Restriction endonucleases

  • 192. 
    Agfrobacterium tunefaciens contains a plasmid that
    • A. 

      Is resistant to all restriction enzymes

    • B. 

      Induces conjugation in plants

    • C. 

      Is a vector for genetic engineering in plants

    • D. 

      Confers antibiotic resistance on a plant

    • E. 

      Is a useful cloning vector for human DNA

  • 193. 
    The reaction catalyzed by reverse transcriptase is
    • A. 

      MRNA to cDNA

    • B. 

      DNA to DNA

    • C. 

      DNA to mRNA

    • D. 

      MRNA to protein

  • 194. 
    Cell walls of Eukaryotes and Archaea microorganisms never contain
    • A. 

      Peptidoglycan

    • B. 

      Cellulose

    • C. 

      Chitin

    • D. 

      Eukaryotes and archaea don't have cell walls

  • 195. 
    In their membranes, Archaea have ether-linkages between glycerol and fatty acidds. The Bacteria have: 
    • A. 

      Ester linkages

    • B. 

      Both ether and ester linkages

    • C. 

      Ether-linkages

    • D. 

      Neither ether or ester linkages

  • 196. 
    What is being compared during DNA hybridization studies of two bacterias?
    • A. 

      Rate of DNA replication

    • B. 

      Mechanism of RNA synthesis from DNA

    • C. 

      Ratio of nitrogenous base to all bases

    • D. 

      Similarity of base sequences

    • E. 

      Nature of the 16S RNA component

  • 197. 
    What was one of the first and most useful microsopic tests for classifying bacteria that is still important today?
    • A. 

      Gram stain

    • B. 

      Flagella stains

    • C. 

      Simple stains

    • D. 

      Negative stain for capsule

    • E. 

      Metachromatic granule stain

  • 198. 
    Extensive sequential nucleotide analysis and analysis of rRNA has divided the living world into three domains called
    • A. 

      Bacteria, archaea and eukarya

    • B. 

      Prokarya, eukarya and animal

    • C. 

      Fungi, plants, and animals

    • D. 

      Archaea, eukarya and viruses

    • E. 

      Bacteria, archaea and cyanobacteria

  • 199. 
    Serological analysis for bacterial identification typically involves using
    • A. 

      Specific antibodies to the bacterial cell antigens

    • B. 

      Methods to identify cell enzymes

    • C. 

      Analysis of the appearance of colonies

    • D. 

      A microscope to determine cell morphology

    • E. 

      Determination of G+C base concentration

  • 200. 
    Considering the LAC operon in E. coli, for each of the following-indicate if the LAC operon would be "on" or "off" (answer: x, x)   a) mutant cell unable to produce cAMP; lactose present, glucose absent b) mutant cell with "strong" LAC promoter; lactose present, glucose present
  • 201. 
    Considering replication and transcription, write the enzyme with the step it catalyzes.  binds to promoter
  • 202. 
    Considering replication and transcription, write the enzyme with the step it catalyzes: joins Okazaki fragments made on lagging strand
  • 203. 
    Adds ribonucleotides to growing chain in synthesis of mRNA
  • 204. 
    Adds deoxyribonucleotides to growing chain