Mhafb CDC 2a051s Vol. 1 Maintenance Fundementals I

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Volume 1 URE Questions for 5 level CDCs


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (001) Your duty in maintenance is to ensure
    • A. 

      Assigned aircraft and equipment meet mission needs

    • B. 

      Wing maintenance meets quality assurance standards

    • C. 

      Aircraft repair is contracted to the appropriate agency

    • D. 

      You take appropriate shortcuts to expedite repair time

  • 2. 
    (001) The primary focus of the maintenance effort should be
    • A. 

      Corrective maintenace

    • B. 

      Preventative maintenace

    • C. 

      Maximum sorties flown

    • D. 

      Thorough documentation

  • 3. 
    (001) What are the two basic types of maintenace?
    • A. 

      Back shop and flight line

    • B. 

      Scheduled and unscheduled

    • C. 

      On-equipment and off-equipment

    • D. 

      Depot-level and intermediate level

  • 4. 
    (002) What are the three maintenace levels?
    • A. 

      Depot, intermediate, and organizational

    • B. 

      Organizational, contract, and condemned

    • C. 

      On-equipment, off-equipment, and intermediate

    • D. 

      Depot, contract, and not reparable this station (NRTS)

  • 5. 
    (002) Which level of maintenace involves repairing or replacing component parts in the back shop?
    • A. 

      Depot

    • B. 

      Intermediate

    • C. 

      Organizational

    • D. 

      Developmental

  • 6. 
    (002) Depot-level maintenance is performed when equipment
    • A. 

      Is under warranty

    • B. 

      Is assigned to transient aircraft

    • C. 

      Is deployed to a remote location

    • D. 

      Cannot be repaired by other levels

  • 7. 
    (003) The group commander monitors the assignment and use of maintenace personnel to ensure
    • A. 

      Personnel and equipment are identified and prepared to meet deployment taskings

    • B. 

      Timely accomplishment of delayed discrepancies and pilot-reported discrepancies

    • C. 

      The appropriate appointment of squadron production supervisors

    • D. 

      Equitable distribution of skilled people among the squadrons

  • 8. 
    (003) Who is responsible for ensuring compliance with the wing Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) program?
    • A. 

      Wing commander

    • B. 

      Squadron commander

    • C. 

      Propulsion flight chief

    • D. 

      Maintenance superintendent

  • 9. 
    (003) Who is responsible to the squadron commander for maintenance production?
    • A. 

      Maintenance group commander

    • B. 

      Maintenance flight chief

    • C. 

      Maintenance supervisor

    • D. 

      Avionics flight chief

  • 10. 
    (003) Besides leaves, military training, and details, what must the flight chief manage to minimize work force degredation?
    • A. 

      Deployment taskings

    • B. 

      Reports to sick call

    • C. 

      Additional duties

    • D. 

      Exercise plans

  • 11. 
    (003) The first-line manager and supervisor of maintenance production is the
    • A. 

      Section chief

    • B. 

      Flight commander

    • C. 

      Squadron commander

    • D. 

      Maintenance superintendent

  • 12. 
    (004) Aircraft on-equipment maintenance is performed by the
    • A. 

      Aircraft maintenance squadron only

    • B. 

      Maintenance operations squadron only

    • C. 

      Aircraft maintenance squadron and maintenance squadron

    • D. 

      Maintenance operations squadron and maintenance squadron

  • 13. 
    (004) Which maintenance squadron is responsible for servicing, maintaining, launching, and recovering assigned aircraft?
    • A. 

      Maintenance operations squadron (MOS)

    • B. 

      Aircraft maintenance squadron (AMXS)

    • C. 

      Mission support squadron (MSS)

    • D. 

      Maintenance squadron (MXS)

  • 14. 
    (004) Quality maintenance is the responsibility of maintenance technicians, supervisors, and commanders, who work in concert with
    • A. 

      Maintenance training

    • B. 

      Quality assurance

    • C. 

      Resources

    • D. 

      Egress

  • 15. 
    (005) Which urgency justification code (UJC) is used to order a part for a piece of aerospace ground equipment?
    • A. 

      AA

    • B. 

      AG

    • C. 

      AR

    • D. 

      AZ

  • 16. 
    (005) What is created when a requirement is placed on supply and insufficient assets are on hand to satisfy the request?
    • A. 

      Memo

    • B. 

      Due-in

    • C. 

      Due-out

    • D. 

      Due-out release

  • 17. 
    (005) Although supply customers may cancel an obligated memo due-out at any time, when is the customer not granted credit for the quantity cancelled?
    • A. 

      When the due-out is under due-in from maintenancce (DIFM) control and part of the quantity is needed

    • B. 

      When the due-out is under DIFM control and the entire quantity is no longer needed

    • C. 

      If the due-out has an expendability, recoverability, reparability code (ERRC) of XF

    • D. 

      If the due-out was obligated in a prior fiscal year (FY)

  • 18. 
    (006) Which form is used to request a local purchase item?
    • A. 

      AF Form 2005

    • B. 

      DD Form 1348-1

    • C. 

      DD Form 1348-6

    • D. 

      DD Form 1348-1A

  • 19. 
    (006) What does the mark-for field on the AF Form 2005 identify?
    • A. 

      End item

    • B. 

      One-time requests

    • C. 

      Major command (MAJCOM)

    • D. 

      Standard reporting designator (SRD) code

  • 20. 
    (006) Which of the following should you be able to do?
    • A. 

      Direct supply personnel in the off-loading of large or bulky material you have ordered

    • B. 

      Assign a temporary national stock number to an item that does not have one listed

    • C. 

      Assign a serial number to an item request you have initiated with supply

    • D. 

      Refuse to accept an item from supply

  • 21. 
    (007) The purpose of a defiency report (DR) is to
    • A. 

      Report and resolve deficiencies in test equipment received from the manufacturer

    • B. 

      Identify and resolve deficiencies in materials received from the manufacturer

    • C. 

      Identify, report, and resolve deficiencies in materials received from supply

    • D. 

      Report deficiencies in test equipment received from supply

  • 22. 
    (007) The responsibility for preparing a draft deficiency report (DR) rests with the
    • A. 

      Originator

    • B. 

      Single manager

    • C. 

      Personnel in the support point

    • D. 

      Personnel in quality assurance (QA)

  • 23. 
    (007) When is the due-in from maintenance (DIFM) clock stopped on a deficiency report (DR) exhibit?
    • A. 

      When the exhibit, tags and a copy of the draft DR are turned in to the designated action point

    • B. 

      When the exhibit, tags and a copy of the draft DR are turned in to supply

    • C. 

      The DIFM clock is never started on DR exhibits

    • D. 

      As soon as the DR is initiated

  • 24. 
    (008) How does supply know if an item is under warranty?
    • A. 

      A copy of the warranty document is attached to the item

    • B. 

      Warranty items are not processed through supply

    • C. 

      You put the words "WARRANTY ITEM" in block 15 of the DD Form 1577-2

    • D. 

      You put the words "WARRANTY ITEM" in block 15 of the AFTO Form 350

  • 25. 
    (008) Processing of a warranty action is at the discretion of the
    • A. 

      Element chief

    • B. 

      Squadron commander

    • C. 

      Personnel in the local contracting office

    • D. 

      Personnel in the local quality assurance (QA) office

  • 26. 
    (009) Which term is not an Air Force inspection concept?
    • A. 

      Periodic

    • B. 

      Phased

    • C. 

      Isochronal

    • D. 

      Preflight

  • 27. 
    (009) The program depot maintenance inspection concept applies to
    • A. 

      Transport aircraft

    • B. 

      Strategic aircraft

    • C. 

      Tactical aircraft

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 28. 
    (009) Which type of inspection is performed before resuming flying activity after the aircraft has been inactive for a specified period of time?
    • A. 

      Phased

    • B. 

      Preflight

    • C. 

      End-of-runway

    • D. 

      Basic postflight

  • 29. 
    (009) Which type of inspection combines the hourly postflight inspections and periodic inspection requirement?
    • A. 

      Minor

    • B. 

      Major

    • C. 

      Phase

    • D. 

      Periodic

  • 30. 
    (009) Which type of inspection is designed to reuce the time an aircraft is out of commission for any given inspection?
    • A. 

      Major

    • B. 

      Phase

    • C. 

      Preflight

    • D. 

      Hourly postflight

  • 31. 
    (010) The two best ways to prevent corrosion in a test station or a line replaceable unit (LRU) are
    • A. 

      Cleaning and scouring

    • B. 

      Painting and cleaning

    • C. 

      Painting and lubricating

    • D. 

      Cleaning and lubricating

  • 32. 
    (010) Which statement is not true concerning lubrication of your test station?
    • A. 

      Prevents failure due to wear

    • B. 

      Prevents the accumulation of dust and dirt

    • C. 

      Reduces the friction between two sliding surfaces

    • D. 

      Is done less frequently than cleaning and corrosion control

  • 33. 
    (011) Air Force policy directives are orders of the
    • A. 

      Commander-in-Chief

    • B. 

      Squadron Commander

    • C. 

      Joint Services Committee

    • D. 

      Secretary of the Air Force

  • 34. 
    (011) Which type of publication is used by a unit to standardize local maintenance or safety procedures when they are not specified in an Air Force instruction or supplement?
    • A. 

      Air Force manual

    • B. 

      Operating instruction

    • C. 

      Air Force policy directive

    • D. 

      Air Force doctrine document

  • 35. 
    (012) Which is a publication of compiled information, arranged in systematic order?
    • A. 

      Pamphlet

    • B. 

      Directory

    • C. 

      Handbook

    • D. 

      Visual Aid

  • 36. 
    (012) What type of publication is a graphical illustration that may be permanent or temporary?
    • A. 

      Bulletin

    • B. 

      Pamphlet

    • C. 

      Visual Aid

    • D. 

      Recurring Publication

  • 37. 
    (013) Which type of technical order (TO) is an excerpt from one or more basic technical orders (TO), and organizes or simplifies instruction?
    • A. 

      Index

    • B. 

      General

    • C. 

      Abbreviated

    • D. 

      Time compliance

  • 38. 
    (013) What type of technical order (TO) update is issued when only small parts of the TO are affected?
    • A. 

      Change

    • B. 

      Revision

    • C. 

      Supplement

    • D. 

      Rescission

  • 39. 
    (013) What type of technical order (TO) update is ussued when changed material affects more than 80 percent of the text?
    • A. 

      Change

    • B. 

      Revision

    • C. 

      Rescission

    • D. 

      Supplement

  • 40. 
    (014) What technical orders (TO) give general information and instructions in various subject areas for supervisory and administration personnel?
    • A. 

      General

    • B. 

      Preliminary

    • C. 

      Abbreviated

    • D. 

      Methods and procedures

  • 41. 
    (014) What identifier at the beginning of a technical order (TO) number indicates that it is a methods and procedures technical order?
    • A. 

      00

    • B. 

      0A

    • C. 

      A0

    • D. 

      AA

  • 42. 
    (015) What type of time compliance technical order (TCTO) is used to correct conditions that could result in a fatal or serious injury to personnel, or extensive damage or destruction to valuable property?
    • A. 

      Immediate action

    • B. 

      Routine action

    • C. 

      Interim action

    • D. 

      Urgent action

  • 43. 
    (015) In addition to printing the words "Immediate Action" in red, how is an immediate action time compliance technical order (TCTO) identified on the first page?
    • A. 

      Red diagonals (/) at only the top and bottom of the page

    • B. 

      Red diagonals (/) around the entired border of the page

    • C. 

      Red Xs at only the top and bottom of the page

    • D. 

      Red Xs around the entire border of the page

  • 44. 
    (015) In addition to printing the words "Urgent Action" in red, what is used to identify an urgent action time compliance technical order (TCTO) on the first page?
    • A. 

      Red Xs only

    • B. 

      Red diagonals only

    • C. 

      Red Xs alternately spaced with red diagonals

    • D. 

      Red Xs alternately spaced with circled red Xs

  • 45. 
    (016) In what part of a technical order (TO) do you find warnings and cautions defined?
    • A. 

      Glossary

    • B. 

      Safety Matrix

    • C. 

      Safety Summary

    • D. 

      Table of Contents

  • 46. 
    (016) The illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) assigns each part of the system or equipment item
    • A. 

      A figure and index

    • B. 

      A safety summary

    • C. 

      A supply designator

    • D. 

      To a list of illustrations

  • 47. 
    (016) Which column in an illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) table indicates how many of each part are needed to completely put a section back together?
    • A. 

      Description

    • B. 

      Part Number

    • C. 

      Units Per Assembly

    • D. 

      Figure and Index Number

  • 48. 
    (017) What must you do if you discover a condition requiring a technical order (TO) change?
    • A. 

      Notify your section chief

    • B. 

      Submit a recommended change

    • C. 

      Condemn the existing TO

    • D. 

      File a report with the quality assurance branch

  • 49. 
    (017) What gives you authority to correct a technical order (TO) deficiency or implement a change?
    • A. 

      The approved AFTO Form 22 from the technical content manager

    • B. 

      The approved AFTO Form 22 from the TO manager

    • C. 

      An e-mail approval message from the TO manager

    • D. 

      An official TO update

  • 50. 
    (017) The responsibility to ensure your recommended change is valid and warrants submittal rests with your
    • A. 

      Supervisor

    • B. 

      Commander

    • C. 

      Section chief

    • D. 

      Quality assurance inspector

  • 51. 
    (017) Technical order (TO) deficiencies such as word omissions are typographical errors that do not cause any misinterpretation that would affect mission accomplishment may be submitted as
    • A. 

      A minor correction

    • B. 

      A routine recommendation

    • C. 

      An urgent recommendation

    • D. 

      An emergency recommendation

  • 52. 
    (018) Which statement is true concerning all Air Force computer software?
    • A. 

      It's managed as automatic test equipment

    • B. 

      Software computer program indentification (CPIN) compendiums are revised twice yearly

    • C. 

      It's designated and managed as computer program configuration items (CPCI)

    • D. 

      Numerical index and requirement tables (NI&RT) provide the consolidated index of USAF embedded computer system (ECS) software within each major command

  • 53. 
    (018) How many major types of computer manuals are there?
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Three

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Five

  • 54. 
    (019) The Computer Program Identification Number (CPIN) Compendium 80-0-2 cross references CPINs and
    • A. 

      Stock numbers

    • B. 

      Technical orders

    • C. 

      Commercial manuals

    • D. 

      Equipment part numbers

  • 55. 
    (020) Which computer program identification number (CPIN) field indentifies the category and major function of the system or subsystem that the computer program configuration item (CPCI) was designed to operate, test, or support?
    • A. 

      First

    • B. 

      Second

    • C. 

      Third

    • D. 

      Fourth

  • 56. 
    (020) The third field position of a computer program identification number (CPIN) compendium number indicates
    • A. 

      The major system and subsystem

    • B. 

      Revision, baseline, and version

    • C. 

      The type of software and sequence number

    • D. 

      Supplemental information to use with the program

  • 57. 
    (021) Alpha code B in a computer program identification number (CPIN) compendium indicates what level of test software?
    • A. 

      Base

    • B. 

      Depot

    • C. 

      Field

    • D. 

      Intermediate

  • 58. 
    (022) The major functions of the maintenance data documentation (MDD) system are collection,
    • A. 

      And analysis of maintenance information

    • B. 

      And retrieval of maintenance information

    • C. 

      Storage, and analysis of maintenance information

    • D. 

      Storage, and retrieval of maintenance information

  • 59. 
    (022) What technical order (TO) governs the maintenance data documentation (MDD) system?
    • A. 

      00-20-1

    • B. 

      00-20-2

    • C. 

      00-20-21

    • D. 

      00-20-23

  • 60. 
    (022) Why is maintenance data documentation (MDD) important at your base?
    • A. 

      It provides the means for managing assigned equipment resources and planning and scheduling maintenance

    • B. 

      It is used to determine time compliance technical order (TCTO) kit distribution requirements and rescission dates

    • C. 

      It provides a means for evaluating the effectiveness of modifications to AF equipment

    • D. 

      IT is used to evaluate compliance with warranty programs

  • 61. 
    (022) The maintenance data documentation (MDD) process divides the documentation of production data into how many categories?
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Three

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Five

  • 62. 
    (023) Which maintenance data documentation (MDD) code provides a means to tie together all maintenance actions taken relating to a specific job?
    • A. 

      Indentification number

    • B. 

      Job control number

    • C. 

      Maintenance code

    • D. 

      Work unit code

  • 63. 
    (024) What form is used to document maintenance data documentation (MDD) information for units that do not have access to the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?
    • A. 

      95

    • B. 

      244

    • C. 

      349

    • D. 

      350

  • 64. 
    (024) What form is used to provide an interface between on and off-equipment documentation?
    • A. 

      95

    • B. 

      244

    • C. 

      349

    • D. 

      350

  • 65. 
    (025) The equipment status symbol used to indicate that a scheduled inspection is overdue is the red
    • A. 

      X

    • B. 

      Dash

    • C. 

      Diagonal slash

    • D. 

      X in a circle

  • 66. 
    (025) Which equipment red status symbol indicates that an unsatisfactory condition exists but is not sufficiently dangerous enough to warrant discontinuing use of the equipment?
    • A. 

      X

    • B. 

      Dash

    • C. 

      Diagonal slash

    • D. 

      X in a circle

  • 67. 
    (026) Which Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) subsystem provides management products to aid the user in forecasting inspection requirements?
    • A. 

      Inquiries

    • B. 

      Data collection

    • C. 

      Maintenance events

    • D. 

      Automated Test Equipment Reporting System

  • 68. 
    (026) Which type of information shoudl not be entered in the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?
    • A. 

      Personnel

    • B. 

      Classified

    • C. 

      Privacy Act

    • D. 

      For Official Use Only

  • 69. 
    (026) Long-term difficulties (i.e., supply shortages, ineffective contracts, and insufficient inventories) are the result of
    • A. 

      Unsafe maintenance practices

    • B. 

      Poor maintenance supervisors

    • C. 

      Lack of operations and maintenance funds

    • D. 

      Bad information provided to the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)

  • 70. 
    (027) Which type of maintenance is predictable and planned on a long- or short-term schedule?
    • A. 

      Deferred

    • B. 

      Scheduled

    • C. 

      Indirect labor

    • D. 

      Unscheduled

  • 71. 
    (027) To report, control, and identify each maintenance action, the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) uses
    • A. 

      An event number

    • B. 

      A work unit code (WUC)

    • C. 

      A work center event (WCE)

    • D. 

      A job control number (JCN)

  • 72. 
    (027) Which Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) screen might your production supervisor use at the beginning of a shift to assign jobs to personnel?
    • A. 

      54, event maintenance

    • B. 

      122, maintenance data snapshot

    • C. 

      380, documented maintenance inquiry

    • D. 

      907, job data documentation utilities

  • 73. 
    (027) When you order a part through the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS), what does it mean to get a KILL notice?
    • A. 

      The part is not available; you must backorder it

    • B. 

      The part is no longer carried in the supply inventory

    • C. 

      Parts delivery is delayed due to supply personnel casualties

    • D. 

      The IMDS system is down; you must re-input your last order

  • 74. 
    (028) Who is required by Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-301 to provide specialized training, fire protection, and health on-the-job training (OJT) to all assigned Air Force personnel?
    • A. 

      Supervisor

    • B. 

      Commander

    • C. 

      Element chief

    • D. 

      Production superintendent

  • 75. 
    (028) What Air Force form is used to document safety, fire protection, and health training unless otherwise specified?
    • A. 

      22

    • B. 

      55

    • C. 

      988

    • D. 

      1000

  • 76. 
    (028) Why should you keep your Air Force Form 55 after you separate or retire from the Air Force?
    • A. 

      It identifies the hazards you have been exposed to during your Air Force career

    • B. 

      It shows the type of work environment you are trained to operate in

    • C. 

      It proves your compliance with work area safety requirements

    • D. 

      It documents the level of safety training you have completed

  • 77. 
    (029) We prevent or reduce the severity of personal injuries and property damage in the work area by
    • A. 

      Identifying and eliminating unsafe acts of workers and unsafe conditions in the work area

    • B. 

      Assisting the unit safety monitor in completeing quarterly work area safety assessments

    • C. 

      Completing and documenting the proper safety training on everyone's AF Form 55

    • D. 

      Following the guidelines in AFI 91-301, Attachment 5

  • 78. 
    (029) Controlling of exposures to airborne chemical concentrations nearly all Air Force personnel may be exposed to throughout their careers is covered by Air Force Occupation and Environmental Safety, Fire Protection, and Health (AFOSH) Standard (STD)
    • A. 

      48-8

    • B. 

      48-9

    • C. 

      48-10

    • D. 

      48-19

  • 79. 
    (030) You can find the methods prescribed for the use and care of hand tools by referring to technical order (TO)
    • A. 

      00-25-195

    • B. 

      00-25-234

    • C. 

      32-1-101

    • D. 

      33-1-2

  • 80. 
    (030) Regarding your toolbox, how can you improve your efficiency in performing a job?
    • A. 

      Color code tools so they match the tool box they were taken from and can be returned easily

    • B. 

      Only place tools that are being used for the job on the equipment, not the entire toolbox

    • C. 

      Ensure the toolbox is large enough to contain every tool you might need for the job

    • D. 

      Organize your tools so those used most frequently can be reached easily

  • 81. 
    (031) What is the recommended color coding for an electrical safety board?
    • A. 

      Dark green background with white letters and border

    • B. 

      White background with dark green letters and border

    • C. 

      Dark green background with red letters and border

    • D. 

      White background with red letters and border

  • 82. 
    (032) What should you do with a compressed gas cylinder containing 25 pounds per square inch (psi) or less?
    • A. 

      Mark the cylinder with the letters "MT", close the valve, and secure the protective cap

    • B. 

      Place the unservicable tag on the cylinder and move it away from the other cylinders

    • C. 

      Open the volve and secure the cylinder valve protective cap

    • D. 

      Open the valve and move it away from the other cylinders

  • 83. 
    (033) As part of the Radio Frequency Radiation (RFR) Safety Program, who must ensure required warning signed and safety devices are in place and functional prior to beginning work?
    • A. 

      Individual

    • B. 

      Supervisor

    • C. 

      Squadron safety officer

    • D. 

      Bioenvironmental engineer (BEE)

  • 84. 
    (034) When extremely high noise levels are present and earmuffs do not reduce the noise to an acceptable level, you should use
    • A. 

      Custom molded earplugs

    • B. 

      Earmuffs and earplugs

    • C. 

      Two pairs of earplugs

    • D. 

      Premolded earplugs

  • 85. 
    (035) What Air Force Instruction (AFI) gives instructions on the acquisition, storage, and disposal or radioactive materials?
    • A. 

      40-201

    • B. 

      42-205

    • C. 

      44-161

    • D. 

      46-234

  • 86. 
    (035) What is a responsibility of the radiation safety officer (RSO)?
    • A. 

      Get a permit authorizing the materials

    • B. 

      Adhere to the as-low-as-reasonably-possible principle

    • C. 

      Set up a program to ensure all personnel that may come in contact with radioactive materials get training

    • D. 

      Check the receipt, storage, distribution, use, transfer, and disposal of radioactive materials for compliance with approved rules

  • 87. 
    (036) Lever-operated hoists must only be used in
    • A. 

      A direct pull

    • B. 

      An indirect pull

    • C. 

      A dead-end pull

    • D. 

      A no-load condition

  • 88. 
    (036) Hoists must be attached to
    • A. 

      Well-defined dead-end points capable of handling the load

    • B. 

      Lifeline attach points designed for hoists

    • C. 

      Load-tested attach points

    • D. 

      A free standing A-frame

  • 89. 
    (037) What is the basis for a laser hazard classification?
    • A. 

      The possibility of eye and skin exposure to hazardous levels of laser radiation associated with the operation of laser devices during maintenance

    • B. 

      The ability of the primary laser beam or reflected primary laser beam to cause biological damage to the eye or skin during intended use

    • C. 

      The minimum laser radiation required to cause biological damage to eye or skin during operation and maintenance

    • D. 

      The classification relates specifically to hazardous laser radiation and to associated hazards during maintenance

  • 90. 
    (038) For how long can a visit request remain valid?
    • A. 

      1 year

    • B. 

      2 years

    • C. 

      90 days

    • D. 

      180 days

  • 91. 
    (038) What should you do if you inadvertently E-mail classified information over an unclassified system?
    • A. 

      Notify your security manager immediatly

    • B. 

      Call the recipient(s) to ensure it gets deleted

    • C. 

      Delete it from your "sent mail" and reboot your computer

    • D. 

      Notify your computer manager to re-format the hard drive

  • 92. 
    (039) What are the three classification levels?
    • A. 

      Classified, Secret, and Top Secret

    • B. 

      Secret, Top Secret, and eyes only

    • C. 

      Confidential, Secret, and Top Secret

    • D. 

      Classified, Top Secret, and eyes only

  • 93. 
    (039) Classified working papers must be treated like a finished document when they are retained
    • A. 

      More than 90 days, or when released outside the activity

    • B. 

      More than 180 days, or when released outside the activity

    • C. 

      At least one year, and are not released outside the activity

    • D. 

      Any length of time, as long as they are not released outside the activity

  • 94. 
    (040) What is your best resource to determine the degree of protection necessary to safeguard classified information for a specific system?
    • A. 

      Unit security manager

    • B. 

      System technical order (TO)

    • C. 

      Illustrated parts breakdown (IPB)

    • D. 

      Security classification guide

  • 95. 
    (040) Turn-in of a classified asset must be
    • A. 

      Processed with your "SMART" card

    • B. 

      Logged in with your security manager

    • C. 

      Received only by authorized personnel

    • D. 

      Annotated in the security classification guide