Medical Terminology Quiz Questions And Answers

150 Questions | Total Attempts: 253

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Medical Terminology Quizzes & Trivia

Medical Terminology


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    A boil is best described as
    • A. 

      Ichthyosis

    • B. 

      Acne vulgaris

    • C. 

      Keloids

    • D. 

      Furuncle

    • E. 

      Clavus

  • 2. 
    A pustule is best described as a
    • A. 

      Bruise

    • B. 

      Pimple

    • C. 

      Corn

    • D. 

      small spot

    • E. 

      Boil

  • 3. 
    Through the skin is referred to as
    • A. 

      Subcutaneous

    • B. 

      Intradermal

    • C. 

      Subdermal

    • D. 

      Epidermal

    • E. 

      Percutaneous

  • 4. 
    A red spot from a bite from a flea would be called a
    • A. 

      Scab

    • B. 

      Verruca

    • C. 

      Petechiae

    • D. 

      Keloid

    • E. 

      Eczema

  • 5. 
    The medical term for infection around the nail is
    • A. 

      Bulla

    • B. 

      Onychocryptosis

    • C. 

      Scabies

    • D. 

      Paronychia

    • E. 

      Onychonmycosis

  • 6. 
    Necrosis of tissue causes this condition
    • A. 

      Clavus

    • B. 

      Impetigo

    • C. 

      Abscesses

    • D. 

      Kaposi sarcoma

    • E. 

      Gangrene

  • 7. 
    Decubitus ulcers are best described as
    • A. 

      Keloids

    • B. 

      Kaposi sarcoma

    • C. 

      Abrasions

    • D. 

      Scabies

    • E. 

      Bed sores

  • 8. 
    The medical term for baldness is
    • A. 

      Eczema

    • B. 

      Alopecia

    • C. 

      Ichthyosis

    • D. 

      Hirsuitism

    • E. 

      Induration

  • 9. 
    The medical term xeroderma represents
    • A. 

      Alopecia

    • B. 

      Hidrorrhea

    • C. 

      Blue skin

    • D. 

      dry skin

    • E. 

      Pruritus

  • 10. 
    Congenital defects are described as
    • A. 

      Developing at a later age

    • B. 

      Corrected after detection

    • C. 

      all obvious

    • D. 

      All due to drugs

    • E. 

      Condition present at birth

  • 11. 
    Verruca is a medical term for
    • A. 

      Mole

    • B. 

      Scabies

    • C. 

      Hives

    • D. 

      Scab

    • E. 

      Wart

  • 12. 
    The medical term for athlete's foot is
    • A. 

      Keloid

    • B. 

      Scabies

    • C. 

      Pediculosis pubis

    • D. 

      Tinea pedis

    • E. 

      Trichomycosis

  • 13. 
    The growth plate of a bone is called
    • A. 

      Condyle

    • B. 

      Diaphysis

    • C. 

      Periosteum

    • D. 

      Endosteum

    • E. 

      Epiphysis

  • 14. 
    The term purpura would be described as
    • A. 

      Itching

    • B. 

      Prickly heat

    • C. 

      Pimple

    • D. 

      Bruise

    • E. 

      Pale

  • 15. 
    A medical term for scar is
    • A. 

      Cicatrix

    • B. 

      Keloid

    • C. 

      Petechiae

    • D. 

      Verruca

    • E. 

      Scab

  • 16. 
    The medical term for severe itching is
    • A. 

      Purpura

    • B. 

      Pruritus

    • C. 

      Hirsuitism

    • D. 

      Keloid

    • E. 

      Vitiligo

  • 17. 
    Abnormal lateral curve of the spine is called
    • A. 

      Ankylosis

    • B. 

      Kyphosis

    • C. 

      Scoliosis

    • D. 

      Lordosis

    • E. 

      Exostosis

  • 18. 
    Match the description with the fracture type: incomplete break, bone bends
    • A. 

      Compound

    • B. 

      Spiral

    • C. 

      Greenstick

    • D. 

      Comminuted

    • E. 

      Simple

  • 19. 
    Excessive sweating is called
    • A. 

      Hidradenitis

    • B. 

      Diaphoresis

    • C. 

      Rosacea

    • D. 

      Keloid

    • E. 

      Furuncle

  • 20. 
    Match the description with the fracture type: complete break with fragments
    • A. 

      Compound

    • B. 

      Spiral

    • C. 

      Greenstick

    • D. 

      Comminuted

    • E. 

      Simple

  • 21. 
    Match the description with the fracture type: excessive bone twisting
    • A. 

      Compound

    • B. 

      Spiral

    • C. 

      Greenstick

    • D. 

      Comminuted

    • E. 

      Simple

  • 22. 
    Abnormal hump of the thoracic spine or hunchback is referred to as
    • A. 

      Ankylosis

    • B. 

      Kyphosis

    • C. 

      Scoliosis

    • D. 

      Lordosis

    • E. 

      Exostosis

  • 23. 
    Forward curvature of the lumbar spine or abnormal condition of bending forward
    • A. 

      Ankylosis

    • B. 

      Kyphosis

    • C. 

      Scoliosis

    • D. 

      Lordosis

    • E. 

      Exostosis

  • 24. 
    Inflammation of the fluid filled cavity in the shoulder is called
    • A. 

      Osteoarthritis

    • B. 

      Hydrocele

    • C. 

      Bursitis

    • D. 

      Kyphosis

    • E. 

      Chondritis

  • 25. 
    A bone broken due to a disease process is called
    • A. 

      Transverse

    • B. 

      Colles'

    • C. 

      Pathologic

    • D. 

      Depressed

    • E. 

      Longitudinal

  • 26. 
    Ganglion
    • A. 

      Joint inflammation

    • B. 

      Surgical fixation of a joint

    • C. 

      Cancer of bone

    • D. 

      Nest of mass of nerve tissue

    • E. 

      Excess fingers

  • 27. 
    The shaft of a bone is called
    • A. 

      Epiphysis

    • B. 

      Diaphysis

    • C. 

      Periosteum

    • D. 

      Endosteum

    • E. 

      Condyle

  • 28. 
    Arthritis
    • A. 

      Joint inflammation

    • B. 

      surgical fixation of a joint

    • C. 

      Cancer of bone

    • D. 

      Nest of mass of nerve tissue

    • E. 

      Excess fingers

  • 29. 
    Match the description with the fracture type: broken bone, skin intact
    • A. 

      Compound

    • B. 

      Spiral

    • C. 

      Greenstick

    • D. 

      Comminuted

    • E. 

      Simple

  • 30. 
    Match the description with the fracture type: bone is exposed through skin
    • A. 

      Compound

    • B. 

      Spiral

    • C. 

      Greenstick

    • D. 

      Comminuted

    • E. 

      Simple

  • 31. 
    Softening of bone is called
    • A. 

      Osteosarcoma

    • B. 

      Osteomalacia

    • C. 

      Osteoblast

    • D. 

      Osteochondritis

    • E. 

      Osteocarcinoma

  • 32. 
    Pectus carinatum
    • A. 

      Pigeon chest

    • B. 

      Funnel or sunken chest

    • C. 

      Inflammation of the upper jaw

    • D. 

      Involvement of the lower jaw and skull

    • E. 

      Bulging vertebral disc

  • 33. 
    HNP
    • A. 

      Pigeon chest

    • B. 

      Funnel or sunken chest

    • C. 

      Inflammation of the upper jaw

    • D. 

      Involvement of the lower jaw and skull

    • E. 

      Bulging vertebral disc

  • 34. 
    Polydactylia
    • A. 

      Joint inflammation

    • B. 

      Surgical fixation of a joint

    • C. 

      Cancer of bone

    • D. 

      Nest of mass of nerve tissue

    • E. 

      Excess fingers

  • 35. 
    Abnormal enlargement of the joint at the base of the great toe is also known as
    • A. 

      Osteoporosis

    • B. 

      Osteitis deformans

    • C. 

      Bursitis

    • D. 

      Gout

    • E. 

      Bunion

  • 36. 
    Arthrodesis
    • A. 

      Joint inflammation

    • B. 

      Surgical fixation of a joint

    • C. 

      Cancer of bone

    • D. 

      Nest of mass of nerve tissue

    • E. 

      Excess fingers

  • 37. 
    Bunion
    • A. 

      Knee joint-sac involvement

    • B. 

      Fused toes

    • C. 

      Excessive uric acid in blood causing inflammation of the joint of the great toe

    • D. 

      Enlargement of the great toe joint commonly caused by poor fitting shoes

    • E. 

      Shoulder joint-sac involvement

  • 38. 
    TMJ
    • A. 

      Pigeon chest

    • B. 

      Funnel or sunken chest

    • C. 

      Inflammation of the upper jaw

    • D. 

      Involvement of the lower jaw and skull

    • E. 

      Bulging vertebral disc

  • 39. 
    Osteosarcoma
    • A. 

      Joint inflammation

    • B. 

      Surgical fixation of a joint

    • C. 

      Cancer of bone

    • D. 

      Nest of mass of nerve tissue

    • E. 

      Excess fingers

  • 40. 
    Prepatellar bursitis
    • A. 

      Knee joint-sac involvement

    • B. 

      Fused toes

    • C. 

      Excessive uric acid in blood causing inflammation of the joint of the great toe

    • D. 

      Enlargement of the great toe joint commonly caused by poor fitting shoes

    • E. 

      Shoulder joint-sac involvement

  • 41. 
    Gout
    • A. 

      Knee joint-sac involvement

    • B. 

      Fused toes

    • C. 

      Excessive uric acid in blood causing inflammation of the joint of the great toe

    • D. 

      Enlargement of the great toe joint commonly caused by poor fitting shoes

    • E. 

      Shoulder joint-sac involvement

  • 42. 
    Maxillitis
    • A. 

      Pigeon chest

    • B. 

      Funnel or sunken chest

    • C. 

      Inflammation of the upper jaw

    • D. 

      involvement of the lower jaw and skull

    • E. 

      Bulging vertebral disc

  • 43. 
    Pectus excavatum
    • A. 

      Pigeon chest

    • B. 

      Funnel or sunken chest

    • C. 

      inflammation of the upper jaw

    • D. 

      Involvement of the lower jaw and skull

    • E. 

      Bulging vertebral disc

  • 44. 
    Syndactylia
    • A. 

      Knee joint-sac involvement

    • B. 

      fused toes

    • C. 

      Excessive uric acid in blood causing inflammation of the joint of the great toe

    • D. 

      Enlargement of the great toe joint commonly caused by poor fitting shoes

    • E. 

      Shoulder joint-sac involvement

  • 45. 
    Subdeltoid bursitis
    • A. 

      Knee joint-sac involvement

    • B. 

      Fused toes

    • C. 

      Excessive uric acid in blood causing inflammation of the joint of the great toe

    • D. 

      Enlargement of the great toe joint commonly caused by poor fitting shoes

    • E. 

      Shoulder joint-sac involvement

  • 46. 
    The sphincter between the stomach and the duodenum is referred to as:
    • A. 

      Cardiac

    • B. 

      Anal

    • C. 

      Pylorus

    • D. 

      Gastric

    • E. 

      Rugae

  • 47. 
    Which one is the first part of the large intestine
    • A. 

      Cecum

    • B. 

      Rectum

    • C. 

      Ascending colon

    • D. 

      Descending colon

    • E. 

      Duodenum

  • 48. 
    Telescoping of the intestine is called
    • A. 

      Intussusception

    • B. 

      Hemorrhoids

    • C. 

      Diverticula

    • D. 

      Bulimia

    • E. 

      Volvulus

  • 49. 
    The region directly above the umbilicus on the abdomen is called
    • A. 

      LUQ

    • B. 

      Epigastrium

    • C. 

      Inguinal region

    • D. 

      Iliac region

    • E. 

      Hypogastrium

  • 50. 
    A tunnel that grows from the anus to another body part is called
    • A. 

      Atresia

    • B. 

      Anorexia

    • C. 

      Epulis

    • D. 

      Fistula

    • E. 

      Achalasia

  • 51. 
    A gastric resection is also referred to as a:
    • A. 

      Gastrotomy

    • B. 

      Gastrostomy

    • C. 

      Gastroectomy

    • D. 

      Gastroplasty

    • E. 

      Gastrorrhaphy

  • 52. 
    Suture of an injured tongue is called
    • A. 

      Glossorrhaphy

    • B. 

      Gingivoplasty

    • C. 

      Stomatoplasty

    • D. 

      Glossodesis

    • E. 

      Cheilorrhaphy

  • 53. 
    Name the first part of the small intestine
    • A. 

      Pylorus

    • B. 

      Cecum

    • C. 

      Duodenum

    • D. 

      Jejunum

    • E. 

      Ilium

  • 54. 
    Herniation of small intestine is calle
    • A. 

      Microiliac

    • B. 

      Colocele

    • C. 

      Enteroma

    • D. 

      Enterocele

    • E. 

      Enteroclysis

  • 55. 
    Swollen, twisted, varicose veins in the rectal region are called
    • A. 

      Diverticula

    • B. 

      Crohn's disease

    • C. 

      Volvulus

    • D. 

      Intussusception

    • E. 

      Hemorrhoids

  • 56. 
    Good digestion is meant by the term
    • A. 

      Dysphasia

    • B. 

      Eupepsia

    • C. 

      Dyspepsia

    • D. 

      Euphagia

    • E. 

      Euphasia

  • 57. 
    The pear shaped, sac-like organ which serves to store bile is the
    • A. 

      Pancreas

    • B. 

      Gallbladder

    • C. 

      Spleen

    • D. 

      Parotids

    • E. 

      Liver

  • 58. 
    Vomiting blood is called
    • A. 

      Uremia

    • B. 

      Hematemesis

    • C. 

      Hemoccult

    • D. 

      Hematuria

    • E. 

      Hyperemesis

  • 59. 
    The dumping syndrome may occur following
    • A. 

      Gastrectomy

    • B. 

      Pyloroplasty

    • C. 

      Vagotomy

    • D. 

      Gastrocele

    • E. 

      Gastroectasia

  • 60. 
    An EGD or esophagogastroduodenoscopy is an examination of all of these body parts expect
    • A. 

      Colon

    • B. 

      food tube

    • C. 

      first part of the small intestine

    • D. 

      Stomach

    • E. 

      Pylorus

  • 61. 
    Lack of a body opening of the stomach is called
    • A. 

      Stomatocele

    • B. 

      Gastrocele

    • C. 

      Gastroatresia

    • D. 

      Gastroclysis

  • 62. 
    Having vision that appears yellow tinted is called
    • A. 

      Xanthopsia

    • B. 

      Xanthoma

    • C. 

      Chloropsia

    • D. 

      Erythropsia

    • E. 

      Cyanopsia

  • 63. 
    Prolapse of the stomach is termed
    • A. 

      Gastrectomy

    • B. 

      Stomatoptosis

    • C. 

      Gastrorrhaphy

    • D. 

      Gastroptosis

    • E. 

      Stomatocele

  • 64. 
    An x-ray of the gallbladder duct(vessel) is called
    • A. 

      Cystogram

    • B. 

      Cholangiogram

    • C. 

      Cholecystogram

    • D. 

      Cholegram

    • E. 

      Cholecystograph

  • 65. 
    Rhythm-like movement of the muscles in the walls of the GI tract
    • A. 

      Rugae

    • B. 

      Deglutition

    • C. 

      Mastication

    • D. 

      Peristalsis

    • E. 

      Pylorospasm

  • 66. 
    The condition of icterus may also be called
    • A. 

      Plication

    • B. 

      Polyposis

    • C. 

      Ascites

    • D. 

      Vitiligo

    • E. 

      Jaundice

  • 67. 
    The parotid, sublingual and submaxillary glands are called the (?) glands
    • A. 

      Endocrine

    • B. 

      Parathyroid

    • C. 

      Cervical

    • D. 

      Axillary

    • E. 

      Salivary

  • 68. 
    A black or tarry stool is due to the presence of blood and is called
    • A. 

      Dysentery

    • B. 

      Hematuria

    • C. 

      Melena

    • D. 

      Ulcerative colitis

    • E. 

      Hematemesis

  • 69. 
    Inflammation of the mouth is called
    • A. 

      Glossitis

    • B. 

      Stomatitis

    • C. 

      Cheilitis

    • D. 

      Gingivitis

    • E. 

      Uvulitis

  • 70. 
    Cutting certain branches of the vagus nerve is called
    • A. 

      Vagostomy

    • B. 

      Vagectomy

    • C. 

      Vagotomy

    • D. 

      Vagopexy

    • E. 

      Vagorrhaphy

  • 71. 
    A tumorlike growth extending outward from a mucous membrane commonly found in the nose, throat and intestines is called
    • A. 

      Hernia

    • B. 

      Ulcer

    • C. 

      Polyp

    • D. 

      Fistula

    • E. 

      Ascites

  • 72. 
    Fungal disease of the mouth is termed:
    • A. 

      Pyrosis

    • B. 

      Tinea pectus

    • C. 

      Glossitis

    • D. 

      Stomatitis

    • E. 

      Thrush

  • 73. 
    Pain in the liver is referred to as
    • A. 

      Hepatitis

    • B. 

      Hepatalgia

    • C. 

      Hepatorrhea

    • D. 

      Renalgia

    • E. 

      HVC

  • 74. 
    Collection of air, gas or fluid within the abdominal cavity is called
    • A. 

      Ascites

    • B. 

      Ileus

    • C. 

      GERD

    • D. 

      Volvulus

    • E. 

      Pyrosis

  • 75. 
    Gallstones are best described as
    • A. 

      Cholecystitis

    • B. 

      Crohn's disease

    • C. 

      Cystolith

    • D. 

      Renolith

    • E. 

      Cholelithiasis

  • 76. 
    The removal of the uterus is called
    • A. 

      Salpingectomy

    • B. 

      Colpectomy

    • C. 

      Oophorectomy

    • D. 

      Hysterectomy

    • E. 

      Urethrectomy

  • 77. 
    Bleeding from the uterus not due to menses is termed
    • A. 

      Amenorrhea

    • B. 

      Metrorrhagia

    • C. 

      Menorrhea

    • D. 

      Menorrhagia

    • E. 

      Dysmenorrhea

  • 78. 
    Inflammation of the ovaries is called
    • A. 

      Colpitis

    • B. 

      Salpingitis

    • C. 

      Oophoritis

    • D. 

      Oophorocele

    • E. 

      Oophorectomy

  • 79. 
    Blood in the fallopian tubes is called:
    • A. 

      Hydrosalpinx

    • B. 

      Salpingocele

    • C. 

      Hydrouria

    • D. 

      Hematuria

    • E. 

      Hematosalpinx

  • 80. 
    The external female genital organ is the
    • A. 

      Perineum

    • B. 

      Vulva

    • C. 

      Hymen

    • D. 

      Vagina

    • E. 

      Cervix

  • 81. 
    The muscular wall of the uterus is the
    • A. 

      Endometrium

    • B. 

      Parametrium

    • C. 

      Myometrium

    • D. 

      Isthmus

    • E. 

      Perimetrium

  • 82. 
    Endometrial tissue occurring in various areas of the pelvic cavity is called
    • A. 

      Viseroptosis

    • B. 

      Endometritis

    • C. 

      Endometriosis

    • D. 

      Adenomyosis

    • E. 

      Hysteratresia

  • 83. 
    The female reproductive cell is the
    • A. 

      Luteum

    • B. 

      Oviduct

    • C. 

      Ovary

    • D. 

      Ovum

    • E. 

      Vulva

  • 84. 
    The space between the vulva and the anus is the
    • A. 

      Periodontal

    • B. 

      Perineurium

    • C. 

      Peritoneum

    • D. 

      Perineum

    • E. 

      Periosteum

  • 85. 
    Removal of the vulva is termed
    • A. 

      Vulvectomy

    • B. 

      Vulvostomy

    • C. 

      Vulvus

    • D. 

      Vulvotomy

    • E. 

      Volvo

  • 86. 
    Hernia of the bladder is called
    • A. 

      Cystolith

    • B. 

      Cystorrhagia

    • C. 

      Herniorrhaphy

    • D. 

      Blastocele

    • E. 

      Cystocele

  • 87. 
    A medical term for painful intercourse is
    • A. 

      Colpalgia

    • B. 

      Gynecophobia

    • C. 

      Cephalgia

    • D. 

      Dyspareunia

    • E. 

      Gynocopathy

  • 88. 
    Inflammation of the neck of the uterus is termed:
    • A. 

      Cervicitis

    • B. 

      Hysteritis

    • C. 

      Metritis

    • D. 

      Ureteritis

    • E. 

      Colpitis

  • 89. 
    Painful menstruation is known as:
    • A. 

      Metrorrhagia

    • B. 

      Menorrhagia

    • C. 

      Amenorrhea

    • D. 

      Dysmenorrhea

    • E. 

      Oligomenorrhea

  • 90. 
    Which of the following abbreviations indicates instrumental expansion of the cervix and scraping of the uterine cavity:
    • A. 

      PID

    • B. 

      IUD

    • C. 

      D&C

    • D. 

      CIS

    • E. 

      STD

  • 91. 
    Gland that encircles the upper end of the urethra
    • A. 

      Penis

    • B. 

      Seminiferous tubules

    • C. 

      Gonads

    • D. 

      Prostate

    • E. 

      Epididymis

  • 92. 
    Recycling center for damaged sperm
    • A. 

      Penis

    • B. 

      Seminiferous tubules

    • C. 

      Gonads

    • D. 

      Prostate

    • E. 

      Epididymis

  • 93. 
    Male organ of copulation and urination
    • A. 

      Penis

    • B. 

      Seminiferous tubules

    • C. 

      Gonads

    • D. 

      Prostate

    • E. 

      Epididymis

  • 94. 
    Location of sperm manufacturing
    • A. 

      Penis

    • B. 

      Seminiferous tubules

    • C. 

      Gonads

    • D. 

      Prostate

    • E. 

      Epididymis

  • 95. 
    Term for ovary or testis
    • A. 

      Penis

    • B. 

      Seminiferous tubules

    • C. 

      Gonads

    • D. 

      Prostate

    • E. 

      Epididymis

  • 96. 
    Fluid of the male reproductive organs that contain sperm
    • A. 

      Testicles

    • B. 

      Vas deferns

    • C. 

      Scrotum

    • D. 

      Semen

    • E. 

      Cowper glands

  • 97. 
    Oval shaped structures that form sperm cells and hormones
    • A. 

      Testicles

    • B. 

      Vas deferns

    • C. 

      Scrotum

    • D. 

      Semen

    • E. 

      Cowper glands

  • 98. 
    STD with painful ragged ulcers
    • A. 

      Chancroid

    • B. 

      Cryptorchidism

    • C. 

      Hydrocele

    • D. 

      Syphilis

    • E. 

      Castration

  • 99. 
    Also called the bulbourethral glands
    • A. 

      Testicles

    • B. 

      Vas deferns

    • C. 

      Scrotum

    • D. 

      Semen

    • E. 

      Cowper glands

  • 100. 
    Sac that helps regulate testicular temperature
    • A. 

      Testicles

    • B. 

      Vas deferns

    • C. 

      Scrotum

    • D. 

      Semen

    • E. 

      Cowper glands

  • 101. 
    Pair of ducts that carry sperm from the testes to the urethra
    • A. 

      Testicles

    • B. 

      Vas deferns

    • C. 

      Scrotum

    • D. 

      Semen

    • E. 

      Cowper glands

  • 102. 
    Serous fluid in the testis
    • A. 

      Chancroid

    • B. 

      Cryptorchidism

    • C. 

      Hydrocele

    • D. 

      Syphilis

    • E. 

      Castration

  • 103. 
    Orchiectomy
    • A. 

      Chancroid

    • B. 

      Cryptorchidism

    • C. 

      Hydrocele

    • D. 

      Syphilis

    • E. 

      Castration

  • 104. 
    Undescended testicles
    • A. 

      Chancroid

    • B. 

      Cryptorchidism

    • C. 

      Hydrocele

    • D. 

      Syphilis

    • E. 

      Castration

  • 105. 
    Lues
    • A. 

      Chancroid

    • B. 

      Cryptorchidism

    • C. 

      Hydrocele

    • D. 

      Syphilis

    • E. 

      Castration

  • 106. 
    Tube that carries air between the trachea and lungs
    • A. 

      Pleura

    • B. 

      Bronchi

    • C. 

      Larynx

    • D. 

      Pharynx

    • E. 

      Alveoli

  • 107. 
    Breathing sitting up
    • A. 

      Tachypnea

    • B. 

      Hypoxia

    • C. 

      Hemoptysis

    • D. 

      Orthopnea

    • E. 

      Epistaxis

  • 108. 
    Absence of oxygen in the blood
    • A. 

      Aphonia

    • B. 

      Acapnia

    • C. 

      Anoxemia

    • D. 

      Anoxia

    • E. 

      Apnea

  • 109. 
    Acts as food and air passageway
    • A. 

      Pleura

    • B. 

      Bronchi

    • C. 

      Larynx

    • D. 

      Pharynx

    • E. 

      Alveoli

  • 110. 
    Location of the vocal cords
    • A. 

      Pleura

    • B. 

      Bronchi

    • C. 

      Larynx

    • D. 

      Pharynx

    • E. 

      Alveoli

  • 111. 
    Air sacs at the end of the bronchioles
    • A. 

      Pleura

    • B. 

      Bronchi

    • C. 

      Larynx

    • D. 

      Pharynx

    • E. 

      Alveoli

  • 112. 
    Membrane covering lungs
    • A. 

      Pleura

    • B. 

      Bronchi

    • C. 

      Larynx

    • D. 

      Pharynx

    • E. 

      Alveoli

  • 113. 
    Low oxygen level in organs and tissue
    • A. 

      Tachypnea

    • B. 

      Hypoxia

    • C. 

      Hemoptysis

    • D. 

      Orthopnea

    • E. 

      Epistaxis

  • 114. 
    Nosebleed
    • A. 

      Tachypnea

    • B. 

      Hypoxia

    • C. 

      Hemoptysis

    • D. 

      Orthopnea

    • E. 

      Epistaxis

  • 115. 
    Fast breathing
    • A. 

      Tachypnea

    • B. 

      Hypoxia

    • C. 

      Hemoptysis

    • D. 

      Orthopnea

    • E. 

      Epistaxis

  • 116. 
    Coughing up blood
    • A. 

      Tachypnea

    • B. 

      Hypoxia

    • C. 

      Hemoptysis

    • D. 

      Orthopnea

    • E. 

      Epistaxis

  • 117. 
    Absence of voice
    • A. 

      Aphonia

    • B. 

      Acapnia

    • C. 

      anoxemia

    • D. 

      Anoxia

    • E. 

      Apnea

  • 118. 
    Absence of oxygen
    • A. 

      Aphonia

    • B. 

      Acapnia

    • C. 

      Anoxemia

    • D. 

      Anoxia

    • E. 

      Apnea

  • 119. 
    Absence of carbon dioxide (in the blood)
    • A. 

      Aphonia

    • B. 

      Acapnia

    • C. 

      Anoxemia

    • D. 

      Anoxia

    • E. 

      Apnea

  • 120. 
    Blood pressure less than 90/60
    • A. 

      Hypothermia

    • B. 

      Syncope

    • C. 

      Edema

    • D. 

      Hypocapnia

    • E. 

      Hypotension

  • 121. 
    Distended or tortuous veins are termed:
    • A. 

      Phlebitis

    • B. 

      tendinitis

    • C. 

      Varicosities

    • D. 

      Vasitis

    • E. 

      Arteritis

  • 122. 
    Absence of breathing
    • A. 

      Aphonia

    • B. 

      Acapnia

    • C. 

      Anoxemia

    • D. 

      Anoxia

    • E. 

      Apnea

  • 123. 
    Puffy swelling of tissue from accumulation of fluid
    • A. 

      Hypothermia

    • B. 

      Syncope

    • C. 

      Edema

    • D. 

      Hypocapnia

    • E. 

      Hypotension

  • 124. 
    Condition to lower body temperature for surgery
    • A. 

      Hypothermia

    • B. 

      Syncope

    • C. 

      Edema

    • D. 

      Hypocapnia

    • E. 

      Hypotension

  • 125. 
    Decreased level of carbon dioxide in blood
    • A. 

      Hypothermia

    • B. 

      Syncope

    • C. 

      Edema

    • D. 

      Hypocapnia

    • E. 

      Hypotension

  • 126. 
    Fainting or sudden loss of consciousness
    • A. 

      Hypothermia

    • B. 

      Syncope

    • C. 

      Edema

    • D. 

      Hypocapnia

    • E. 

      Hypotension

  • 127. 
    Inflammation of the outer lining of the heart is called:
    • A. 

      Myometritis

    • B. 

      Pleuritis

    • C. 

      Endocarditis

    • D. 

      Pericarditis

    • E. 

      Endometrium

  • 128. 
    Angina pectoris is another way to say:
    • A. 

      MI

    • B. 

      Heart attack

    • C. 

      Bradycardia

    • D. 

      Hypertension

    • E. 

      Chest pain

  • 129. 
    Cardiac phase where ventricles contract
    • A. 

      Diastole

    • B. 

      CPR

    • C. 

      Defibrillation

    • D. 

      Systole

    • E. 

      Fibrillation

  • 130. 
    Rapid quivering, non-coordinated contractions
    • A. 

      Diastole

    • B. 

      CPR

    • C. 

      Defibrillation

    • D. 

      Systole

    • E. 

      Fibrillation

  • 131. 
    Application of electrical shock to the myocardium through the chest wall to restore normal rhythm
    • A. 

      Diastole

    • B. 

      CPR

    • C. 

      Defibrillation

    • D. 

      Systole

    • E. 

      Fibrillation

  • 132. 
    Disorder with main symptom of recurring seizures
    • A. 

      Hydrocephalus

    • B. 

      Tic

    • C. 

      Cerebral palsy

    • D. 

      Epilepsy

    • E. 

      Dementia

  • 133. 
    Artificial ventilation and external cardiac message
    • A. 

      Diastole

    • B. 

      CPR

    • C. 

      Defibrillation

    • D. 

      Systole

    • E. 

      Fibrillation

  • 134. 
    Cardiac phase where ventricles relax
    • A. 

      Diastole

    • B. 

      CPR

    • C. 

      Defibrillation

    • D. 

      Systole

    • E. 

      Fibrillation

  • 135. 
    Necrosis of heart tissues due to lack of oxygen is:
    • A. 

      Myocardial infarction

    • B. 

      Carditis

    • C. 

      Rheumatic heart disease

    • D. 

      Mitral valve stenosis

    • E. 

      Anemia

  • 136. 
    Sudden stop in cardiac output and circulation that requires CPR is called
    • A. 

      Pulmonary embolism

    • B. 

      Atrial fibrillation

    • C. 

      Coronary artery disease

    • D. 

      Cardiac arrest

    • E. 

      Arrhythmia

  • 137. 
    Spasmodic muscle contractions, most commonly involving the face
    • A. 

      Hydrocephalus

    • B. 

      Tic

    • C. 

      Cerebral palsy

    • D. 

      Epilepsy

    • E. 

      Dementia

  • 138. 
    Lack of muscle control and partial paralysis cause by birth defect
    • A. 

      Hydrocephalus

    • B. 

      Tic

    • C. 

      Cerebral palsy

    • D. 

      Epilepsy

    • E. 

      Dementia

  • 139. 
    Increased cerebrospinal fluid in brain
    • A. 

      Hydrocephalus

    • B. 

      tic

    • C. 

      Cerebral palsy

    • D. 

      Epilepsy

    • E. 

      Dementia

  • 140. 
    Cognitive impairment with loss of intellectual brain function
    • A. 

      Hydrocephalus

    • B. 

      Tic

    • C. 

      Cerebral palsy

    • D. 

      Epilepsy

    • E. 

      Dementia

  • 141. 
    Lack of coordination especially when voluntary movements are attempted
    • A. 

      Ataxia

    • B. 

      Agnosia

    • C. 

      Amaurosis

    • D. 

      Aphasia

    • E. 

      Status epilepticus

  • 142. 
    An ischemic stroke would be caused by this condition
    • A. 

      Meningitis

    • B. 

      Ganglitis

    • C. 

      Encephalomalacia

    • D. 

      Encephalitis

    • E. 

      Cerebral thrombosis

  • 143. 
    A broken blood vessel below the dura matter is called:
    • A. 

      Purpura

    • B. 

      Hematuria

    • C. 

      Uremia

    • D. 

      Subdural hematoma

    • E. 

      Glioma

  • 144. 
    A sensation of turning around or moving around in space
    • A. 

      Amaurosis

    • B. 

      Vertigo

    • C. 

      Neuritis

    • D. 

      Nystagmus

    • E. 

      Tic

  • 145. 
    Ringing in the ears is termed
    • A. 

      Glioma

    • B. 

      Tinnitus

    • C. 

      Aura

    • D. 

      Sciatica

    • E. 

      Migraine

  • 146. 
    Paralysis of four limbs
    • A. 

      Quadraplegia

    • B. 

      Paresthesia

    • C. 

      Paraplegia

    • D. 

      Hemiplegia

    • E. 

      Concussion

  • 147. 
    Jarring or shaking that results in injury
    • A. 

      Quadraplegia

    • B. 

      Paresthesia

    • C. 

      Paraplegia

    • D. 

      Hemiplegia

    • E. 

      Concussion

  • 148. 
    Paralysis from waist down
    • A. 

      Quadraplegia

    • B. 

      Paresthesia

    • C. 

      Paraplegia

    • D. 

      Hemiplegia

    • E. 

      Concussion

  • 149. 
    Abnormal sensation often in the extremities
    • A. 

      Quadraplegia

    • B. 

      Paresthesia

    • C. 

      Paraplegia

    • D. 

      Hemiplegia

    • E. 

      Concussion

  • 150. 
    Paralysis of the right or left side
    • A. 

      Quadraplegia

    • B. 

      Paresthesia

    • C. 

      Paraplegia

    • D. 

      Hemiplegia

    • E. 

      Concussion