Medical Review Quiz 20
Medical review for MA 225
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Betadine (povidone-iodine) should not be used on the skin of a patient who is allergic to
- A.
Alcohol
- B.
Metal
- C.
Iodine
- D.
Soap
- E.
Latex
Correct Answer
C. IodineExplanation
Betadine (povidone-iodine) should not be used on the skin of a patient who is allergic to iodine. This is because Betadine contains povidone-iodine, which is a complex of iodine and a water-soluble polymer. If a patient is allergic to iodine, using Betadine on their skin can cause an allergic reaction, such as itching, rash, or difficulty breathing. It is important to avoid using Betadine on patients with known iodine allergies and to use alternative antiseptics instead.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
Wound drainage that contains pus is charted as
- A.
Serous
- B.
Normal
- C.
Serosanguineous
- D.
Sanguinous
- E.
Purulent
Correct Answer
E. PurulentExplanation
Wound drainage that contains pus is charted as purulent. Pus is a thick, yellowish fluid that is produced during an infection. It consists of dead white blood cells, bacteria, and tissue debris. Purulent drainage indicates the presence of an active infection in the wound, and it is important to document this type of drainage accurately in the patient's chart for proper treatment and monitoring.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
The angle for the insertion of the needle for an intradermal injection is
- A.
10 to 15 degrees
- B.
20 to 30 degrees
- C.
45 degrees
- D.
90 degrees
- E.
Not important
Correct Answer
A. 10 to 15 degreesExplanation
The angle for the insertion of the needle for an intradermal injection is 10 to 15 degrees. This angle is important because it allows the needle to be inserted just below the surface of the skin, into the dermis layer. By inserting the needle at this angle, the medication is delivered into the dermis, which is the intended target for intradermal injections. Inserting the needle at a steeper angle could result in the medication being delivered too deep or too superficially, affecting the effectiveness of the injection.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
A medication that is placed under the tongue is being administered by which technique?
- A.
By mouth
- B.
Buccal
- C.
Sublingual
- D.
Instillation
- E.
Topical
Correct Answer
C. SublingualExplanation
The medication that is placed under the tongue is being administered by the sublingual technique. This technique involves placing the medication under the tongue, where it is absorbed into the bloodstream through the mucous membranes. It is an effective method for delivering certain medications, as it allows for rapid absorption and bypasses the digestive system.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
To administer an intramuscular injection, which needle would you use?
- A.
1 inch, 25 gauge
- B.
1 1/2 inch, 21 gauge
- C.
1 inch, 18 gauge
- D.
1/2 inch, 22 gauge
- E.
2 inch, 20 gauge
Correct Answer
B. 1 1/2 inch, 21 gaugeExplanation
The correct answer is 1 1/2 inch, 21 gauge. This needle is the most appropriate choice for administering an intramuscular injection because it is long enough to penetrate deep into the muscle and the gauge size (21) is appropriate for delivering the medication effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
A type of drug that increases urinary output is a(n)
- A.
Emetic
- B.
Diuretic
- C.
Miotic
- D.
Cathartic
- E.
Antibiotic
Correct Answer
B. DiureticExplanation
A diuretic is a type of drug that increases urinary output. It works by promoting the excretion of water and electrolytes from the body through the kidneys. This helps to reduce fluid retention and lower blood pressure. Diuretics are commonly used to treat conditions such as hypertension, congestive heart failure, and kidney disorders. They can also be used to prevent fluid buildup in certain medical situations, such as during surgery or in cases of edema.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
The physician orders 250mg amoxicillin intramusculary. The vial reads 500mg per 1 mL. How much would be given to the patient?
- A.
0.5mL
- B.
1mL
- C.
2mL
- D.
3mL
- E.
5mL
Correct Answer
A. 0.5mLExplanation
The physician ordered 250mg of amoxicillin intramuscularly. The vial contains 500mg per 1mL. To calculate the amount to be given to the patient, we need to find the ratio of the ordered dose to the concentration of the vial. This can be done by dividing the ordered dose (250mg) by the concentration (500mg/1mL), which gives us 0.5mL. Therefore, the patient would be given 0.5mL of amoxicillin.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
When a specimen is placed in a centrifuge, a tube of similar size containing a liquid of similar weight, should be placed
- A.
On the counter
- B.
Directly opposite from the specimen
- C.
Directly beside the specimen
- D.
In all empty spaces in the centrifuge
- E.
To the right side of the specimen
Correct Answer
B. Directly opposite from the specimenExplanation
When a specimen is placed in a centrifuge, a tube of similar size containing a liquid of similar weight should be placed directly opposite from the specimen. This is because the centrifuge spins at a high speed, causing the contents to separate based on their density. Placing a tube with similar size and weight opposite to the specimen helps to balance the centrifuge and ensure that the forces acting on both sides are equal. This prevents any imbalance and ensures accurate separation of the specimen.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
Microscopic examination of a urine sample should be performed
- A.
Within 1/2 hour of collection
- B.
Within 1 hour of collection
- C.
Within 1 1/2 hours of collection
- D.
Within 2 hours of collection
- E.
Within 3 hours of collection
Correct Answer
A. Within 1/2 hour of collectionExplanation
Microscopic examination of a urine sample should be performed within 1/2 hour of collection because urine samples can undergo changes over time. The longer the sample sits, the more likely it is that cellular elements will deteriorate or degrade, making it difficult to accurately analyze the sample. By examining the sample within 1/2 hour of collection, healthcare professionals can ensure the integrity of the sample and obtain reliable results.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
The absence of urine formation is termed
- A.
Anuria
- B.
Polyuria
- C.
Dysuria
- D.
Oliguria
- E.
Ketonuria
Correct Answer
A. AnuriaExplanation
Anuria refers to the absence of urine formation. This condition occurs when the kidneys are not able to produce urine or there is a blockage in the urinary tract preventing the flow of urine. Anuria can be caused by various factors such as kidney failure, severe dehydration, urinary tract obstruction, or certain medications. It is a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention as it can lead to the buildup of waste products and toxins in the body. Treatment for anuria focuses on addressing the underlying cause and may involve fluid replacement, medications, or surgical intervention.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
Normal specific gravity is generally between
- A.
1.000 and 1.005
- B.
1.010 and 1.050
- C.
1.025 and 1.500
- D.
1.005 amd 1.050
- E.
1.010 and 1.025
Correct Answer
E. 1.010 and 1.025Explanation
Normal specific gravity is generally between 1.010 and 1.025. This range represents the typical values for specific gravity in most substances. Specific gravity is a measure of the density of a substance compared to the density of water. A specific gravity below 1.000 indicates a substance that is less dense than water, while a specific gravity above 1.000 indicates a substance that is more dense than water. The range of 1.010 to 1.025 falls within the normal range for specific gravity and is commonly observed in various materials.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
A complete blood count (CBC) includes
- A.
Platelet count
- B.
Hemoglobin and hematocrit
- C.
White blood cell count
- D.
All of the above
- E.
A and C
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
A complete blood count (CBC) is a blood test that provides important information about the different components of blood. It includes a platelet count, which measures the number of platelets in the blood, and hemoglobin and hematocrit, which assess the levels of red blood cells. Additionally, it includes a white blood cell count, which measures the number of white blood cells in the blood. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" as it includes all the mentioned components of a CBC.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
Capillary blood is usually obtained
- A.
From a skin puncture
- B.
From a venipunture
- C.
From an arterial puncture
- D.
All of the above
- E.
B and C
Correct Answer
A. From a skin punctureExplanation
Capillary blood is usually obtained from a skin puncture because capillaries are small blood vessels located close to the surface of the skin. A skin puncture involves pricking the skin with a lancet to obtain a small drop of blood from the capillaries. This method is commonly used for various diagnostic tests, such as blood glucose monitoring, as it is less invasive and requires a smaller amount of blood compared to venipuncture or arterial puncture.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
Application of heat
- A.
Dilates blood vessels
- B.
Constricts blood vessels
- C.
Elevates blood pressure
- D.
Decreases respiration
- E.
Produces weight loss
Correct Answer
A. Dilates blood vesselsExplanation
Application of heat causes the blood vessels to dilate. When heat is applied to the body, it increases the temperature of the tissues, which in turn causes the blood vessels to expand. This dilation allows for increased blood flow to the area, which can help to relieve pain, promote healing, and improve circulation. The increased blood flow can also help to remove waste products and deliver oxygen and nutrients to the tissues. Overall, the application of heat is known to have a vasodilatory effect on the blood vessels.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
The wave on an electrocardiogram that represents contraction of the atria is
- A.
P
- B.
QRS
- C.
T
- D.
V
- E.
R
Correct Answer
A. PExplanation
The wave on an electrocardiogram that represents contraction of the atria is the P wave. This wave indicates the depolarization of the atria, which leads to their contraction. It is the first wave in the ECG and is followed by the QRS complex, which represents the depolarization of the ventricles. The P wave is important in diagnosing various cardiac conditions and can provide information about the health and function of the atria.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
The pacemaker of the heart is the
- A.
Myocardium
- B.
Sinoatrial node
- C.
Atrioventricular node
- D.
Purkinje fibers
- E.
Bundle of His
Correct Answer
B. Sinoatrial nodeExplanation
The sinoatrial node, also known as the SA node, is often referred to as the pacemaker of the heart. This is because it is responsible for initiating the electrical impulses that regulate the heart's rhythm and control the contractions of the atria. The SA node is located in the right atrium and generates electrical signals that travel through the heart, causing it to beat in a coordinated and synchronized manner.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
A standard electrocardiogram has how many leads?
- A.
4
- B.
8
- C.
10
- D.
12
- E.
14
Correct Answer
D. 12Explanation
A standard electrocardiogram (ECG) consists of 12 leads. These leads are placed on specific locations on the body to record the electrical activity of the heart from different angles. Each lead provides a different perspective of the heart's electrical activity, allowing healthcare professionals to assess the heart's rhythm, detect abnormalities, and diagnose various cardiac conditions. The 12-lead ECG is widely used in clinical practice and provides valuable information about the overall functioning of the heart.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
The standard speed for recording anelectrocardiogram is
- A.
5mm/sec
- B.
10mm/sec
- C.
20mm/sec
- D.
25mm/sec
- E.
50mm/sec
Correct Answer
D. 25mm/secExplanation
The standard speed for recording an electrocardiogram is 25mm/sec. This speed is commonly used because it allows for a clear and accurate representation of the electrical activity of the heart. A slower speed may not capture the detailed waveform patterns, while a faster speed may result in overlapping or distorted waveforms. Therefore, 25mm/sec is considered the optimal speed for recording an ECG.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
To cauterize a small lesion on the oral mucosa, the physician may use an applicator with
- A.
Silver nitrate
- B.
Alcohol
- C.
Formalin
- D.
Betadine
- E.
Zephiran chloride
Correct Answer
A. Silver nitrateExplanation
Silver nitrate is commonly used to cauterize small lesions on the oral mucosa. It is a chemical compound that has caustic and antiseptic properties, making it effective in stopping bleeding and promoting wound healing. When applied to the lesion, silver nitrate reacts with the tissue proteins, forming a layer of eschar that helps seal the wound. This method is often preferred for small lesions as it is relatively painless and provides good hemostasis. Additionally, silver nitrate has antimicrobial properties, further preventing infection in the treated area.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
A common laboratory test that may be ordered for a patient on Coumadin therapy is
- A.
Prothrombin time
- B.
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
- C.
White blood cell (WBC) count
- D.
Hematocrit
- E.
Complete blood count (CBC)
Correct Answer
A. Prothrombin timeExplanation
Prothrombin time is a common laboratory test ordered for patients on Coumadin therapy. Coumadin is a medication that is used to prevent blood clots, and prothrombin time measures the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring prothrombin time is essential for patients on Coumadin therapy to ensure that their blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range. It helps healthcare providers determine the appropriate dosage of Coumadin and make adjustments if necessary to prevent excessive bleeding or clotting.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
Which one of the following types of suture material is absorbable?
- A.
Steel
- B.
Cotton
- C.
Catgut
- D.
Nylon
- E.
Silk
Correct Answer
C. CatgutExplanation
Catgut is the correct answer because it is an absorbable suture material. Catgut is made from the intestines of sheep or cows and is commonly used in surgical procedures. It is broken down by the body's enzymes and absorbed over time, eliminating the need for suture removal. Steel, cotton, nylon, and silk are non-absorbable suture materials, meaning they do not break down and need to be manually removed.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
The minimum number of cells to be counted in a differential blood smear is
- A.
50
- B.
100
- C.
150
- D.
200
- E.
Unlimited; count them all
Correct Answer
B. 100Explanation
The minimum number of cells to be counted in a differential blood smear is 100. This is because counting a minimum of 100 cells provides a representative sample of the different types of white blood cells present in the blood. It allows for a more accurate assessment of the relative proportions of each cell type, which is important in diagnosing certain blood disorders or infections. Counting fewer than 100 cells may result in an inaccurate representation of the blood sample.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
A hemoglobin of 10g/dL is approximately equivalent to a hematocrit of
- A.
10%
- B.
20%
- C.
30%
- D.
36%
- E.
40%
Correct Answer
C. 30%Explanation
A hemoglobin level of 10g/dL is approximately equivalent to a hematocrit level of 30%. Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that carries oxygen, while hematocrit is a measure of the percentage of red blood cells in the total blood volume. Since hemoglobin makes up a significant portion of red blood cells, a hemoglobin level of 10g/dL indicates that the red blood cells make up around 30% of the total blood volume.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
Which of the following laboratory results should be called to the attention of the physician?
- A.
White blood cell count: 7200/mm
- B.
Red blood cell count 4.4 million/mm
- C.
Hemoglobin: 12g/dL
- D.
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate: 30 mm/hr
- E.
Total cholesterol: 180mg
Correct Answer
D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate: 30 mm/hrExplanation
The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 30 mm/hr should be called to the attention of the physician. ESR is a non-specific marker of inflammation and can be elevated in various conditions such as infections, autoimmune disorders, and malignancies. A high ESR value may indicate an underlying inflammatory process that requires further evaluation and management by the physician. The other laboratory results are within normal ranges and do not necessarily require immediate attention.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
The stain used to identify bacteria on a prepared slide is the
- A.
Gram stain
- B.
Wright's stain
- C.
Giemsa stain
- D.
India ink
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. Gram stainExplanation
The Gram stain is the correct answer because it is a commonly used staining technique to differentiate bacteria into two groups - Gram-positive and Gram-negative. This stain involves a series of steps including crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, and safranin, which helps in distinguishing the bacterial cell wall composition. Wright's stain is used for staining blood cells, Giemsa stain is used for staining parasites and certain types of bacteria, and India ink is used for negative staining of capsules. Therefore, the correct answer is Gram stain.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
After sitting for a ling time, a urine sample becomes
- A.
Clear
- B.
Alkaline
- C.
Acid
- D.
Neutral
- E.
Darker
Correct Answer
B. AlkalineExplanation
When a person sits for a long time, there is a decreased flow of urine and it becomes stagnant in the bladder. This stagnant urine can lead to the growth of bacteria, which can cause urinary tract infections. Bacteria tend to thrive in an alkaline environment, hence the urine sample becomes alkaline.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
A blood sample for serum is collected in which of the following tubes?
- A.
Blue-stoppered
- B.
Lavender-stoppered
- C.
Green-stoppered
- D.
Red-stoppered
- E.
Black-stoppered
Correct Answer
D. Red-stopperedExplanation
The correct answer is Red-stoppered. Red-stoppered tubes are used for collecting blood samples for serum. These tubes do not contain any anticoagulant or additive, allowing the blood to clot and separate into serum. Serum is the clear, yellowish fluid that remains after the blood has clotted and the cells have been removed. It is used for various diagnostic tests and blood chemistry analyses.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
Which of the following are categories to classify instruments used in surgery?
- A.
Probing and dilating
- B.
Cutting and dissecting
- C.
Grasping and clamping
- D.
Retracting
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
The categories to classify instruments used in surgery include probing and dilating, cutting and dissecting, grasping and clamping, and retracting. These categories encompass a wide range of surgical instruments that serve different purposes during surgical procedures. Probing and dilating instruments are used to explore and widen body cavities or passages. Cutting and dissecting instruments are used to make incisions and separate tissues. Grasping and clamping instruments are used to hold and secure tissues or blood vessels. Retracting instruments are used to hold back organs or tissues to provide better visibility and access to the surgical site. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."Rate this question:
-
- 29.
The first thing that should be done in an emergence situation involving an unconscious person is to
- A.
Assess the victim's airway
- B.
Control any bleeding
- C.
Apply a tourniquet
- D.
Dial 911
- E.
Give the patient breaths
Correct Answer
A. Assess the victim's airwayExplanation
In an emergency situation involving an unconscious person, the first priority is to assess the victim's airway. This is crucial because if the airway is blocked or compromised, it can lead to serious consequences such as oxygen deprivation and potential brain damage. By assessing the victim's airway, one can determine if there are any obstructions or if the person needs immediate intervention such as CPR or the Heimlich maneuver to clear the airway. This step is essential in ensuring the person's ability to breathe and maintaining their vital signs until further medical help arrives.Rate this question:
-
- Computed Tomography Quizzes
- EEG Quizzes
- First Aid Quizzes
- GCP Quizzes
- Healing Quizzes
- Mammography Quizzes
- Medical Coding Quizzes
- Medical Term Quizzes
- Medical Terminology Quizzes
- Medical Training Quizzes
- Medical Vocabulary Quizzes
- MRI Quizzes
- Nuclear Medicine Quizzes
- Obstetrics And Gynecology Quizzes
- Pathology Quizzes
- Pathophysiology Quizzes
- Phlebotomy Quizzes
- Pulmonary Quizzes
- Radiography Quizzes
- Radiology Quizzes
- Syndrome Quizzes
- Ultrasound Quizzes
- Vital Signs Quizzes
- Xray Quizzes
Back to top