Med Questions

46 Questions | Total Attempts: 71

SettingsSettingsSettings
Please wait...
Paramedic Quizzes & Trivia

Paramedic questions


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The first National Standard Paramedic Curriculum was published in:
    • A. 

      1998

    • B. 

      1984

    • C. 

      1969

    • D. 

      1977

  • 2. 
    The person who is legally responsible for all clinical and patient-care aspects of an EMS system is the:
    • A. 

      Continuous quality improvement coordinator

    • B. 

      Medical director

    • C. 

      Battalion chief

    • D. 

      System administrator

  • 3. 
    Which of the followin certification levels is curretnly NOT recongnized by the National Registry of EMTs?
    • A. 

      EMT-Paramedic

    • B. 

      EMT-Basic

    • C. 

      Critical Care Paramedic

    • D. 

      First Responder

  • 4. 
    You are treating a patient who you think needs an IV of lactated Ringer's.  thje patien, however, says he is frightened of needles and refuses to give his consent.  If you display the IV catheter and bring it toward the patient, you may be charged with:
    • A. 

      Battery

    • B. 

      Negligence

    • C. 

      Libel

    • D. 

      Assault

  • 5. 
    When a paramedic treats an unconscious patient, the provision of treatment is based on ________ consent.
    • A. 

      Expressed

    • B. 

      Primum non nocere

    • C. 

      Res ipsa loquitur

    • D. 

      Implied

  • 6. 
    The natural tendency of the body to maintain a steady and normal internal environment is known as:
    • A. 

      Constant metabolism

    • B. 

      Positive feedback

    • C. 

      Osmosis

    • D. 

      Homeostasis

  • 7. 
    How many bones make up the vertebral column?
    • A. 

      28

    • B. 

      34

    • C. 

      31

    • D. 

      33

  • 8. 
    The central area in the thorax that contains the heart, great vessels, trachea, esophagus is the :
    • A. 

      Hemithorax

    • B. 

      Mediastinum

    • C. 

      Carina

    • D. 

      Pulumonary hilum

  • 9. 
    The base of the heart lies at the level of the _______ rib.
    • A. 

      Fourth

    • B. 

      Third

    • C. 

      Second

    • D. 

      First

  • 10. 
    The MOST superior aspect of the pharynx is the:
    • A. 

      Laryngopharynx

    • B. 

      Oropharynx

    • C. 

      Hypopharynx

    • D. 

      Nasopharynx

  • 11. 
    The pulmonary veins transport:
    • A. 

      Oxyhemoglobin-poor blood

    • B. 

      Carbon-dioxide-rich blood

    • C. 

      Oxygenated blood

    • D. 

      Deoxygenated blood

  • 12. 
    Which of the following fluids helps the newborn infant's lungs remain open by reducing surface tension?
    • A. 

      Meconium

    • B. 

      Surfactant

    • C. 

      Amniotic fluid

    • D. 

      Vernix caseosa

  • 13. 
    The simplest airway management techniquein a patient without suspected cervical spine injury is the:
    • A. 

      Head-tilt/chin lift maneuver

    • B. 

      Modified jaw-thrust maneuver

    • C. 

      Use of an oropharyngeal airway

    • D. 

      Sellick's maneuver

  • 14. 
    A portable suction device should generate a flow rate of ________ liters per minute when the tube is open.
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      50

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      40

  • 15. 
    The tip of a curved laryngoscope blade is placed correctly:
    • A. 

      At the junction of the hard and soft palates

    • B. 

      Under the epiglottis

    • C. 

      In the vallecula

    • D. 

      At the glottic opening

  • 16. 
    A patient with skin described as "clammy" has ________ skin.
    • A. 

      Cool and dry

    • B. 

      Cool and moist

    • C. 

      Warm and dry

    • D. 

      Warm and moist

  • 17. 
    Systems that transmit and receive on the same frequency are _________ systemts.
    • A. 

      Multiplex

    • B. 

      Duplex

    • C. 

      Trunked

    • D. 

      Simplex

  • 18. 
    Multiplex systems transmit:
    • A. 

      Voice and data simultaneously

    • B. 

      On the same frequency as they receive

    • C. 

      Voice simultaneously in two ways

    • D. 

      Using digital encryption technology

  • 19. 
    Which classification of burn is characterized mainly by blisters?
    • A. 

      Superficial

    • B. 

      Full-thickness

    • C. 

      Partial-thickness

    • D. 

      Minor

  • 20. 
    You are dispatched to a structure fire at which there is a report of a burned person.  Your patient is a 32-year-old male with blisters on his anterior chest and circumferential superficial burns to both lower extremities.  Using the "Rules of Nines," what percentage of burn does this patient have?
    • A. 

      54

    • B. 

      27

    • C. 

      45

    • D. 

      36

  • 21. 
    Which of the following body area (s) warrant special attention when burned?
    • A. 

      Feet

    • B. 

      Face

    • C. 

      Genitalia

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 22. 
    Tendons connect _______ to _________.
    • A. 

      Muscles, fascia

    • B. 

      Bones, bones

    • C. 

      Muscles, bones

    • D. 

      Cartilage, bones

  • 23. 
    Which of the following is NOT a component of the Glasgow Coma Scale?
    • A. 

      Pupillary reaction

    • B. 

      Verbal response

    • C. 

      Motor ability

    • D. 

      Eye opening

  • 24. 
    Another name for an open pneumothorax is:
    • A. 

      Hemopneumothorax

    • B. 

      Flail chest

    • C. 

      Sucking chest wound

    • D. 

      Tension pneumothorax

  • 25. 
    You have arrived on the scene of a paramedic who was shot as she approached a residence on a call.  The scene has since been secured.  Your patient is a 38-year-old female with one gunshot wound to the left side of the chest at the 5th intercostal space in the midaxillary line.  She is pale, cool, and awake but agitated.  She is diaphoretic and complaining of pain in her left side and difficulty breathing.  The patient's EMT-B partner has applied oxygen by NRB mask and an occlusive dressing over the entry wound before you arrive.  As you continue your assessment, the patient's level of consciousness decreases.  She responds to verbal stimuli.  Her airway is clear, her breating rate is 38 per minute and shallow, her neck veins are flat, and her breat sounds are absent on the left side.  The patient lacks a radial pulse, and the abdomen is nonguarded and nontender.  Which of the following should you do first?
    • A. 

      Immediate needle chest decompression

    • B. 

      Assist ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device

    • C. 

      Rapid trauma assessment

    • D. 

      Start two large-bore IVs of isotonic crystalloid solution

  • 26. 
    Using a microdrip IV tubing, how many drops of fluid equals 1 mL?
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      60

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      15

  • 27. 
    Mrs.  Bertrand is npo in anticipation of having a cholecystectomy this evening.  Tor prevent dehydration, she is to receive 5% dextrose in 0.45% saline solution at a rate 150 mL/hour.  Using 20gtt/ml tubing, what is the drip rate in gtt/minute?
    • A. 

      150

    • B. 

      50

    • C. 

      75

    • D. 

      25

  • 28. 
    At standard speed, a 1 mm box on ECG paper represent _______ seconds.
    • A. 

      0.1

    • B. 

      0.12

    • C. 

      0.04

    • D. 

      0.08

  • 29. 
    The intrinsic firing rate of the AV node is ______ to ________ times per minute.
    • A. 

      80, 100

    • B. 

      60, 80

    • C. 

      40, 60

    • D. 

      20, 40

  • 30. 
    An ECG monitor is useful for:
    • A. 

      Determining cardiac output

    • B. 

      Evaluating the heart's electrical conduction system for abnormalities

    • C. 

      Evaluating the effectiveness of cardiac contractions

    • D. 

      Determining stroke volume

  • 31. 
    The QRS complex represents
    • A. 

      Atrial repolarization

    • B. 

      Ventricular depolarization

    • C. 

      Atrial depolarization

    • D. 

      Ventricular repolarization

  • 32. 
    An early sign of hyperkalemia is
    • A. 

      Flat T waves on an ECG

    • B. 

      Tall, peaked T waves on an ECG

    • C. 

      Presence of an Osborn wave

    • D. 

      Widening of the QT interval

  • 33. 
    _________ is a drop in systolic blood pressure of more than 10 mmHg with inspiration.
    • A. 

      Electrical alternans

    • B. 

      Pulse deficit

    • C. 

      Pulsus alternans

    • D. 

      Pulsus paradoxus

  • 34. 
    A 63-year-old male is alert and oriented, complaining of dizziness.  he describes an acute onset of dizziness and near-syncope that has lasted for 15 minutes.  He is also experiencing substernal chest pain radiating to his jaw, as well as nausea, and weakness, Physical examination reveals cool, diaphoretic skin, delayed capillary refill, and mild rales to the bases bilaterally.  He has no significant medical history, but he takes 325 mg of aspirin a day.  HR: 220, BP: 88/52, RR: 16 SaO2: 95%.  The patient is receiving oxygen by nonrebreathing mask. Which of the following should be done first?
    • A. 

      Start an IV of normal saline

    • B. 

      Attach the cardiac monitor and perform cardioversion

    • C. 

      Prepare the patient for immediate transport

    • D. 

      Administer 0.4mg of NTG sublingually

  • 35. 
    Management for a patient experiencing angina may inclue all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      100% oxygen

    • B. 

      Epinephrine 1:1,000 SQ

    • C. 

      Nifedipine SL

    • D. 

      Introglycerin SL

  • 36. 
    The most common cause of death resulting from myocardial infarction is:
    • A. 

      Dysrhythmia

    • B. 

      Inadequate tissue perfusion

    • C. 

      Heart failure

    • D. 

      End-organ failure

  • 37. 
    Parmacological interventions initated by prehospital care providers in the treatment of congestive heart failure include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Albuterol

    • B. 

      Nitroglycerin

    • C. 

      Dopamine

    • D. 

      Furosemide

  • 38. 
    A 64-year-old female is alert and oriented, in moderate respiratory distress, and complaining of chest pain.  She describes an acute onset of right-sided chest pain that radiates across her chest.  Physical examination reveals cold, diaphoretic skin; lung sounds with rales bilaterally; JVD; and peripheral edema.  Medical history includes hypertension, prior myocardial infarction, and heart failure.  HR: 128, BP: 88/56, RR:26, SaO2:92%.  Which of the following is appropriate in the prehospital treatment of the is patien?
    • A. 

      Dopamine

    • B. 

      Morphine

    • C. 

      Nitroglycerin

    • D. 

      Amiodorone

  • 39. 
    Late signs of cardiogenic shock include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Cardiac arrest

    • B. 

      Loss of consciousness

    • C. 

      Bradycardia and hypotension

    • D. 

      Anxiety

  • 40. 
    Your patient is a 73-year-old male who is sitting in a recliner, cyanotic, pulseless, and apneic.  The patient's skin is cool and dry.  The patient's wife last saw him an hour and a half ago.  Which of the following should you do first?
    • A. 

      Attach the monitor/defibrillator

    • B. 

      Inform the patient's wife that he is dead and nothing can be done for him

    • C. 

      Start CPR

    • D. 

      Check for rigor mortis

  • 41. 
    A 48-year-old male is complainingof chest pain that he describes as dull and located substernally, but radiating to his neck.  He rates the pain a 6 on a scale of 1-10 and complains of fausea and lightheadedness. His skin is cool and diaphoretic.  HR: 96, BP: 124/82, RR: 14, SaO2: 97%.  In addition to oxygen, and IV of normal saline and transport to the emergency department, which of the following would be most appropriate?
    • A. 

      Nitroglycerin

    • B. 

      Aspirin, nitroglycerin, and morphine

    • C. 

      Nitroglycerin, morphine, and furosemide

    • D. 

      Reassurance that his condition is not likely cardiac in nature

  • 42. 
    Your patient weighs 22 lbs. and is to receive 0.02 mg/kg of atropine IVP.  Your have a multidoes vial of atropine containing 20 ml at a concentration of 0.04 mg/ml.  What volume of medication is to be injected
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      0.5

    • C. 

      0.25

    • D. 

      2.5

  • 43. 
    According to the classification sof the Controlled Substance Act of 1970, an example of a Schedule I drug would be:
    • A. 

      Diazepam

    • B. 

      Atropine sulfate

    • C. 

      Morphine sulfate

    • D. 

      Heroin

  • 44. 
    Which of the following medications has the shortest half-life?
    • A. 

      Epinephrine

    • B. 

      Adenosine

    • C. 

      Verapamil

    • D. 

      Digitalis

  • 45. 
    Patients experiencing the onset of signs and symptoms indicative of myocardial ischemia are sometimes encouraged to chew aspirin.  Aspirin is beneficial because it:
    • A. 

      Reduces the pain on an AMI through its analgesic actions

    • B. 

      Inhibits the clotting cascade, thereby preventing thrombus formation

    • C. 

      Decreases the formation of platelet plugs and potential thrombi

    • D. 

      Blocks the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

  • 46. 
    Oxytocin is frequently used in the prehospital setting to:
    • A. 

      Stop preterm labor contractions

    • B. 

      Facilitate labor and induce delivery

    • C. 

      Help control postpartum hemorrhage

    • D. 

      Control seizures from eclampsia of pregnancy