1.
If a complainant filing a citizen complaint elects to complete the form out of the station, the complainants signature shall be notarized prior to submitting the complaint form.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
If a complainant chooses to fill out the citizen complaint form outside the police station, their signature must be notarized before they can submit the form. This means that the complainant must have their signature verified by a notary public, who will confirm the authenticity of the signature. This requirement ensures that the complainant's identity is verified and adds an extra layer of credibility to the complaint. Therefore, the statement is true.
2.
Regarding a citizen complaint, the appropriate preliminary disposition for minor complaints that are false on their face or involve actions that are proper and legal or when they are resolved through discussion between the supervisor and complainant should be classified:
Correct Answer
C. No Further Action Required
Explanation
The appropriate preliminary disposition for minor complaints that are false on their face or involve actions that are proper and legal or when they are resolved through discussion between the supervisor and complainant should be classified as "No Further Action Required". This means that no further investigation or action is necessary as the complaint has been determined to be baseless or resolved satisfactorily.
3.
Regarding a citizen complaint, the appropriate preliminary disposition for any complaint alleging a criminal act, excessive use of force, racial harassment or intimidation or any serious violations of departmental rules or regulations AND/OR a complaint where the facts cannot be clearly established or cases where the employee has a prior record of instances where further investigation is warranted is:
Correct Answer
C. Further Action Required
Explanation
For a citizen complaint alleging a criminal act, excessive use of force, racial harassment or intimidation, or serious violations of departmental rules or regulations, the appropriate preliminary disposition is "Further Action Required." This means that the complaint requires additional investigation or action to determine its validity and the appropriate course of action. It is used when the facts of the complaint cannot be clearly established or when the employee involved has a prior record of instances where further investigation is warranted.
4.
When a recommended final disposition invovling a citizen complaint is "Improper Conduct", the investigating supervisor may also choose what corrective action should be taken.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Supervisor can RECOMMEND the corrective action
5.
Complaints against a member of the department resulting in a finding of improper conduct, policy failure or any other disposition will be retained for 10 years.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
They will be retained indefinitely
6.
When an investigation of a complaint against a member of the department is completed, the completed file will be placed in the employees personnel file.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
They are kept secure and seperate. A Written notice of discipline will be filed in the employees personnel file.
7.
Records, files, documents and other items compiled and maintained as a result of a personnel complaint investigation shall NOT be subject to disclosure to the public except as required by law or court order.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The given statement is true. According to the statement, records, files, documents, and other items compiled and maintained as a result of a personnel complaint investigation are not subject to disclosure to the public, unless required by law or court order. This means that these materials are kept confidential and not accessible to the public unless there is a legal requirement or court intervention.
8.
In order to be eligible for off-duty employment, a police employee must not be on suspension with or without pay
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Only suspension WITHOUT pay
9.
An employee shall not work any off-duty employment within 24 hours of using sick-time for regular employment
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
This statement is true because it states that an employee is not allowed to work any off-duty employment within 24 hours of using sick time for regular employment. This policy is likely in place to ensure that employees have enough time to rest and recover when they are sick, and to prevent any potential conflicts of interest or overexertion that could arise from working multiple jobs in a short period of time.
10.
Regarding secondary employment, employees shall report when their employment terminates for ANY reason
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Employees are required to report when their secondary employment terminates for any reason. This means that even if the termination is due to reasons such as resignation, termination by the employer, or any other cause, employees must inform their employer about it. This reporting requirement ensures transparency and allows the employer to stay informed about the employees' secondary employment status.
11.
An officer making the arrest or the officer in charge of the investigation for any domestic assault crime shall act as the complainant and shall swear to the complaint and warrant as necessary
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The given statement is true. According to the statement, in cases of domestic assault, the officer making the arrest or the officer in charge of the investigation acts as the complainant. They are responsible for swearing to the complaint and warrant as necessary. This means that the officer takes on the role of the victim or the person filing the complaint in domestic assault cases.
12.
Entry into NCIC is not required for enforcement of a foreign protection order
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Confirmation can be made via NLETS, by admin message from the entering agency, contact with the issuing court or law enforcement agency, or another reliable method. A copy of the PPO is acceptable if complete and no signs of invalidity.
-AND-
Evidence the PPO has been served
13.
A person arrested with or without a warrant for domestic violence shall not be released until the subject is arraigned or interim bond is set by a judge.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
A person arrested for domestic violence, whether with or without a warrant, cannot be released until they are arraigned or an interim bond is set by a judge. This means that the person must go through the legal process and have their case heard by a judge before they can be released from custody. This is to ensure that the seriousness of the offense is properly addressed and that the safety of the victim and the community is taken into consideration.
14.
The department shall retain all completed domestic violence reports and shall file a copy of all Standard Domestic Relationship Incident Reports with the Wayne County Prosecutors Office within 24 hours of the report.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Within 48 hours, it is also the responsibility of the officer in charge of the case to ensure the report is sent to the prosecutor
15.
A supervisor should respond and take charge of a domestic violence scene when the assailant is a criminal justice employee or public official.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
A supervisor should respond and take charge of a domestic violence scene when the assailant is a criminal justice employee or public official because there is a potential conflict of interest if the assailant is a colleague or someone in a position of power. The supervisor can ensure that the situation is handled impartially and professionally, and that the victim receives the necessary support and protection. It is important to address any potential bias or favoritism that may arise in such cases.
16.
An employee reporting sick for their next regularly scheduled tour of duty must do so no later than two hours prior to reporting time
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
No later than ONE hour
17.
Employees who no longer require the use of sick time shall make notification no less than two hours prior to the scheduled return date
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The statement is true because it states that employees who no longer need to use sick time should notify their employer at least two hours before their scheduled return date. This implies that employees are expected to communicate with their employer when they are no longer sick and able to return to work, allowing the employer to adjust their schedule accordingly.
18.
Any employee who is convicted of a MVC driving misdemeanor violation shall notify his or her immediate supervisor within 24 hours
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
As soon as possible
19.
Any employee who accumulates more than ____ points based on civil infractions on his/her driving record in a ____ year period may be subject to departmental review to determine their eligibility to operate city vehicles
Correct Answer
E. 5 , two
Explanation
If an employee accumulates more than 5 points based on civil infractions on his/her driving record in a two-year period, they may be subject to departmental review to determine their eligibility to operate city vehicles. This suggests that there is a specific threshold of points that can lead to a review, and that the review is conducted after a two-year period.
20.
HIPAA - Upon presentation to the Administrative Office of the Department of Public Safety, the patient or appropriate patient representative will complete a request for access form. This request must be done in person or received by certified mail.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Request must be done in person only
The completed form will be presented to the PRIVACY OFFICER for review
Privacy Officer must act on request within 30 DAYS
21.
HIPAA - The Department of Public Safety (via/or Privacy Officer) must respond to requests for access to PHI within 30 days of receipt of the access request, unless the designated record set is not maintained on site, in which case the response period may extend to _____ days
Correct Answer
B. 60
Explanation
If for any other reason the Department cannot respond to the request within 30 days, the Department shall send the requestor a written notice within the initial due date explaining why it could not be made in time. The Department may then extend the time by an additional 30 days.
22.
Access to PHI may be denied for the following reason and _______________
If the information the patient requested was compiled in reasonable anticipation of; or use in, a civil, criminal or administrative action or proceeding
Correct Answer
A. IS NOT subject to review or appeal by the patient
Explanation
Access to PHI may be denied if the information requested by the patient was compiled in reasonable anticipation of, or for use in, a civil, criminal, or administrative action or proceeding. In this case, the access to PHI is not subject to review or appeal by the patient. This means that the patient does not have the right to challenge or dispute the denial of access to their PHI in this particular situation.
23.
Access to PHI may be denied for the following reason and _______________
If the information the patient requested was obtained from someone other than a health care provider under a promise of confidentiality and the access requested would be reasonably likely to reveal the source of the information
Correct Answer
A. IS NOT subject to review or appeal by the patient
Explanation
If the patient's requested information was obtained from a non-healthcare provider under a promise of confidentiality, and granting access to this information would likely reveal the source, the patient's access to PHI may be denied. In this case, the denial is not subject to review or appeal by the patient.
24.
Access to PHI may be denied for the following reason and _______________
If a licensed health care professional has determined, in the exercise of professional judgement, that the access requested is reasonably likely to endanger the life or physical safety of the individual or another person
Correct Answer
B. IS subject to review and appeal by the patient
Explanation
The given answer is "IS subject to review and appeal by the patient." This means that if a licensed health care professional denies access to PHI (Protected Health Information) because they believe it could endanger someone's life or physical safety, the patient has the right to review and appeal this decision. This allows the patient to challenge the denial and potentially gain access to their PHI if they can provide evidence or arguments that refute the professional's judgment.
25.
Access to PHI may be denied for the following reason and _______________
If the protected health care information make reference to another person (other than a health care provider) and a licensed health care professional has determined, in the exercise of professional judgement, that the access requested is reasonably likely to cause substantial harm to that person
Correct Answer
B. IS subject to review and appeal by the patient
Explanation
If a licensed healthcare professional determines that accessing protected health information (PHI) could potentially cause substantial harm to a person other than the patient, the access may be denied. However, this denial is subject to review and appeal by the patient. This means that the patient has the right to challenge the denial and request access to the PHI, even if it could potentially harm someone else.
26.
Access to PHI may be denied for the following reason and _______________
If the request for access is made by a requestor as a personal representative of the individual about whom the requestor is requesting the information, and a licensed health care professional has determined, in the exercise of professional judgement, that access by you is reasonably likely to cause harm to the individual or another person
Correct Answer
B. IS subject to review and appeal by the patient
Explanation
If a request for access to PHI is made by a personal representative of the individual and a licensed healthcare professional has determined that granting access could potentially cause harm to the individual or another person, the denial of access is subject to review and appeal by the patient. This means that the patient has the right to challenge the decision and seek a reconsideration of the denial.
27.
HIPAA - The patient or requestor should never have access to the original PHI records, only copies viewed in a confidential area under the direct supervision of a designated Department of Public Safety staff member.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Under NO circumstance should orginals of PHI leave the premesis
Access to the actual files or computers that contain the DRS (Designated Record Set) is not permitted to the patient or requestor.
If the patient or requestor would like to retain copies the Department shall charge a reasonable fee
All requests for access to a DRS shall be logged
28.
HIPAA - All requests for amendment to PHI must be forwarded ________ to the Privacy Officer for review
Correct Answer
A. Immediately
Explanation
All requests for amendment to PHI must be forwarded immediately to the Privacy Officer for review. This is because HIPAA requires that any requests for amendment to Protected Health Information (PHI) be handled promptly. This ensures that individuals have the right to request changes to their PHI and that their requests are addressed in a timely manner. By forwarding the requests immediately, the Privacy Officer can begin the review process promptly and ensure compliance with HIPAA regulations.
29.
HIPAA - The Department of Public Safety may deny a request to amend PHI for the following THREE reasons:
Correct Answer(s)
A. If the Department of Public Safety did not create the PHI at issue
B. If the information is not part of the DRS
E. The information is accurate and complete
Explanation
The Department of Public Safety may deny a request to amend PHI if they did not create the PHI at issue, if the information is not part of the DRS, or if the information is accurate and complete. This means that if the Department of Public Safety did not generate the information in question, if it is not part of their records system, or if the information is already accurate and complete, they have the right to deny the request for amendment.
30.
The Field Training Officer Supervisor is responsible for the monthly review of the Probationary Officer Manual.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
He is responsible for the WEEKLY review
31.
The Field Training Officer Supervisor (FTOS) shall make certain the _____________ is completed and submitted to the Director.
Correct Answer
A. Field Training Officer Supervisor's Phase Summary Report
Explanation
The Field Training Officer Supervisor (FTOS) is responsible for ensuring that the Field Training Officer Supervisor's Phase Summary Report is completed and submitted to the Director. This report summarizes the progress and performance of the probationary officers under the supervision of the FTOS. It provides important information about the training and development of the probationary officers and helps in evaluating their readiness for independent duty.
32.
The FTO has two primary roles to fulfill;
Correct Answer(s)
B. A PSO assuming full patrol responsibility
D. A trainer and evaluator of probationary PSO's
Explanation
The correct answer is "A PSO assuming full patrol responsibility" and "A trainer and evaluator of probationary PSO's". The FTO, or Field Training Officer, has the role of training and evaluating probationary PSOs, ensuring that they are ready to assume full patrol responsibility. The FTO not only mentors the probationary PSO but also acts as a trainer and evaluator, providing feedback and recommendations for their acceptance or dismissal.
33.
Probationary PSO may wear their uniform to and from the workplace only upon approval from a supervisor.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The Chief of Police may make exceptions for lateral hires.
34.
A probationary PSO working a day of overtime, who rides with an FTO, will have the day counted as a day worked towards the completion of the program.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The statement is false because a probationary PSO working a day of overtime, who rides with an FTO, would not have the day counted as a day worked towards the completion of the program.
35.
A probationary officer who requires an extension of training will have such extension administered with a formal _________
Correct Answer
D. Performance Improvement Plan
Explanation
When a probationary officer requires an extension of training, their performance may not be meeting the expected standards. In such cases, a Performance Improvement Plan (PIP) is administered to help the officer improve their performance. The PIP outlines specific areas where improvement is needed and sets clear goals and expectations for the probationary officer. It also includes a timeline for the officer to demonstrate improvement. The purpose of the PIP is to provide support and guidance to the probationary officer so they can successfully complete their training and meet the required performance standards.
36.
Recommendations for termination from the FTO program may be initiated at any time during the probationary period and a Employment Status Hearing will be recommended.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
During the probationary period of the FTO program, recommendations for termination can be made at any time. This means that if an employee is not performing well or meeting the required standards, they can be recommended for termination. In such cases, an Employment Status Hearing will be suggested to discuss the employee's performance and determine the appropriate action to be taken. Therefore, the statement "Recommendations for termination from the FTO program may be initiated at any time during the probationary period and an Employment Status Hearing will be recommended" is true.
37.
The _______ bears the ultimate responsibility for the administration and direction of the complaint process, and for the professional standards of the department.
Correct Answer
C. Director
Explanation
The director is the individual who holds the highest level of responsibility for the administration and direction of the complaint process. They are also accountable for maintaining the professional standards of the department.
38.
The office of the Director is responsible for the day to day administration of the complaint process. This shall include, but not be limited to, investigate or assign for investigation all complaints, review Department policy and procedure on a continual basis and any other duties as directed by the Director.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The statement is true because it states that the office of the Director is responsible for the day to day administration of the complaint process. This includes investigating or assigning investigations for all complaints, reviewing department policy and procedure, and carrying out any other duties directed by the Director.
39.
Anonymous complaints should always be accepted for investigation. They should be advised that no personal response will be sent.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Anonymous complaints should always be accepted for investigation because they provide valuable information that may not have been reported otherwise. By accepting anonymous complaints, organizations can uncover potential issues or misconduct that may be occurring within their operations. However, it is important to inform the complainants that no personal response will be sent to maintain their anonymity and protect their identity. This encourages individuals to come forward and report without fear of retaliation or repercussions.
40.
If the supervisor was directly involved in the incident being reported or is among the officers being complained about, another supervisor will take the complaint. If there is not another supervisor available, the complainant will be referred to the Director. The Director will also take any complaint reported directly to him.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
If the supervisor is directly involved in the incident or is among the officers being complained about, it would create a conflict of interest for them to handle the complaint. Therefore, another supervisor will be assigned to handle the complaint. If there is no other supervisor available, the complainant will be referred to the Director, who will then take the complaint. This ensures that complaints are handled impartially and without bias. Therefore, the statement is true.
41.
Any lawsuit, civil rights complaints or complaint of a criminal nature will be referred to the highest ranking supervisor.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
It will be referred directly to the office of the Director. The Director or his designee shall be notified if not on duty.
42.
Regarding a citizen complaint, the appropriate preliminary disposition for a complaint that alleges a minor violation of department directive and the complainant is satisfied with an explanation by the supervisor following the preliminary investigation is
Correct Answer
A. Resolved
Explanation
If the complaint fits the criteria desribed and can be resolved at shift level, the complaint may be held at that level for FOUR working days in an attempt to resolve it. A copy, however, will still be forwarded to the office of the Director at the time of report.
43.
All complaints against members of the department will be resolved in a prompt and timely fashion. It is the goal of the department to resolve all complaints within ________
Correct Answer
D. 14 days
Explanation
Should an extension be necessary, the investigating officer will make the request to the Director
44.
Upon completion of an investigation to a citizen complaint, the _______ shall notify the complainant of the disposition once completed
Correct Answer
B. Director
Explanation
If an employee is disciplined, the complainant will be told only that "Appropriate action was taken".
45.
Use of family sick time should not exceeed _____ consecutive days
Correct Answer
A. 2
Explanation
Employees should not use more than 2 consecutive days of family sick time. This policy is likely in place to ensure that employees do not abuse their sick time privileges and to prevent prolonged absences from work. By limiting the number of consecutive days, employers can ensure that employees are able to return to work in a timely manner and minimize disruptions to the workflow.
46.
The Field Training Program consists of three steps (choose 3):
Correct Answer(s)
A. Field
B. Administrative
C. Probationary
Explanation
The Field Training Program consists of three steps: Field, Administrative, and Probationary. These steps are designed to provide trainees with hands-on experience in the field, teach them administrative tasks and procedures, and evaluate their performance during a probationary period. The Field step focuses on practical training and exposure to real-life situations. The Administrative step covers the necessary paperwork and procedures involved in the job. The Probationary step allows trainees to apply their skills independently while being closely monitored and evaluated. These three steps ensure a comprehensive training experience for the trainees.
47.
Copies of repealed, replaced, or revised Rule, General Order, Procedure or Standard Operating Guide shall be retained permanently in accordance with the Michigan Records Management Services General Retention _________ and __________ (choose 2):
Correct Answer(s)
A. #11 Local Law Enforcement
B. #18 Local Fire and Ambulance Departments
Explanation
Copies of repealed, replaced, or revised Rule, General Order, Procedure or Standard Operating Guide shall be retained permanently in accordance with the Michigan Records Management Services General Retention guidelines for Local Law Enforcement and Local Fire and Ambulance Departments.
48.
Following the Health and Safety policy, MIOSHA Form# _______________ shall be maintained and posted as required by regulations.
Correct Answer
A. 220 - Log and Summary of Occupational Injuries and Illnesses
Explanation
The correct answer is 220 - Log and Summary of Occupational Injuries and Illnesses. This form is required to be maintained and posted as per regulations in order to comply with the Health and Safety policy. It helps in tracking and documenting all occupational injuries and illnesses that occur in the workplace. By maintaining this form, organizations can effectively monitor and address any health and safety issues, and take necessary steps to prevent future incidents.
49.
All impound forms are forwarded to the dispatcher who is responsible for proper LEIN entry. Entry must be made within ___ hours of the vehicle being taken into custody
Correct Answer
A. 24
Explanation
All impound forms are forwarded to the dispatcher who is responsible for proper LEIN entry. Entry must be made within 24 hours of the vehicle being taken into custody. This means that the dispatcher must enter the relevant information into the LEIN system within a day of the vehicle being impounded. This ensures that the necessary details are recorded and can be accessed by law enforcement agencies when needed.
50.
Vehicle towed from private property shall have an impound vehicle record created and be placed in LEIN as impounded within 24 hours of being notified by the towing company that the vehicle has been taken into custody
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
They are placed into LEIN as abandoned, not impounded