Kettering Practice Exam

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Kettering Practice Exam - Quiz

The CRT Practice exam that is in the Kettering package.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the normal range for pulmonary capillary wedge pressure in an adult?    

    • A.

      2 - 6 torr

    • B.

      4 - 12 torr

    • C.

      9 - 18 torr

    • D.

      21 - 28 torr

    Correct Answer
    B. 4 - 12 torr
  • 2. 

    Which of the following techniques measures total lung capacity? 1. Helium dilution 2. Body plethysmograph 3. Single Breath Nitrogen Elimination

    • A.

      1 and 2 only

    • B.

      2 and 3 only

    • C.

      1 and 3 only

    • D.

      1, 2 and 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 and 2 only
  • 3. 

    Which of the following will give the most accurate measurements of volume and flow? 

    • A.

      Collins water-sealed spirometer

    • B.

      Vortex-shedding pneumotachometer

    • C.

      Wright respirometer

    • D.

      Dry-rolling spirometer with electronic potentiometer

    Correct Answer
    A. Collins water-sealed spirometer
  • 4. 

    The most significant problem associated with the use of a bronchoscope is 

    • A.

      Nosocomial infections

    • B.

      Obtaining appropriate specimens

    • C.

      Applying topical anesthesia

    • D.

      Hemoptysis

    Correct Answer
    D. Hemoptysis
  • 5. 

    All of the following are true statements about spacers and holding chambers, EXCEPT 

    • A.

      They do not require patient cooperation with their breathing pattern.

    • B.

      They improve the efficiency of MDI

    • C.

      They can be used for drug delivery by MDl to intubated and mechanically ventilated patients.

    • D.

      If a patient exhales immediately following activation of the inhaler, they will clear the medication from the device and waste the dose.

    Correct Answer
    A. They do not require patient cooperation with their breathing pattern.
  • 6. 

    During oral endotracheal intubation, the tip of the Macintosh laryngoscope blade should be placed 

    • A.

      Between the soft palate and tongue.

    • B.

      In the vallecula.

    • C.

      Under the epiglottis.

    • D.

      Between the vocal cords.

    Correct Answer
    B. In the vallecula.
  • 7. 

    A heat moisture exchanger (HME) could be appropriately used in which of the following situations?  1. Long term mechanical ventilation  2. Short term mechanical ventilation  3. Transport mechanical ventilation 

    • A.

      1 and 2 only

    • B.

      1 and 3 only

    • C.

      2 and 3 only

    • D.

      1,2, and 3

    Correct Answer
    C. 2 and 3 only
  • 8. 

    Which of the following statements is true concerning positive expiratory pressure (PEP) therapy? 

    • A.

      It applies expiratory positive airway pressure (EPAP) using a one-way expiratory valve and a one-way inspiratory flow resistor.

    • B.

      It is used for 5 -10 minute intervals every hour.

    • C.

      The inspiratory flow resistor prevents end- inspiratory pressures from rising above zero.

    • D.

      It may help improve secretion expectoration, decrease hyperinflation and improve airway maintenance.

    Correct Answer
    D. It may help improve secretion expectoration, decrease hyperinflation and improve airway maintenance.
  • 9. 

    Which of the following drug(s) can be administered via an endotracheal tube? 1. naloxone (Narcan) 2. epinephrine (Adrenaline) 3. diazepam (Valium) 

    • A.

      1 only

    • B.

      2 only

    • C.

      2 and 3 only

    • D.

      1,2, and 3

    Correct Answer
    D. 1,2, and 3
  • 10. 

    Which of the following drugs will increase cardiac output and decrease pulmonary vascular resistance? 

    • A.

      Methyldopa (Aldomet)

    • B.

      Procainamide (Pronestyl)

    • C.

      Digitalis

    • D.

      Quinidine

    Correct Answer
    C. Digitalis
  • 11. 

    Which of the following drugs will lower blood pressure and decrease right ventricular preload by direct vasodilation? 

    • A.

      Sodium nitroprusside (Nipride)

    • B.

      Norepinephrine (Levophed)

    • C.

      Propranolol (Inderal)

    • D.

      Hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril)

    Correct Answer
    A. Sodium nitroprusside (Nipride)
  • 12. 

    Which of the following drugs should the therapist recommend for a patient with a serious gram negative infection? 

    • A.

      Tobramycin (Nebcin)

    • B.

      Cefaclor (Ceclor)

    • C.

      Doxapram (Dopram)

    • D.

      Pentamidine (NebuPent)

    Correct Answer
    A. Tobramycin (Nebcin)
  • 13. 

    A patient has taken an overdose of morphine. What drug is indicated to counteract the effects of the morphine? 

    • A.

      Naloxone

    • B.

      Methaqualone

    • C.

      Flurazepam

    • D.

      Secobarbital

    Correct Answer
    A. Naloxone
  • 14. 

    A patient with a head injury has increased intracranial swelling. What drug(s) should the therapist recommend to reduce the ICP?  1. acetazolamide (Diamox) 2. mannitol (Osmitrol) 3. succinylcholine (Anectine) 

    • A.

      1 and 2 only

    • B.

      2 and 3 only

    • C.

      1 and 3 only

    • D.

      1,2 and 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 and 2 only
  • 15. 

     What is the recommended I:E ratio for NPPV? 

    • A.

      1:1

    • B.

      1:2

    • C.

      1:4

    • D.

      1:5

    Correct Answer
    B. 1:2
  • 16. 

    All of the following statements are true concerning NPPV ventilation EXCEPT 

    • A.

      Breaths are pressure controlled.

    • B.

      Two levels of CPAP are applied.

    • C.

      Breaths are flow triggered.

    • D.

      It can be used for non-invasive ventilation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Breaths are pressure controlled.
  • 17. 

    Which of the following controls are available on a chest cuirass ventilator? 1. Tidal volume 2. FI02 3. Inspiratory Time 4. Negative Pressure 5. Flowrate 

    • A.

      1, 2 and 5 only

    • B.

      3 and 4 only

    • C.

      2, 3 and 4 only

    • D.

      1,2,3 and 5 only

    Correct Answer
    B. 3 and 4 only
  • 18. 

    What is the correct formula to measure the static lung compliance of a patient on a volume-limited ventilator? 

    • A.

      Peak pressure + tidal volume

    • B.

      tidal volume + (plateau pressure - PEEP)

    • C.

      Tidal volume + (peak pressure + PEEP)

    • D.

      (plateau pressure - PEEP) + tidal volume

    Correct Answer
    B. tidal volume + (plateau pressure - PEEP)
  • 19. 

    Which artery should a therapist palpate when deciding whether to initiate chest compressions on an adult patient? 

    • A.

      Radial

    • B.

      Brachial

    • C.

      Carotid

    • D.

      Femoral

    Correct Answer
    C. Carotid
  • 20. 

    When initiating oxygen therapy on a patient with a nasal cannula, the therapist would need all of the following EXCEPT 

    • A.

      Physician's order for the liter flow

    • B.

      A flowmeter

    • C.

      No smoking and oxygen in use signs

    • D.

      An oxygen analyzer

    Correct Answer
    D. An oxygen analyzer
  • 21. 

    Mycobacterium tuberculosis is spread primarily by 

    • A.

      Contaminated equipment

    • B.

      Infected sputum

    • C.

      Fomites

    • D.

      Inhalation of droplets

    Correct Answer
    D. Inhalation of droplets
  • 22. 

    Which of the following presents the greatest potential for nosocomial infection? 

    • A.

      Large-reservoir nebulizer

    • B.

      Aerosol tent

    • C.

      Heated humidifier

    • D.

      Small-medication nebulizer

    Correct Answer
    A. Large-reservoir nebulizer
  • 23. 

    The distribution of ventilation in the lungs is measured by: 1. Phase III of the SBN2 Elimination Test 2. N2 wash out time 3. Ventilation lung scan 

    • A.

      1 and 2 only

    • B.

      2 and 3 only

    • C.

      1 and 3 only

    • D.

      1,2 and 3 only

    Correct Answer
    D. 1,2 and 3 only
  • 24. 

    Measurement of the PD20% is significant for which of the following? 

    • A.

      Ventilatory drive

    • B.

      Airway hyperreactivity

    • C.

      Occlusion pressure

    • D.

      Reversibility of bronchospasm

    Correct Answer
    B. Airway hyperreactivity
  • 25. 

    A patient develops ascites and shortness of breath. Where is tissue edema most likely to show up first? 

    • A.

      Ankles

    • B.

      Abdomen

    • C.

      Thorax

    • D.

      Hands

    Correct Answer
    B. Abdomen
  • 26. 

    A patient has frequent premature ventricular contractions. Which of the following laboratory measurements would be helpful in determining the cause? 1. Ca02 2. BUN 3. serum electrolytes 

    • A.

      1 only

    • B.

      2 only

    • C.

      3 only

    • D.

      1 and 3 only

    Correct Answer
    D. 1 and 3 only
  • 27. 

    A 48-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after collapsing in a restaurant. Auscultation reveals fine rales in both bases and the electrocardiogram shows a right axis deviation with significant Q waves in leads I and AVL. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient? 

    • A.

      Cor Pulmonale

    • B.

      Pulmonary Edema

    • C.

      Myocardial Infarction

    • D.

      Pulmonary Embolism

    Correct Answer
    C. Myocardial Infarction
  • 28. 

    A patient's chest x-ray reveals increased vascular engorgement emanating from the hilar area in a bat-wing pattern. What is the most likely cause of this finding? 

    • A.

      Pulmonary embolism

    • B.

      Fluid overload

    • C.

      Pneumonia

    • D.

      Pleural effusion

    Correct Answer
    B. Fluid overload
  • 29. 

    A patient's electrocardiogram shows a _ depressed S-T segment and inverted T waves during an exercise tolerance test. This would indicate 

    • A.

      Pulmonary infarction.

    • B.

      Atrial hypertrophy.

    • C.

      Myocardial ischemia.

    • D.

      Mitral valve stenosis.

    Correct Answer
    C. Myocardial ischemia.
  • 30. 

    During bedside assessment, the therapist auscultates the patient's chest and determines that the patient has bilateral inspiratory and expiratory wheezing. This would imply the patient has 

    • A.

      inflammation of the pleura.

    • B.

      Bronchospasm.

    • C.

      Excessive secretions.

    • D.

      A tracheoesophageal fistula.

    Correct Answer
    B. Bronchospasm.
  • 31. 

    A flattened diaphragm, widened intercostal spaces and blunting of the costophrenic angles on a chest x-ray would be most consistent with 

    • A.

      Pleural effusion.

    • B.

      Pneumothorax.

    • C.

      Pneumonia.

    • D.

      Pulmonary edema.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pleural effusion.
  • 32. 

    Chest x-ray findings of a right-shift of the mediastinum, hyperlucency of the left chest with absent vascular markings would be most likely caused by 

    • A.

      Right-side atelectasis.

    • B.

      Left side pneumothorax.

    • C.

      Pulmonary embolism.

    • D.

      Pulmonary hypertension.

    Correct Answer
    B. Left side pneumothorax.
  • 33. 

    A fiberoptic light source is placed on an infant's right thorax. A lighted halo is seen around the point of contact. The light is then placed on the infant's left chest and no light can be seen. This would indicate that 

    • A.

      The right hemidiaphragm is absent.

    • B.

      There is a right pneumothorax.

    • C.

      There is a pneumomediastinum present.

    • D.

      The left hemidiaphragm is herniated.

    Correct Answer
    D. The left hemidiaphragm is herniated.
  • 34. 

    Which of the following pieces of equipment would be LEAST appropriate for the victim of a house fire? 

    • A.

      Pulse oximeter

    • B.

      Non-rebreather mask

    • C.

      Arterial blood gas kit

    • D.

      CPAP system

    Correct Answer
    A. Pulse oximeter
  • 35. 

    A patient has a transcutaneous oxygen monitor ordered. In order to properly maintain the monitor the therapist should 

    • A.

      Place the heat setting between 44 and 45°C.

    • B.

      Change the electrode site each day.

    • C.

      Calibrate the electrode each week.

    • D.

      Correlate TcP02 readings with ABG Q2H.

    Correct Answer
    A. Place the heat setting between 44 and 45°C.
  • 36. 

    A patient is suspected of having developed a pulmonary embolus. Which of the following tests should the therapist recommend to confirm the diagnosis? 

    • A.

      (A-a)D02

    • B.

      C(a-v)02

    • C.

      VD/VT

    • D.

      P50

    Correct Answer
    C. VD/VT
  • 37. 

    The physician has ordered a shunt study for a patient. After administering 100% oxygen for 20 minutes arterial and mixed venous blood gases are obtained and analyzed:  The patient's PA02 is determined to be 650 mmHg. This would indicate the patient has 

    • A.

      Normal lung function.

    • B.

      A pulmonary embolus.

    • C.

      Emphysema.

    • D.

      Pneumonia.

    Correct Answer
    D. Pneumonia.
  • 38. 

    The patient's P(A-a)02 is calculated to be 410 torr. This should be interpreted as 

    • A.

      A normal oxygenation gradient.

    • B.

      An increased gradient.

    • C.

      A decreased gradient.

    • D.

      A laboratory error.

    Correct Answer
    B. An increased gradient.
  • 39. 

    Based on the P(A-a)02 the respiratory therapist should inform the physician this patient most likely has a problem with 

    • A.

      Ventilation.

    • B.

      V/Q mismatching.

    • C.

      Shunting.

    • D.

      Deadspace.

    Correct Answer
    C. Shunting.
  • 40. 

    A patient's Ca02 is 20.1 vol% and the CV02 is 14.6 vol%. The oxygen consumption is 220 mLlmin. The patient's cardiac output would be 

    • A.

      4 L/min

    • B.

      7 L/min

    • C.

      10 L/min

    • D.

      14 L/min

    Correct Answer
    A. 4 L/min
  • 41. 

    A post-operative patient appears tachypneic and anxious. The patient's PaC02 is 40 torr and the PEC02 is 10 torr. What does this data indicate? 

    • A.

      inaccurate exhaled CO2 reading

    • B.

      Normal post-operative ventilation

    • C.

      Increased deadspace

    • D.

      Decreased shunting

    Correct Answer
    C. Increased deadspace
  • 42. 

    A patient with chronic ventilatory failure enters the emergency room. The following blood gases and vital signs are obtained while he is breathing room air:  The patient is alert and oriented yet complaining of shortness of breath. Which of the following is the correct acid-base interpretation of these results? 

    • A.

      Uncompensated respiratory acidosis

    • B.

      Compensated metabolic alkalosis

    • C.

      Acute metabolic acidosis

    • D.

      Compensated respiratory acidosis

    Correct Answer
    D. Compensated respiratory acidosis
  • 43. 

    Serial measurements of the Ca02 and CV02 have been gathered on a patient receiving mechanical ventilation following coronary artery bypass surgery. Which of the a-v content differences below show the greatest decrease in cardiac output? 

    • A.

      Ca02 (vol%) = 19.1 ; CV02 (vol%) = 12.0

    • B.

      Ca02 (vol%) = 18.5 ; CV02 (vol%) = 11.1

    • C.

      Ca02 (vol%) = 20.1 ; CV02 (vol%) = 15.5

    • D.

      Ca02 (vol%) = 19.8 ; CV02 (vol%) = 16.0

    Correct Answer
    B. Ca02 (vol%) = 18.5 ; CV02 (vol%) = 11.1
  • 44. 

    A 10-year-old patient with asthma needs to monitor his airflow improvement following each Beta-2 agonist treatment taken at home. Which of the following should the therapist recommend? 

    • A.

      Turbine pneumotachometer

    • B.

      Peak flow meter

    • C.

      Pulse oximeter

    • D.

      Volume displacement spirometer

    Correct Answer
    B. Peak flow meter
  • 45. 

    Which of the following can be used to calculate inspiratory capacity? 

    • A.

      VC-RV

    • B.

      TLC - FRC

    • C.

      ERV+VT

    • D.

      RV+ RV

    Correct Answer
    B. TLC - FRC
  • 46. 

    The pulmonologist has ordered pulmonary function studies on a patient with severe kyphoscoliosis. Which method would be best to obtain the patient's height? 

    • A.

      Measure from their hip to the ground and multiply by two

    • B.

      Use their actual height from feet to head

    • C.

      Calculate using their arm span

    • D.

      Measure their girth and multiply by three

    Correct Answer
    C. Calculate using their arm span
  • 47. 

    The following flow-volume loop was obtained from a 58-year-old man.  What is the most likely diagnosis? 

    • A.

      Emphysema

    • B.

      Pneumonia

    • C.

      Fixed upper airway obstruction

    • D.

      Pulmonary fibrosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Emphysema
  • 48. 

    The following pulmonary function data was obtained from a patient:  These values would be consistent with which of the following conditions? 1. Restrictive pulmonary disease 2. Obstructive pulmonary disease 3. Pulmonary diffusion defect 

    • A.

      2 only

    • B.

      1 and 2 only

    • C.

      1 and 3 only

    • D.

      2 and 3 only

    Correct Answer
    C. 1 and 3 only
  • 49. 

    A therapist obtains the following information from a patient:  Given this information, this patient 

    • A.

      Has an increased deadspace to tidal volume ratio.

    • B.

      Has a 30% intrapulmonary shunt.

    • C.

      Is breathing effectively.

    • D.

      Should be started on oxygen therapy.

    Correct Answer
    A. Has an increased deadspace to tidal volume ratio.
  • 50. 

    When the FI02 setting on a large volume nebulizer is changed from 40% to 60%, which of the following will occur? 1. Total flow to the patient will increase 2. More air will be entrained through the nebulizer 3. The density of the aerosol will increase 

    • A.

      1 and 2 only

    • B.

      2 only

    • C.

      3 only

    • D.

      1,2, and 3

    Correct Answer
    C. 3 only

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  • Sep 17, 2015
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