ITIL Exam B
ITIL
- 1.
At which stage of the Service Lifecycle should the processes needed to operate a new service be defined?Service Design: Design the processes
- A.
Service Design: Design the processes
- B.
Service Strategy: Develop the offerings
- C.
Service Transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
- D.
Service Operation: IT Operations Management
Correct Answer
A. Service Design: Design the processes -
- 2.
Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
- A.
Service Catalogue Management
- B.
Service Level Management
- C.
IT Service Continuity Management
- D.
Capacity Management
Correct Answer
D. Capacity Management -
- 3.
Which of the following are objectives of Service Level Management? *1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of IT Services to be provided *2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided *3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction *4: Identifying possible future markets that the Service Provider could operate in
- A.
1, 2 and 3 only
- B.
1 and 2 only
- C.
1, 2 and 4 only
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. 1, 2 and 3 only -
- 4.
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?
- A.
Continual Service Improvement
- B.
Business Relationship Management
- C.
Service Level Management
- D.
Availability Management
Correct Answer
C. Service Level Management -
- 5.
Availability Management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the following?
- A.
IT Services and Components
- B.
IT Services and Business Processes
- C.
Components and Business Processes
- D.
IT Services, Components and Business Processes
Correct Answer
A. IT Services and Components -
- 6.
Which of the following does the Availability Management process include? *1. Ensuring services are able to meet availability targets *2. Monitoring and reporting actual availability *3. Improvement activities, to ensure that services continue to meet or exceed their availability goals
- A.
1 only
- B.
All of the above
- C.
1 and 2 only
- D.
1 and 3 only
Correct Answer
B. All of the above -
- 7.
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?
- A.
Change Management
- B.
Service Portfolio Management
- C.
Supplier Management
- D.
Continual Service Improvement
Correct Answer
C. Supplier Management -
- 8.
Where should performance information that supports the Capacity Management process be stored?
- A.
A configuration management database (CMDB)
- B.
A capacity management database (CMDB)
- C.
A configuration management system (CMS)
- D.
A capacity management information system (CMIS)
Correct Answer
D. A capacity management information system (CMIS) -
- 9.
Which process contains the Business, Service and Component sub-processes?
- A.
Capacity Management
- B.
Incident Management
- C.
Service Level Management
- D.
Financial Management
Correct Answer
A. Capacity Management -
- 10.
IT Service Continuity strategy should be based on: *1. Design of the service metrics *2. Business continuity strategy *3. Business Impact Analysis *4. Risk assessment
- A.
1, 2 and 4 only
- B.
1, 2 and 3 only
- C.
2, 3 and 4 only
- D.
1, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer
C. 2, 3 and 4 only -
- 11.
Which of these should a change model include? *l. The steps that should be taken to handle the change *2. Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation *3. Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions *4. Complaints procedures
- A.
1,2 and 3 only
- B.
All of the above
- C.
1 and 2 only
- D.
2 and 4 only
Correct Answer
A. 1,2 and 3 only -
- 12.
Which of the following BEST describes a Change Authority?
- A.
The Change Advisory Board
- B.
A person that provides formal authorisation for a particular type of change.
- C.
A role, person or a group of people that provides formal authorisation for a particular type of change.
- D.
The Change Manager who provides formal authorisation for each change
Correct Answer
C. A role, person or a group of people that provides formal authorisation for a particular type of change. -
- 13.
The group that reviews Changes that must be installed faster than the normal Change process is called the:
- A.
Technical Management (TM)
- B.
Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)
- C.
Urgent Change Board (UCB)
- D.
Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
Correct Answer
B. Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB) -
- 14.
Which of these would fall outside the scope of a typical service change management process?
- A.
A change to a contract with a supplier
- B.
A firmware upgrade to a server that is only used for IT Service Continuity purposes
- C.
An urgent need to replace a CPU to restore a service during an incident
- D.
A change to a business process
Correct Answer
D. A change to a business process -
- 15.
Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of Release and Deployment Management?
- A.
To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design
- B.
To ensure that each Release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related assets and service components
- C.
To ensure that all changes can be tracked, tested and verified if appropriate
- D.
To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service
Correct Answer
A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design -
- 16.
Which of these activities would you expect to be performed by a Service Desk? *1. Logging details of Incidents and Service Requests *2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis *3. Restoring service *4. Diagnosing the root-cause of Problems
- A.
All of the above
- B.
1, 2 and 3 only
- C.
1, 2 and 4 only
- D.
2, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer
B. 1, 2 and 3 only -
- 17.
Which of the following functions would be responsible for management of a data centre?
- A.
Technical Management
- B.
Service Desk
- C.
Applications Management
- D.
Facilities Management
Correct Answer
D. Facilities Management -
- 18.
Which of the following is a PRIMARY concern of IT Governance?
- A.
Measuring and improving the efficiency and effectiveness of processes
- B.
Ensuring that processes and procedures are correctly followed
- C.
Reducing the total cost of providing services
- D.
Ensuring that agreed Service Level Requirements are met
Correct Answer
B. Ensuring that processes and procedures are correctly followed -
- 19.
Which of the following is the BEST definition of a Risk?
- A.
Something that will not happen
- B.
Something that will happen
- C.
Something that has happened
- D.
Something that might happen
Correct Answer
D. Something that might happen -
- 20.
A Service Level Agreement (SLA) is:
- A.
The part of a contract that specifies responsibilities of each party
- B.
An agreement between the Service Provider and an internal organization
- C.
An agreement between a Service Provider and an external supplier
- D.
An agreement between the Service Provider and their customer
Correct Answer
D. An agreement between the Service Provider and their customer -
- 21.
What are underpinning contracts used to document?
- A.
The provision of IT services or business services by a Service Provider
- B.
The provision of goods and services by Suppliers
- C.
Service Levels that have been agreed between the Service Provider and their Customer
- D.
Metrics and Critical Success Factors (CSFs) in an external agreement
Correct Answer
B. The provision of goods and services by Suppliers -
- 22.
The Definitive Media Library and Definitive Spares are the responsibility of:
- A.
Facilities Management
- B.
Access Management
- C.
Request Fulfilment
- D.
Service Asset and Configuration Management
Correct Answer
D. Service Asset and Configuration Management -
- 23.
Which process is responsible for dealing with complaints, comments, and general enquiries from users?
- A.
Service Level Management
- B.
Service Portfolio Management
- C.
Request Fulfilment
- D.
Demand Management
Correct Answer
C. Request Fulfilment -
- 24.
What are Request Models used for?
- A.
Assessing changes to understand their potential impact
- B.
Modeling arrival rates and performance characteristics of service requests
- C.
Comparing the advantages and disadvantages of different Service Desk approaches such as local or remote
- D.
Defining how frequently received user requests should be handled
Correct Answer
D. Defining how frequently received user requests should be handled -
- 25.
What is the objective of Access Management?
- A.
To provide security staff for Data Centers and other buildings
- B.
To manage access to computer rooms and other secure locations
- C.
To manage access to the Service Desk
- D.
To manage the right to use a service or group of services
Correct Answer
D. To manage the right to use a service or group of services -
- 26.
A configuration model can be used to help *1. Assess the impact and cause of incidents and problems *2. Assess the impact of proposed changes *3. Plan and design new or changed services *4. Plan technology refresh and software upgrades
- A.
1, 2, and 3 only
- B.
All of the above
- C.
1, 2 and 4 only
- D.
3 and 4 only
Correct Answer
B. All of the above -
- 27.
Which of these is the BEST description of a release unit?
- A.
The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together
- B.
The smallest part of a service or IT infrastructure that can be independently changed
- C.
The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is changed by a particular release
- D.
A metric for measuring the effectiveness of the Release and Deployment Management process
Correct Answer
A. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together -
- 28.
Which process is responsible for monitoring an IT Service and detecting when the performance drops below acceptable limits?
- A.
Service Asset and Configuration Management
- B.
Event Management
- C.
Service Catalogue Management
- D.
Performance Management
Correct Answer
B. Event Management -
- 29.
Which of the following can include steps that will help to resolve an Incident? *1. Incident Model *2. Known Error Record
- A.
1 only
- B.
2 only
- C.
Both of the above
- D.
Neither of the above
Correct Answer
C. Both of the above -
- 30.
Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?
- A.
Demand Management
- B.
Incident Management
- C.
Release and Deployment Management
- D.
Request Fulfilment
Correct Answer
D. Request Fulfilment -
- 31.
Who is responsible for defining Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) for Change Management?
- A.
The Change Management Process Owner
- B.
The Change Advisory Board (CAB)
- C.
The Service Owner
- D.
The Continual Service Improvement Manager
Correct Answer
A. The Change Management Process Owner -
- 32.
Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented process?
- A.
The IT Director
- B.
The Process Owner
- C.
The Service Owner
- D.
The Customer
Correct Answer
B. The Process Owner -
- 33.
Access Management is closely related to which other process?
- A.
Capacity Management only
- B.
3rd line support
- C.
Information Security Management
- D.
Change Management
Correct Answer
C. Information Security Management -
- 34.
Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
- A.
The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
- B.
The design of new or changed services
- C.
The design of Market Spaces
- D.
The design of the technology architecture and management systems
Correct Answer
C. The design of Market Spaces -
- 35.
Which of the following activities is NOT a part of the Deming Cycle?
- A.
Act
- B.
Plan
- C.
Do
- D.
Coordinate
Correct Answer
D. Coordinate -
- 36.
A Process Owner is responsible for which of the following? *1. Documenting the process *2. Defining process Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) *3. Improving the process *4. Performing all activities involved in a process
- A.
1, 3 and 4 only
- B.
All of the above
- C.
1, 2 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer
C. 1, 2 and 3 only -
- 37.
Which of the following statements about the Service Owner is INCORRECT?
- A.
Is responsible for the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own
- B.
Is responsible for contributing to continual improvement affecting the service they own
- C.
Is a primary stakeholder in all of the underlying IT processes which support the service they own
- D.
Is accountable for a specific service within an organization
Correct Answer
A. Is responsible for the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own -
- 38.
A Process Owner has been identified with an "I" in a RACI matrix. Which of the following would be expected of them?
- A.
Tell others about the progress of an activity
- B.
Perform an activity
- C.
Be kept up to date on the progress of an activity
- D.
Manage an activity
Correct Answer
C. Be kept up to date on the progress of an activity -
- 39.
Which of the following models would be most useful in helping to define an organizational structure?
- A.
RACI Model
- B.
Service Model
- C.
Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model
- D.
Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) Model
Correct Answer
A. RACI Model -
- 40.
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of Service Catalogue Management?
- A.
Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
- B.
Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
- C.
Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio
- D.
Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
Correct Answer
B. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate -
- 41.
Which process would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?
- A.
Change Management
- B.
Service Catalogue Management
- C.
Supplier Management
- D.
Release and Deployment Management
Correct Answer
C. Supplier Management -
- 42.
Which of the following are valid parts of the Service Portfolio? *1. Service Pipeline *2. Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) *3. Service Catalogue
- A.
1 and 2 only
- B.
3 only
- C.
1 and 3 only
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. 1 and 3 only -
- 43.
Which of the following provides the primary guidance on what protection Information Security Management should provide for each asset?
- A.
The IT Executive
- B.
The ISO27001 Standard
- C.
The Business
- D.
The Service Level Manager
Correct Answer
C. The Business -
- 44.
Which process will perform risk analysis and review of all suppliers and contracts on a regular basis?
- A.
The Service Level Management
- B.
The IT Service Continuity Management
- C.
The Service Catalogue Management
- D.
The Supplier Management
Correct Answer
D. The Supplier Management -
- 45.
What does a service always deliver to customers?
- A.
Applications
- B.
Infrastructure
- C.
Value
- D.
Resources
Correct Answer
C. Value -
- 46.
Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service?
- A.
The Service Provider
- B.
The Service Level Manager
- C.
The Customer
- D.
The Finance department
Correct Answer
A. The Service Provider -
- 47.
Which stage of the Service Lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?
- A.
Service Design
- B.
Service Transition
- C.
Service Strategy
- D.
Service Operation
Correct Answer
C. Service Strategy -
- 48.
Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?
- A.
Change Management
- B.
Service Transition
- C.
Service Strategy
- D.
Service Design
Correct Answer
D. Service Design -
- 49.
Which of the following are benefits that implementing Service Transition could provide to the business? *1. Ability to adapt quickly to new requirements *2. Reduced cost to design new services *3. Improved success in implementing changes
- A.
1 and 2 only
- B.
2 and 3 only
- C.
1 and 3 only
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. 1 and 3 only -
- 50.
Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?
- A.
Capacity Management
- B.
Governance
- C.
Service Design
- D.
Service Level Management
Correct Answer
B. Governance -
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Current Version
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Mar 22, 2022Quiz Edited by
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Nov 19, 2012Quiz Created by
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