IP Practise Questions

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IP Practise Questions

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Calorie restriction:
    • A. 

      Causes ageing

    • B. 

      Increases free radical activity

    • C. 

      Extends lifespan in mammals

    • D. 

      Reduces lifespan in mammals

    • E. 

      Increases advanced glycation endproducts in body tissues

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      An increase in senescence

    • B. 

      Increased susceptibility to diseases

    • C. 

      A decline in mental activity

    • D. 

      An improvement in vision

    • E. 

      Decrease in ability to do strenuous physical activity

  • 3. 
    Alzheimer's disease:
    • A. 

      Is characterised by absence of neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid deposits in the brain

    • B. 

      Is characterised by loss of motor function

    • C. 

      Is due to insulin resistance

    • D. 

      Has an insiduous onset

    • E. 

      Is due to inflammation in the joints

  • 4. 
    Which one of the following statements is incorrect:
    • A. 

      Superoxide radicals can be produced by phagocytes

    • B. 

      Nitric oxide is not a free radical

    • C. 

      Hydrogen peroxide is not a free radical

    • D. 

      Free radicals are highly reactive

    • E. 

      Hydroxyl radical is more reactive than superoxide radical

  • 5. 
    Free radicals can damage the following molecules:
    • A. 

      All of these

    • B. 

      Carbohydrates

    • C. 

      Proteins

    • D. 

      Lipids

    • E. 

      Nucleus

  • 6. 
    Which one of the following statements is true:
    • A. 

      Aged cells always have normal shaped organelles

    • B. 

      Oxidative phosphorylation in cells increases with age

    • C. 

      Ability of cells to uptake nutrients declines with age

    • D. 

      Telomerase is inactive in cancerous cells

    • E. 

      Ability of cells to repair damaged DNA increases with age

  • 7. 
    • A. 

      Nitric Oxide

    • B. 

      Catalase

    • C. 

      Superoxide dismustase

    • D. 

      None of the answers are correct

    • E. 

      Vitamin E

  • 8. 
    • A. 

      Type 2 diabetes is often characterised by insulin resistance

    • B. 

      Degeneration of dopamine secreting neurones occurs in Parkinson's disease

    • C. 

      Alzheimer's disease is often associated with memory loss

    • D. 

      Cataract has a reduced incidence in the elderly

    • E. 

      Heart attacks are a major cause of death in progeria

  • 9. 
    Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT:
    • A. 

      Wound healing occurs quickly in older subjects

    • B. 

      A decline in function of T cells occurs with age

    • C. 

      Detoxification of drugs occurs more slowly in elderly subjects

    • D. 

      Accumulation of fibrous tissue occurs in the heart with age

    • E. 

      Brain weight declines with age

  • 10. 
    Advanced glycation endproducts:
    • A. 

      Decrease with age in body tissues

    • B. 

      Are more likely to form on long-lived proteins

    • C. 

      Are always cross-linked molecules

    • D. 

      Are not derived from reactions between proteins and sugars

    • E. 

      Are derived from reactions between proteins and lipids

  • 11. 
    • A. 

      Alzheimer's disease

    • B. 

      Cataract

    • C. 

      Cancer

    • D. 

      Phenylketonuria

    • E. 

      Type 2 diabetes mellitus

  • 12. 
    • A. 

      Liver cells from older mice have greater number of mutations compared to similar cells from younger mice

    • B. 

      The error catastrophe theory is concerned with glycation of proteins

    • C. 

      Antioxidants protect against free radicals

    • D. 

      Telomeres are protective caps at the end of chromosomes

    • E. 

      Ability of cells to repair damaged DNA declines with age

  • 13. 
    • A. 

      Increased sexual maturity

    • B. 

      Prominent scalp veins

    • C. 

      Short stature

    • D. 

      Thinning of skin

    • E. 

      Severe arthritis

  • 14. 
    A gradual decline in function of cells, organs and tissues with ageing is referred to as:
    • A. 

      Lipofuscin

    • B. 

      Senescence

    • C. 

      Oxidative stress

    • D. 

      Longevity

    • E. 

      Life expectancy

  • 15. 
    • A. 

      Alopecia is a feature of patients with progeria

    • B. 

      Vitamin E is a pro oxidant

    • C. 

      Calorie restriction reduces age-associated mutations

    • D. 

      Life expectancy of progeria is 13 years

    • E. 

      Vitamin E is a free radical scavenger

  • 16. 
    A free radical can be defined as:
    • A. 

      An atom or molecule with no unpaired electrons

    • B. 

      An atom or molecule that is reactive

    • C. 

      An atom or molecule with no charge

    • D. 

      An atom or molecule that is unreactive

    • E. 

      An atom or molecule with one or more unpaired electrons

  • 17. 
    • A. 

      Is the maximum age attained by a member of a particular species

    • B. 

      Is the minimum age attained by a member of a particular species

    • C. 

      Is the mean age of individuals in a population

    • D. 

      Is the minimum age of individuals in a population

    • E. 

      None of the answers are correct

  • 18. 
    • A. 

      Ionising radiation

    • B. 

      Respiratory burst in phagocytic cells

    • C. 

      Autoxidation of glucose during hyperglycaemia

    • D. 

      Smoking

    • E. 

      Rearrangement of the Schiff base to Amadori product during glycation

  • 19. 
    Ageing is defined as:
    • A. 

      When all your body cells die

    • B. 

      When you lack energy

    • C. 

      The greying of your hair

    • D. 

      An increasing ability to survive

    • E. 

      A decreasing ability to survive

  • 20. 
    • A. 

      Transplanting the nucleus of a young cell into an old cytoplasm will give a new cell with the same lifespan of the cytoplasm

    • B. 

      Transplanting the nucleus of an old cell into a young cytoplasm will give a new cell with lifespan of the transplanted nucleus

    • C. 

      Liver cells from a strain of mice with a short lifespan have a higher incidence of mutations compared to similar cells from a strain of mice with longer lifespan

    • D. 

      Telomerase can prevent shortening of telomeres

    • E. 

      Fibroblasts from human embryo's undergo approximately 50 divisions

  • 21. 
    Which one of the following is the correct definition for lifespan?
    • A. 

      Is the minimum age of individuals in a population

    • B. 

      Is the mean age of individuals in a population

    • C. 

      Is the maximum age attained by a member of a particular species

    • D. 

      None of the available answers are correct

    • E. 

      Is the minimum age attained by a member of a particular species

  • 22. 
    • A. 

      There are approximately 30 cases worldwide

    • B. 

      Progeria is also known as the Hutchinson-Gilford syndrome

    • C. 

      Progeria is an accelerated form of ageing

    • D. 

      Cultured fibroblasts from children with progeria often have a shorter lifespan compared to fibroblasts from normal children of similar age

    • E. 

      Progeria patients always have a low secretion of hyaluronic acid in their urine

  • 23. 
    • A. 

      Amadori product formation is completely irreversible

    • B. 

      Schiff base products can be detected by their fluorescence

    • C. 

      Formation of Amadori products depends on concentration of sugar

    • D. 

      Schiff base formation following reaction between a protein and sugar is irreversible

    • E. 

      Formation of advanced glycation endproducts is freely reversible

  • 24. 
    Which of the following is NOT an antioxidant?
    • A. 

      Superoxide dismutase

    • B. 

      Vitamin E

    • C. 

      Glutathione

    • D. 

      Vitamin C

    • E. 

      Superoxide

  • 25. 
    • A. 

      Patients with progeria are often placed on high-dose aspirin therapy

    • B. 

      An age-related accumulation of carcinogenic substances may increase the incidence of cancer in the elderly

    • C. 

      Vitamin E is lipid soluble

    • D. 

      In developed countries, a major proportion of the healthcare budget is used in the care and treatment of the elderly

    • E. 

      Glutathione is usually maintained in the reduced state in cells

  • 26. 
    A major waste product believed to accumulate in ageing cells is:
    • A. 

      Telomerase

    • B. 

      Lipofuscin

    • C. 

      Superoxide

    • D. 

      Glucose

    • E. 

      Pentosidine

  • 27. 
    • A. 

      Cataract

    • B. 

      All of these

    • C. 

      Cancer

    • D. 

      Alzheimer's disease

    • E. 

      Type 2 diabetes mellitus

  • 28. 
    Human diploid cells have 44 chromosomes
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 29. 
    Which of the following mechanisms might be associated with oncogene activation?
    • A. 

      All statements are correct

    • B. 

      Chromosomal translocations

    • C. 

      Point mutations or deletions in the regulatory regions of proto-oncogenes

    • D. 

      Point mutations or deletions in the coding region of proto-oncogenes

  • 30. 
    Which of the following is the most appropriate definition of differentiation?
    • A. 

      Cells containing identical genetic information begin to diverge in their structure and function

    • B. 

      The number of cells in the tissue decreases

    • C. 

      Cells cease to divide

    • D. 

      Involves a chemical change in DNA structure

  • 31. 
    • A. 

      It does not manifest if a dominant gene is expressed

    • B. 

      It manifests as a more severe disorder than when a person is homozygous for a recessive gene

    • C. 

      It manifests when there is one abnormal gene expressed and the homologous gene is normal

    • D. 

      It manifests when one of a homologous pair is deleted

  • 32. 
    Which of the following is an increase in tissue mass resulting from an increase in the size of its constituent cells?
    • A. 

      Hyperplasia

    • B. 

      Dysplasia

    • C. 

      Metaplasia

    • D. 

      Hypertrophy

  • 33. 
    A normal karyotype is aneuploid
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 34. 
    Which of the following descriptions of wild-type p 53 protein is incorrect?
    • A. 

      P53 regulates the cell cycle

    • B. 

      P53 regulates DNA repair

    • C. 

      P53 is a tumour suppressor protein

    • D. 

      P53 is encoded by an oncogene

  • 35. 
    Which of the following is not a characteristic of cancer cells?
    • A. 

      Loss of contact inhibition

    • B. 

      Undergoing apoptosis

    • C. 

      Loss of cell cycle control

    • D. 

      Anchorage independent growth

  • 36. 
    Skeletal and cardiac muscle and nerve tissue are unable to undergo cell division
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 37. 
    Which of the following is the most appropriate definition of a retrovirus?
    • A. 

      None of the answers are correct

    • B. 

      It is a virus which uses a reverse transcriptase enzyme

    • C. 

      It is a DNA virus which transactivates genes

    • D. 

      It is a tumour-causing virus

  • 38. 
    Muscle mass increases after exercise by the process of normal physiological hypertrophy
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 39. 
    As a tumour grows, it remains as a single clone of the cell from which it was originally derived
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 40. 
    The reason that the size of the prostate gland increases with age may be longer exposure to testosterone, a process called pathological hyperplasia
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 41. 
    Decreased functional demand, loss of blood supply and loss of innervation can all contribute to pathological atrophy
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 42. 
    The Epstein-Barr virus is associated with which of the following?
    • A. 

      Kaposi’s sarcoma

    • B. 

      Cervical cancer

    • C. 

      Burkitt’s lymphoma

    • D. 

      Liver cancer

  • 43. 
    Human papilloma virus (HPV) is associated with which of the following?
    • A. 

      Breast cancer

    • B. 

      Lung cancer

    • C. 

      Cervical cancer

    • D. 

      Prostate cancer

  • 44. 
    A mutation in a proto-oncogene results in a ‘gain in function’ for that gene, while a mutation in a tumour-suppressor gene results in a loss of function
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 45. 
    Insertional mutagenesis is:
    • A. 

      The incorporation of DNA into a site in the genome that alters the activity of a gene

    • B. 

      The transfer of DNA from one cell to another and its incorporation into the genome of the other cell

    • C. 

      The passage of a virus from one cell to another

    • D. 

      None of the answers are correct (could be A, but IM inserts bases, not DNA)

  • 46. 
    About 50% of all human cancers may involve an abnormal or missing:
    • A. 

      P53 gene

    • B. 

      Rb gene

    • C. 

      Oncogene

    • D. 

      Proto-oncogene

  • 47. 
    The p53 protein normally promotes which of the following
    • A. 

      Cell apoptosis

    • B. 

      Cell differentiation

    • C. 

      Cell proliferation

    • D. 

      Tumour formation

  • 48. 
    Which of the following is NOT a mechanism used by Pseudomonads to evade host defences? 
    • A. 

      Inactivate complement components

    • B. 

      Possess iron-bonding molecules

    • C. 

      Interfere with function of phagocyte

    • D. 

      Resist killing and multiply in phagocyte

    • E. 

      Interfere with ciliary activity

  • 49. 
    Exotoxins: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Are immunogenic

    • B. 

      Are heat stable

    • C. 

      Are integral parts of the microbial cell wall

    • D. 

      Are only produced by Gram-positive bacteria

    • E. 

      Can be converted to toxoids

  • 50. 
    Respiratory tract infections: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Are rarely caused by fungi

    • B. 

      Are common in people with impaired ciliary function

    • C. 

      Are frequently caused by viruses

    • D. 

      Are usually self-limiting

  • 51. 
    Schistosomes: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Have a larval development stage in aquatic snails

    • B. 

      Are acquired via larval penetration of the skin

    • C. 

      Are protozoan parasites

    • D. 

      Infect the skin and eyes

    • E. 

      Can acquire host molecules on their surface to evade the immune system

  • 52. 
    Re-emerging diseases include: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Tuberculosis

    • B. 

      Cholera

    • C. 

      Cryptosporidium

    • D. 

      HIV

    • E. 

      Malaria

  • 53. 
    Successful pathogens: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Complete their life cycle before the immune response is evoked

    • B. 

      All possess a capsule

    • C. 

      Are easily transmitted between hosts

    • D. 

      Produce toxins as virulence factors

    • E. 

      Are increasingly resistant to antibiotics

  • 54. 
    Microorganisms can overcome the innate defences by: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Antigenic switching

    • B. 

      Antigenic mimicry

    • C. 

      Production of igA protease

    • D. 

      Production of endotoxins

    • E. 

      Production of Haemolysins

  • 55. 
    Protozoa: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      All undergo sexual reproduction in vectors

    • B. 

      Are prevelent in temperate climates

    • C. 

      Cause disease in the blood, intestine or urino-genital system

    • D. 

      Are unicellular parasites

    • E. 

      Only exist intracellularly

  • 56. 
    The following viruses are associated with malignant transformation of cells: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Adenovirus

    • B. 

      Hepatitis B virus

    • C. 

      Rotavirus

    • D. 

      Human papilloma virus

    • E. 

      Epstein-Barr virus

  • 57. 
    The following can be classed as persistent infections: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Cytomegalovirus

    • B. 

      Rubella

    • C. 

      Varicella zoster virus

    • D. 

      Hepatitis A virus

    • E. 

      HIV

  • 58. 
    Nomenclature and classification of bacteria: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Is important to ensure the correct treatment is given

    • B. 

      Is done using a variety of methods

    • C. 

      Is based solely on the GC content of their DNA

    • D. 

      Helps to determine evolutionary changes

    • E. 

      Is based solely on their structure

  • 59. 
    Urinary tract infections: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Are easily transmitted between individuals

    • B. 

      Are a common infection in nuns

    • C. 

      Can be acquired from the blood stream

    • D. 

      Are frequently caused by viruses

    • E. 

      Are more frequently seen in women than men

  • 60. 
    Streptococcus pneumoniae: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Possess flagella

    • B. 

      Is a causative agent of pneumonia

    • C. 

      Is spread via the faecal oral route

    • D. 

      Is a normal inhabitant in the upper respiratory tract

    • E. 

      May possess a capsule

  • 61. 
    A pathogen can overcome the host defences by: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Inhibiting phago-lysosomal fusion

    • B. 

      Producing membrane damaging toxins

    • C. 

      Interfering with ciliary activity

    • D. 

      Producing a capsule

    • E. 

      Suppressing the immune response

  • 62. 
    The following are spread via the bloodstream: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Rabies

    • B. 

      Malaria

    • C. 

      Herpes simplex virus

    • D. 

      Hepatitis B virus

    • E. 

      Varicella-zoster virus

  • 63. 
    Fungi which cause infection: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Divide by budding

    • B. 

      All have capsules

    • C. 

      Can be part of the normal flora

    • D. 

      Are free living organisms

    • E. 

      Are all dermatophytes

  • 64. 
    Cutaneous infections are caused by: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Candida albicans

    • B. 

      Microsporum canis

    • C. 

      Aspergillus fumigatis

    • D. 

      Cryptococcus neoformans

    • E. 

      Epidermophyton floccosum

  • 65. 
    Infections transmitted vertically include: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Treponema pallidium

    • B. 

      Typhoid

    • C. 

      Influenzae

    • D. 

      CMV

    • E. 

      Rubella

  • 66. 
    Intracellular parasites: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      May move extensively within body tissues

    • B. 

      Result in a more widespread and rapid infection than extracellular pathogens

    • C. 

      Can grow and reproduce freely

    • D. 

      Have access to the host's nutrient supply and genetic machinery

    • E. 

      Are protected from many of the host's defence mechanisms

  • 67. 
    An endotoxin is: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      A toxin known for its primary attack on the epidermis of mammals

    • B. 

      A toxin produced within Archaean cells

    • C. 

      The toxic product of the LPS component of the outer leaflet of the membrane

    • D. 

      The toxin produced in the periplasm of most bacteria

  • 68. 
    Host factors influencing susceptibility to disease are:
    • A. 

      Stress

    • B. 

      Pregnancy

    • C. 

      Foreign bodies

    • D. 

      Atmospheric pollution

    • E. 

      Malnutrition

  • 69. 
    During bacterial transposition:
    • A. 

      DNA is transferred by infection with a bacteriophage

    • B. 

      Point mutations occur in single nucleotides, which may alter the DNA triplet code

    • C. 

      DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another

    • D. 

      DNA fragments from related species are taken up by competent bacteria

    • E. 

      Groups of co-ordinately controlled virulence genes can be transferred

  • 70. 
    Spore-forming bacteria:
    • A. 

      Outgrow to vegatative forms in adverse environments

    • B. 

      Have high levels of dipicolinic acid

    • C. 

      Only stay dormant a few years

    • D. 

      Have low levels of calcium

    • E. 

      Rarely cause disease

  • 71. 
    Which of the following is NOT a strategy employed by parasites to elude lymphocytes?
    • A. 

      Immune modulation

    • B. 

      Production of haemolysins

    • C. 

      Antigenic mimicry

    • D. 

      Concealment of antigens

    • E. 

      Antigenic switching

  • 72. 
    Bacteria can acquire new genes into genome during: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Transduction

    • B. 

      Transformation

    • C. 

      Conjugation

    • D. 

      Gene regulation

    • E. 

      Translation

  • 73. 
    Native C-reactive protein is useful for determination of which of the following in relation to heart disease? (select one or more)
    • A. 

      A marker of angiogensis

    • B. 

      Associated with arterial calcification

    • C. 

      A marker of inflammation

    • D. 

      Treatment for existing atherosclerosis

    • E. 

      Related to the risk of ischaemic episodes and a predictor of cardiovascular events

  • 74. 
    What is NOT one of the direct effects of development of weak atherosclerotic plaque neovessels?
    • A. 

      Immune cell infiltration

    • B. 

      Cell apoptosis

    • C. 

      Increased inflammation

    • D. 

      Increased blood in the local area

    • E. 

      Decreased stability of the plaque

  • 75. 
    Laboratory tests for myocardial infarction include: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Plasma fibrinogen levels

    • B. 

      Haemoglobin estimation

    • C. 

      Heparin assay

    • D. 

      Cardiac enzyme levels

    • E. 

      Markers of tissue damage

  • 76. 
    Based on current understanding, in the future how is nanotechnology likely to help in the diagnosis/treatment of atherosclerosis? (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Nanoparticles targeted to vasa vasorum and containing endothelial cell inhibitors could inactivate them and reduce later development of atherosclerotic plaques

    • B. 

      The use of nanoparticles provides no advantages for the current imaging of plaques when compared with conventional methods

    • C. 

      Nanoparticles could be used to dissolve existing plaques

    • D. 

      Imaging of targeted nanoparticles could be used to visualise plaque distribution and structure

    • E. 

      Targeted nanoparticles could bind to existing cells within plaques and release a payload of siRNA or drugs to reduce plaque development

  • 77. 
    The pathogenic effects of cigarette smoking include: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Increased blood pressure

    • B. 

      Decreased plasma fibrinogen

    • C. 

      Increased platelet aggregation

    • D. 

      Increased plasma cholesterol

    • E. 

      Endothelial damage

  • 78. 
    Premature coronary heart risk can be assessed by measurement of: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      High density lipoprotein

    • B. 

      Lipoprotien (a)

    • C. 

      Apolipoprotein A1 levels

    • D. 

      Apolipoprotein B 100

    • E. 

      Oestrogen

  • 79. 
    Which of these is a commonly used blood biomarker used to detect the increased chances of a patient undergoing a cardiovascular event?
    • A. 

      Advanced glycation end-products

    • B. 

      C-reactive protein

    • C. 

      Glucose

    • D. 

      Beta amyloid

    • E. 

      Cholesterol

  • 80. 
    Dietary control of plasma cholesterol may be ineffective because: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Cholesterol is synthesised by the body

    • B. 

      The ratio of HDL to LDL cholesterol is not affected

    • C. 

      Hypertension is increased

    • D. 

      Cholesterol is less important than other risk factors

    • E. 

      Regulation of cholesterol is inherited

  • 81. 
    Mechanisms involved in the pathogenesis of thrombosis include: (select one or more) 
    • A. 

      Turbulent blood flow

    • B. 

      Changes in blood constituents

    • C. 

      Damage to the surface of the intima

    • D. 

      Loss of bone density

    • E. 

      Renal failure

  • 82. 
    Hypertension may be lowered by: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Anticoagulant treatment

    • B. 

      Decreasing saturated fat intake

    • C. 

      Diuretic treatment

    • D. 

      Fibrinolytic treatment

    • E. 

      Cessation of smoking

  • 83. 
    Which of the following treatments has never been given to patients with acute myocardial infarction caused by coronary artery disease? 
    • A. 

      Aspirin

    • B. 

      Beta-blockers

    • C. 

      VEGF therapy

    • D. 

      Administration of tPA

    • E. 

      Folic acid

  • 84. 
    Antioxidants may exert a protective effect in CHD by: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Preventing LDL oxidation

    • B. 

      Increasing HDL levels

    • C. 

      Preventing activation of macrophages

    • D. 

      Decreasing platelet aggregation

    • E. 

      Inhibiting coagulation factors

  • 85. 
    • A. 

      . Plaque microvessels can feed the growing plaque

    • B. 

      Increased microvessel density enhances plaque growth

    • C. 

      Microvessels develop immaturely and are likened to 'tumour microvessels'

    • D. 

      Angiogenesis induces smooth muscle cell apoptosis

    • E. 

      New vessels within the plaque do not possess smooth muscle cell or pericyte coatings

  • 86. 
    • A. 

      Urokinase

    • B. 

      Thrombin

    • C. 

      Heparin

    • D. 

      Streptokinase

    • E. 

      Plasmin

  • 87. 
    Histological changes in myocardial arteries may show: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Fatty streaks

    • B. 

      Lipid deposits

    • C. 

      Iron deposits

    • D. 

      Calcification

    • E. 

      Foam cells

  • 88. 
    The risk of CHD is influenced by: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Geographical location

    • B. 

      Job status

    • C. 

      Intake of alcohol

    • D. 

      Personality type

    • E. 

      Social class

  • 89. 
    • A. 

      Glucose

    • B. 

      Oxidised LDL

    • C. 

      Hypoxia-inducible factor-1

    • D. 

      Creatine kinase

    • E. 

      Angiopoietin-2

  • 90. 
    Population screening for plasma cholesterol is advisable for: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Men and women aged 30-60 years

    • B. 

      Diabetics of any age

    • C. 

      All age ranges

    • D. 

      Pre-menopausal women

    • E. 

      Individuals with a family history of hyperlipidaemia

  • 91. 
    The diagnosis of atheroma can be investigated by: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Chest x-ray

    • B. 

      Ultrasound

    • C. 

      Mammogram

    • D. 

      Angiography

    • E. 

      Optical lasers

  • 92. 
    What is the most common current treatment for patients admitted with suspected acute ischaemic stroke?
    • A. 

      Treatment with Clopidogrel

    • B. 

      Administration of tPA

    • C. 

      Invasive surgery

    • D. 

      Delivery of aspirin

    • E. 

      Bed rest

  • 93. 
    The sequalae of atherosclerosis and thrombosis may be: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Aortic aneurysm

    • B. 

      Angina

    • C. 

      Pulmonary embolism

    • D. 

      Stroke

    • E. 

      Gangrene

  • 94. 
    In the treatment of myocardial infarction, which of the following apply: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Aspirin is more effective when combined with streptokinase

    • B. 

      Reperfusion of blood to the tissues should be speedily restored

    • C. 

      Antibiotics should be administered as soon as possible

    • D. 

      Placebo drugs are as effective as thrombolytic drugs

    • E. 

      Aspirin should be taken daily at a dose of approximately 80 mg

  • 95. 
    Which of the following are risk factors for atherosclerosis? (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Hypertension

    • B. 

      Chronic renal failure

    • C. 

      Obesity

    • D. 

      Diabetes

    • E. 

      Hypothyroidism

  • 96. 
    In coronary artery atherosclerosis, at what time do the first significant or noticeable changes to the luminal endothelial cells become observable?
    • A. 

      Just before adulthood

    • B. 

      Ages 30-40

    • C. 

      Ages 40-50

    • D. 

      During early childhood

    • E. 

      Ages 20-30

  • 97. 
    Which of the following are present in platelets: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Prostacyclin

    • B. 

      Plasminogen

    • C. 

      Prostaglandin

    • D. 

      Tocopherol

    • E. 

      Thromboxane

  • 98. 
    Which is NOT a common feature of an unstable plaque prone to undergo thrombosis?
    • A. 

      Inflammation

    • B. 

      Irregular blood vessels

    • C. 

      Smooth muscle cell proliferation

    • D. 

      Thin fibrous cap

    • E. 

      Cholesterol-laden macrophages

  • 99. 
    Which of the following parameters give an indication of coronary risk? (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Plasma fibrinogen

    • B. 

      Triglycerides

    • C. 

      Glycosylated haemoglobin

    • D. 

      Plasma cholesterol

    • E. 

      Serum albumin

  • 100. 
    Which of the following contain monounsaturated fatty acids? (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Olive oil

    • B. 

      Prostacyclin

    • C. 

      Grapeseed oil

    • D. 

      Corn oil

    • E. 

      Fish oil

  • 101. 
    Trans fatty acids: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Are found in margarine

    • B. 

      Are synthesised in the liver

    • C. 

      Are found in butter

    • D. 

      Are found in adipose tissue

    • E. 

      Are hydrogenated polyunsaturates

  • 102. 
    Thrombolytic agents to treat myocardial infarction: (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Improve survival if given soon after the infarct has occurred

    • B. 

      Work by activating plasminogen

    • C. 

      Are of greater benefit if used together with aspirin

    • D. 

      Can cause unwanted bleeding

    • E. 

      Cost about the same, per course of treatment

  • 103. 
    In pathological development of unstable atherosclerotic plaques, which of the following are undesirable and often result in thrombosis? (select one or more)
    • A. 

      Calcification

    • B. 

      Inflammatory infiltration and foam cell production

    • C. 

      Development of stable blood vessels within the plaque

    • D. 

      Cellular loss by apoptosis and plaque cap thinning

    • E. 

      Smooth muscle cell proliferation

  • 104. 
    At which point within the major arteries is it NOT common to develop atherosclerotic plaques?
    • A. 

      None-branching low curvature sections

    • B. 

      Regions of low/variable flow, with directional change

    • C. 

      Regions exposed to high sheer stress

    • D. 

      Narrowing of arteries

    • E. 

      Bi-furcations

  • 105. 
    Which of the follwoing is not a modifiable risk factor for development of atherosclerosis MI and stroke?
    • A. 

      Alcohol intake

    • B. 

      Diabetes

    • C. 

      Genetic mutations

    • D. 

      Smoking