IP Practise Questions
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Choose only one answer unless otherwise specified.
- 1.Calorie restriction:
- A.
Causes ageing
- B.
Increases free radical activity
- C.
Extends lifespan in mammals
- D.
Reduces lifespan in mammals
- E.
Increases advanced glycation endproducts in body tissues
- 2.
- A.
An increase in senescence
- B.
Increased susceptibility to diseases
- C.
A decline in mental activity
- D.
An improvement in vision
- E.
Decrease in ability to do strenuous physical activity
- 3.Alzheimer's disease:
- A.
Is characterised by absence of neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid deposits in the brain
- B.
Is characterised by loss of motor function
- C.
Is due to insulin resistance
- D.
Has an insiduous onset
- E.
Is due to inflammation in the joints
- 4.Which one of the following statements is incorrect:
- A.
Superoxide radicals can be produced by phagocytes
- B.
Nitric oxide is not a free radical
- C.
Hydrogen peroxide is not a free radical
- D.
Free radicals are highly reactive
- E.
Hydroxyl radical is more reactive than superoxide radical
- 5.Free radicals can damage the following molecules:
- A.
All of these
- B.
Carbohydrates
- C.
Proteins
- D.
Lipids
- E.
Nucleus
- 6.Which one of the following statements is true:
- A.
Aged cells always have normal shaped organelles
- B.
Oxidative phosphorylation in cells increases with age
- C.
Ability of cells to uptake nutrients declines with age
- D.
Telomerase is inactive in cancerous cells
- E.
Ability of cells to repair damaged DNA increases with age
- 7.
- A.
Nitric Oxide
- B.
Catalase
- C.
Superoxide dismustase
- D.
None of the answers are correct
- E.
Vitamin E
- 8.
- A.
Type 2 diabetes is often characterised by insulin resistance
- B.
Degeneration of dopamine secreting neurones occurs in Parkinson's disease
- C.
Alzheimer's disease is often associated with memory loss
- D.
Cataract has a reduced incidence in the elderly
- E.
Heart attacks are a major cause of death in progeria
- 9.Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT:
- A.
Wound healing occurs quickly in older subjects
- B.
A decline in function of T cells occurs with age
- C.
Detoxification of drugs occurs more slowly in elderly subjects
- D.
Accumulation of fibrous tissue occurs in the heart with age
- E.
Brain weight declines with age
- 10.Advanced glycation endproducts:
- A.
Decrease with age in body tissues
- B.
Are more likely to form on long-lived proteins
- C.
Are always cross-linked molecules
- D.
Are not derived from reactions between proteins and sugars
- E.
Are derived from reactions between proteins and lipids
- 11.
- A.
Alzheimer's disease
- B.
Cataract
- C.
Cancer
- D.
Phenylketonuria
- E.
Type 2 diabetes mellitus
- 12.
- A.
Liver cells from older mice have greater number of mutations compared to similar cells from younger mice
- B.
The error catastrophe theory is concerned with glycation of proteins
- C.
Antioxidants protect against free radicals
- D.
Telomeres are protective caps at the end of chromosomes
- E.
Ability of cells to repair damaged DNA declines with age
- 13.
- A.
Increased sexual maturity
- B.
Prominent scalp veins
- C.
Short stature
- D.
Thinning of skin
- E.
Severe arthritis
- 14.A gradual decline in function of cells, organs and tissues with ageing is referred to as:
- A.
Lipofuscin
- B.
Senescence
- C.
Oxidative stress
- D.
Longevity
- E.
Life expectancy
- 15.
- A.
Alopecia is a feature of patients with progeria
- B.
Vitamin E is a pro oxidant
- C.
Calorie restriction reduces age-associated mutations
- D.
Life expectancy of progeria is 13 years
- E.
Vitamin E is a free radical scavenger
- 16.A free radical can be defined as:
- A.
An atom or molecule with no unpaired electrons
- B.
An atom or molecule that is reactive
- C.
An atom or molecule with no charge
- D.
An atom or molecule that is unreactive
- E.
An atom or molecule with one or more unpaired electrons
- 17.
- A.
Is the maximum age attained by a member of a particular species
- B.
Is the minimum age attained by a member of a particular species
- C.
Is the mean age of individuals in a population
- D.
Is the minimum age of individuals in a population
- E.
None of the answers are correct
- 18.
- A.
Ionising radiation
- B.
Respiratory burst in phagocytic cells
- C.
Autoxidation of glucose during hyperglycaemia
- D.
Smoking
- E.
Rearrangement of the Schiff base to Amadori product during glycation
- 19.Ageing is defined as:
- A.
When all your body cells die
- B.
When you lack energy
- C.
The greying of your hair
- D.
An increasing ability to survive
- E.
A decreasing ability to survive
- 20.
- A.
Transplanting the nucleus of a young cell into an old cytoplasm will give a new cell with the same lifespan of the cytoplasm
- B.
Transplanting the nucleus of an old cell into a young cytoplasm will give a new cell with lifespan of the transplanted nucleus
- C.
Liver cells from a strain of mice with a short lifespan have a higher incidence of mutations compared to similar cells from a strain of mice with longer lifespan
- D.
Telomerase can prevent shortening of telomeres
- E.
Fibroblasts from human embryo's undergo approximately 50 divisions
- 21.Which one of the following is the correct definition for lifespan?
- A.
Is the minimum age of individuals in a population
- B.
Is the mean age of individuals in a population
- C.
Is the maximum age attained by a member of a particular species
- D.
None of the available answers are correct
- E.
Is the minimum age attained by a member of a particular species
- 22.
- A.
There are approximately 30 cases worldwide
- B.
Progeria is also known as the Hutchinson-Gilford syndrome
- C.
Progeria is an accelerated form of ageing
- D.
Cultured fibroblasts from children with progeria often have a shorter lifespan compared to fibroblasts from normal children of similar age
- E.
Progeria patients always have a low secretion of hyaluronic acid in their urine
- 23.
- A.
Amadori product formation is completely irreversible
- B.
Schiff base products can be detected by their fluorescence
- C.
Formation of Amadori products depends on concentration of sugar
- D.
Schiff base formation following reaction between a protein and sugar is irreversible
- E.
Formation of advanced glycation endproducts is freely reversible
- 24.Which of the following is NOT an antioxidant?
- A.
Superoxide dismutase
- B.
Vitamin E
- C.
Glutathione
- D.
Vitamin C
- E.
Superoxide
- 25.
- A.
Patients with progeria are often placed on high-dose aspirin therapy
- B.
An age-related accumulation of carcinogenic substances may increase the incidence of cancer in the elderly
- C.
Vitamin E is lipid soluble
- D.
In developed countries, a major proportion of the healthcare budget is used in the care and treatment of the elderly
- E.
Glutathione is usually maintained in the reduced state in cells
- 26.A major waste product believed to accumulate in ageing cells is:
- A.
Telomerase
- B.
Lipofuscin
- C.
Superoxide
- D.
Glucose
- E.
Pentosidine
- 27.
- A.
Cataract
- B.
All of these
- C.
Cancer
- D.
Alzheimer's disease
- E.
Type 2 diabetes mellitus
- 28.Human diploid cells have 44 chromosomes
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 29.Which of the following mechanisms might be associated with oncogene activation?
- A.
All statements are correct
- B.
Chromosomal translocations
- C.
Point mutations or deletions in the regulatory regions of proto-oncogenes
- D.
Point mutations or deletions in the coding region of proto-oncogenes
- 30.Which of the following is the most appropriate definition of differentiation?
- A.
Cells containing identical genetic information begin to diverge in their structure and function
- B.
The number of cells in the tissue decreases
- C.
Cells cease to divide
- D.
Involves a chemical change in DNA structure
- 31.
- A.
It does not manifest if a dominant gene is expressed
- B.
It manifests as a more severe disorder than when a person is homozygous for a recessive gene
- C.
It manifests when there is one abnormal gene expressed and the homologous gene is normal
- D.
It manifests when one of a homologous pair is deleted
- 32.Which of the following is an increase in tissue mass resulting from an increase in the size of its constituent cells?
- A.
Hyperplasia
- B.
Dysplasia
- C.
Metaplasia
- D.
Hypertrophy
- 33.A normal karyotype is aneuploid
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 34.Which of the following descriptions of wild-type p 53 protein is incorrect?
- A.
P53 regulates the cell cycle
- B.
P53 regulates DNA repair
- C.
P53 is a tumour suppressor protein
- D.
P53 is encoded by an oncogene
- 35.Which of the following is not a characteristic of cancer cells?
- A.
Loss of contact inhibition
- B.
Undergoing apoptosis
- C.
Loss of cell cycle control
- D.
Anchorage independent growth
- 36.Skeletal and cardiac muscle and nerve tissue are unable to undergo cell division
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 37.Which of the following is the most appropriate definition of a retrovirus?
- A.
None of the answers are correct
- B.
It is a virus which uses a reverse transcriptase enzyme
- C.
It is a DNA virus which transactivates genes
- D.
It is a tumour-causing virus
- 38.Muscle mass increases after exercise by the process of normal physiological hypertrophy
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 39.As a tumour grows, it remains as a single clone of the cell from which it was originally derived
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 40.The reason that the size of the prostate gland increases with age may be longer exposure to testosterone, a process called pathological hyperplasia
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 41.Decreased functional demand, loss of blood supply and loss of innervation can all contribute to pathological atrophy
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 42.The Epstein-Barr virus is associated with which of the following?
- A.
Kaposi’s sarcoma
- B.
Cervical cancer
- C.
Burkitt’s lymphoma
- D.
Liver cancer
- 43.Human papilloma virus (HPV) is associated with which of the following?
- A.
Breast cancer
- B.
Lung cancer
- C.
Cervical cancer
- D.
Prostate cancer
- 44.A mutation in a proto-oncogene results in a ‘gain in function’ for that gene, while a mutation in a tumour-suppressor gene results in a loss of function
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 45.Insertional mutagenesis is:
- A.
The incorporation of DNA into a site in the genome that alters the activity of a gene
- B.
The transfer of DNA from one cell to another and its incorporation into the genome of the other cell
- C.
The passage of a virus from one cell to another
- D.
None of the answers are correct (could be A, but IM inserts bases, not DNA)
- 46.About 50% of all human cancers may involve an abnormal or missing:
- A.
P53 gene
- B.
Rb gene
- C.
Oncogene
- D.
Proto-oncogene
- 47.The p53 protein normally promotes which of the following
- A.
Cell apoptosis
- B.
Cell differentiation
- C.
Cell proliferation
- D.
Tumour formation
- 48.Which of the following is NOT a mechanism used by Pseudomonads to evade host defences?
- A.
Inactivate complement components
- B.
Possess iron-bonding molecules
- C.
Interfere with function of phagocyte
- D.
Resist killing and multiply in phagocyte
- E.
Interfere with ciliary activity
- 49.Exotoxins: (select one or more)
- A.
Are immunogenic
- B.
Are heat stable
- C.
Are integral parts of the microbial cell wall
- D.
Are only produced by Gram-positive bacteria
- E.
Can be converted to toxoids
- 50.Respiratory tract infections: (select one or more)
- A.
Are rarely caused by fungi
- B.
Are common in people with impaired ciliary function
- C.
Are frequently caused by viruses
- D.
Are usually self-limiting
- 51.Schistosomes: (select one or more)
- A.
Have a larval development stage in aquatic snails
- B.
Are acquired via larval penetration of the skin
- C.
Are protozoan parasites
- D.
Infect the skin and eyes
- E.
Can acquire host molecules on their surface to evade the immune system
- 52.Re-emerging diseases include: (select one or more)
- A.
Tuberculosis
- B.
Cholera
- C.
Cryptosporidium
- D.
HIV
- E.
Malaria
- 53.Successful pathogens: (select one or more)
- A.
Complete their life cycle before the immune response is evoked
- B.
All possess a capsule
- C.
Are easily transmitted between hosts
- D.
Produce toxins as virulence factors
- E.
Are increasingly resistant to antibiotics
- 54.Microorganisms can overcome the innate defences by: (select one or more)
- A.
Antigenic switching
- B.
Antigenic mimicry
- C.
Production of igA protease
- D.
Production of endotoxins
- E.
Production of Haemolysins
- 55.Protozoa: (select one or more)
- A.
All undergo sexual reproduction in vectors
- B.
Are prevelent in temperate climates
- C.
Cause disease in the blood, intestine or urino-genital system
- D.
Are unicellular parasites
- E.
Only exist intracellularly
- 56.The following viruses are associated with malignant transformation of cells: (select one or more)
- A.
Adenovirus
- B.
Hepatitis B virus
- C.
Rotavirus
- D.
Human papilloma virus
- E.
Epstein-Barr virus
- 57.The following can be classed as persistent infections: (select one or more)
- A.
Cytomegalovirus
- B.
Rubella
- C.
Varicella zoster virus
- D.
Hepatitis A virus
- E.
HIV
- 58.Nomenclature and classification of bacteria: (select one or more)
- A.
Is important to ensure the correct treatment is given
- B.
Is done using a variety of methods
- C.
Is based solely on the GC content of their DNA
- D.
Helps to determine evolutionary changes
- E.
Is based solely on their structure
- 59.Urinary tract infections: (select one or more)
- A.
Are easily transmitted between individuals
- B.
Are a common infection in nuns
- C.
Can be acquired from the blood stream
- D.
Are frequently caused by viruses
- E.
Are more frequently seen in women than men
- 60.Streptococcus pneumoniae: (select one or more)
- A.
Possess flagella
- B.
Is a causative agent of pneumonia
- C.
Is spread via the faecal oral route
- D.
Is a normal inhabitant in the upper respiratory tract
- E.
May possess a capsule
- 61.A pathogen can overcome the host defences by: (select one or more)
- A.
Inhibiting phago-lysosomal fusion
- B.
Producing membrane damaging toxins
- C.
Interfering with ciliary activity
- D.
Producing a capsule
- E.
Suppressing the immune response
- 62.The following are spread via the bloodstream: (select one or more)
- A.
Rabies
- B.
Malaria
- C.
Herpes simplex virus
- D.
Hepatitis B virus
- E.
Varicella-zoster virus
- 63.Fungi which cause infection: (select one or more)
- A.
Divide by budding
- B.
All have capsules
- C.
Can be part of the normal flora
- D.
Are free living organisms
- E.
Are all dermatophytes
- 64.Cutaneous infections are caused by: (select one or more)
- A.
Candida albicans
- B.
Microsporum canis
- C.
Aspergillus fumigatis
- D.
Cryptococcus neoformans
- E.
Epidermophyton floccosum
- 65.Infections transmitted vertically include: (select one or more)
- A.
Treponema pallidium
- B.
Typhoid
- C.
Influenzae
- D.
CMV
- E.
Rubella
- 66.Intracellular parasites: (select one or more)
- A.
May move extensively within body tissues
- B.
Result in a more widespread and rapid infection than extracellular pathogens
- C.
Can grow and reproduce freely
- D.
Have access to the host's nutrient supply and genetic machinery
- E.
Are protected from many of the host's defence mechanisms
- 67.An endotoxin is: (select one or more)
- A.
A toxin known for its primary attack on the epidermis of mammals
- B.
A toxin produced within Archaean cells
- C.
The toxic product of the LPS component of the outer leaflet of the membrane
- D.
The toxin produced in the periplasm of most bacteria
- 68.Host factors influencing susceptibility to disease are:
- A.
Stress
- B.
Pregnancy
- C.
Foreign bodies
- D.
Atmospheric pollution
- E.
Malnutrition
- 69.During bacterial transposition:
- A.
DNA is transferred by infection with a bacteriophage
- B.
Point mutations occur in single nucleotides, which may alter the DNA triplet code
- C.
DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another
- D.
DNA fragments from related species are taken up by competent bacteria
- E.
Groups of co-ordinately controlled virulence genes can be transferred
- 70.Spore-forming bacteria:
- A.
Outgrow to vegatative forms in adverse environments
- B.
Have high levels of dipicolinic acid
- C.
Only stay dormant a few years
- D.
Have low levels of calcium
- E.
Rarely cause disease
- 71.Which of the following is NOT a strategy employed by parasites to elude lymphocytes?
- A.
Immune modulation
- B.
Production of haemolysins
- C.
Antigenic mimicry
- D.
Concealment of antigens
- E.
Antigenic switching
- 72.Bacteria can acquire new genes into genome during: (select one or more)
- A.
Transduction
- B.
Transformation
- C.
Conjugation
- D.
Gene regulation
- E.
Translation
- 73.Native C-reactive protein is useful for determination of which of the following in relation to heart disease? (select one or more)
- A.
A marker of angiogensis
- B.
Associated with arterial calcification
- C.
A marker of inflammation
- D.
Treatment for existing atherosclerosis
- E.
Related to the risk of ischaemic episodes and a predictor of cardiovascular events
- 74.What is NOT one of the direct effects of development of weak atherosclerotic plaque neovessels?
- A.
Immune cell infiltration
- B.
Cell apoptosis
- C.
Increased inflammation
- D.
Increased blood in the local area
- E.
Decreased stability of the plaque
- 75.Laboratory tests for myocardial infarction include: (select one or more)
- A.
Plasma fibrinogen levels
- B.
Haemoglobin estimation
- C.
Heparin assay
- D.
Cardiac enzyme levels
- E.
Markers of tissue damage
- 76.Based on current understanding, in the future how is nanotechnology likely to help in the diagnosis/treatment of atherosclerosis? (select one or more)
- A.
Nanoparticles targeted to vasa vasorum and containing endothelial cell inhibitors could inactivate them and reduce later development of atherosclerotic plaques
- B.
The use of nanoparticles provides no advantages for the current imaging of plaques when compared with conventional methods
- C.
Nanoparticles could be used to dissolve existing plaques
- D.
Imaging of targeted nanoparticles could be used to visualise plaque distribution and structure
- E.
Targeted nanoparticles could bind to existing cells within plaques and release a payload of siRNA or drugs to reduce plaque development
- 77.The pathogenic effects of cigarette smoking include: (select one or more)
- A.
Increased blood pressure
- B.
Decreased plasma fibrinogen
- C.
Increased platelet aggregation
- D.
Increased plasma cholesterol
- E.
Endothelial damage
- 78.Premature coronary heart risk can be assessed by measurement of: (select one or more)
- A.
High density lipoprotein
- B.
Lipoprotien (a)
- C.
Apolipoprotein A1 levels
- D.
Apolipoprotein B 100
- E.
Oestrogen
- 79.Which of these is a commonly used blood biomarker used to detect the increased chances of a patient undergoing a cardiovascular event?
- A.
Advanced glycation end-products
- B.
C-reactive protein
- C.
Glucose
- D.
Beta amyloid
- E.
Cholesterol
- 80.Dietary control of plasma cholesterol may be ineffective because: (select one or more)
- A.
Cholesterol is synthesised by the body
- B.
The ratio of HDL to LDL cholesterol is not affected
- C.
Hypertension is increased
- D.
Cholesterol is less important than other risk factors
- E.
Regulation of cholesterol is inherited
- 81.Mechanisms involved in the pathogenesis of thrombosis include: (select one or more)
- A.
Turbulent blood flow
- B.
Changes in blood constituents
- C.
Damage to the surface of the intima
- D.
Loss of bone density
- E.
Renal failure
- 82.Hypertension may be lowered by: (select one or more)
- A.
Anticoagulant treatment
- B.
Decreasing saturated fat intake
- C.
Diuretic treatment
- D.
Fibrinolytic treatment
- E.
Cessation of smoking
- 83.Which of the following treatments has never been given to patients with acute myocardial infarction caused by coronary artery disease?
- A.
Aspirin
- B.
Beta-blockers
- C.
VEGF therapy
- D.
Administration of tPA
- E.
Folic acid
- 84.Antioxidants may exert a protective effect in CHD by: (select one or more)
- A.
Preventing LDL oxidation
- B.
Increasing HDL levels
- C.
Preventing activation of macrophages
- D.
Decreasing platelet aggregation
- E.
Inhibiting coagulation factors
- 85.
- A.
. Plaque microvessels can feed the growing plaque
- B.
Increased microvessel density enhances plaque growth
- C.
Microvessels develop immaturely and are likened to 'tumour microvessels'
- D.
Angiogenesis induces smooth muscle cell apoptosis
- E.
New vessels within the plaque do not possess smooth muscle cell or pericyte coatings
- 86.
- A.
Urokinase
- B.
Thrombin
- C.
Heparin
- D.
Streptokinase
- E.
Plasmin
- 87.Histological changes in myocardial arteries may show: (select one or more)
- A.
Fatty streaks
- B.
Lipid deposits
- C.
Iron deposits
- D.
Calcification
- E.
Foam cells
- 88.The risk of CHD is influenced by: (select one or more)
- A.
Geographical location
- B.
Job status
- C.
Intake of alcohol
- D.
Personality type
- E.
Social class
- 89.
- A.
Glucose
- B.
Oxidised LDL
- C.
Hypoxia-inducible factor-1
- D.
Creatine kinase
- E.
Angiopoietin-2
- 90.Population screening for plasma cholesterol is advisable for: (select one or more)
- A.
Men and women aged 30-60 years
- B.
Diabetics of any age
- C.
All age ranges
- D.
Pre-menopausal women
- E.
Individuals with a family history of hyperlipidaemia
- 91.The diagnosis of atheroma can be investigated by: (select one or more)
- A.
Chest x-ray
- B.
Ultrasound
- C.
Mammogram
- D.
Angiography
- E.
Optical lasers
- 92.What is the most common current treatment for patients admitted with suspected acute ischaemic stroke?
- A.
Treatment with Clopidogrel
- B.
Administration of tPA
- C.
Invasive surgery
- D.
Delivery of aspirin
- E.
Bed rest
- 93.The sequalae of atherosclerosis and thrombosis may be: (select one or more)
- A.
Aortic aneurysm
- B.
Angina
- C.
Pulmonary embolism
- D.
Stroke
- E.
Gangrene
- 94.In the treatment of myocardial infarction, which of the following apply: (select one or more)
- A.
Aspirin is more effective when combined with streptokinase
- B.
Reperfusion of blood to the tissues should be speedily restored
- C.
Antibiotics should be administered as soon as possible
- D.
Placebo drugs are as effective as thrombolytic drugs
- E.
Aspirin should be taken daily at a dose of approximately 80 mg
- 95.Which of the following are risk factors for atherosclerosis? (select one or more)
- A.
Hypertension
- B.
Chronic renal failure
- C.
Obesity
- D.
Diabetes
- E.
Hypothyroidism
- 96.In coronary artery atherosclerosis, at what time do the first significant or noticeable changes to the luminal endothelial cells become observable?
- A.
Just before adulthood
- B.
Ages 30-40
- C.
Ages 40-50
- D.
During early childhood
- E.
Ages 20-30
- 97.Which of the following are present in platelets: (select one or more)
- A.
Prostacyclin
- B.
Plasminogen
- C.
Prostaglandin
- D.
Tocopherol
- E.
Thromboxane
- 98.Which is NOT a common feature of an unstable plaque prone to undergo thrombosis?
- A.
Inflammation
- B.
Irregular blood vessels
- C.
Smooth muscle cell proliferation
- D.
Thin fibrous cap
- E.
Cholesterol-laden macrophages
- 99.Which of the following parameters give an indication of coronary risk? (select one or more)
- A.
Plasma fibrinogen
- B.
Triglycerides
- C.
Glycosylated haemoglobin
- D.
Plasma cholesterol
- E.
Serum albumin
- 100.Which of the following contain monounsaturated fatty acids? (select one or more)
- A.
Olive oil
- B.
Prostacyclin
- C.
Grapeseed oil
- D.
Corn oil
- E.
Fish oil
- 101.Trans fatty acids: (select one or more)
- A.
Are found in margarine
- B.
Are synthesised in the liver
- C.
Are found in butter
- D.
Are found in adipose tissue
- E.
Are hydrogenated polyunsaturates
- 102.Thrombolytic agents to treat myocardial infarction: (select one or more)
- A.
Improve survival if given soon after the infarct has occurred
- B.
Work by activating plasminogen
- C.
Are of greater benefit if used together with aspirin
- D.
Can cause unwanted bleeding
- E.
Cost about the same, per course of treatment
- 103.In pathological development of unstable atherosclerotic plaques, which of the following are undesirable and often result in thrombosis? (select one or more)
- A.
Calcification
- B.
Inflammatory infiltration and foam cell production
- C.
Development of stable blood vessels within the plaque
- D.
Cellular loss by apoptosis and plaque cap thinning
- E.
Smooth muscle cell proliferation
- 104.At which point within the major arteries is it NOT common to develop atherosclerotic plaques?
- A.
None-branching low curvature sections
- B.
Regions of low/variable flow, with directional change
- C.
Regions exposed to high sheer stress
- D.
Narrowing of arteries
- E.
Bi-furcations
- 105.Which of the follwoing is not a modifiable risk factor for development of atherosclerosis MI and stroke?
- A.
Alcohol intake
- B.
Diabetes
- C.
Genetic mutations
- D.
Smoking
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