What Do You Know About IAHCSMM? Take This Trivia Quiz

175 Questions | Total Attempts: 178

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What Do You Know About IAHCSMM? Take This Trivia Quiz

Pre-exam jitters are no joke and most people have been known to forget just about everything when they get to the exam room. Do you have Goosebumps in a bad way when you think about the IAHCSMM exam? If so one way to get rid of them is take an actual trivia that gives you an idea of what to expect. Try it out!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Soiled instruments and other items are received in the _________ area of the Central Service Department.
    • A. 

      Preparation

    • B. 

      Packaging

    • C. 

      Decontamination

    • D. 

      Sterilization

  • 2. 
    _________ is the first step in the sterilization process.
    • A. 

      Receiving

    • B. 

      Sorting

    • C. 

      Soaking

    • D. 

      Cleaning

  • 3. 
    Central Service Technicians must wear special attire referred to as ____ to minimize their exposure to blood-borne pathogens and other contaminants.
    • A. 

      PPE

    • B. 

      OSHA

    • C. 

      SCRUBS

    • D. 

      CDC

  • 4. 
    Instrument sets and other required instrumentation needed for all surgical procedures for an entire day are usually pulled  (collected).
    • A. 

      Two days before they will be used

    • B. 

      The day or evening before they will be used

    • C. 

      The morning of the planned surgery

    • D. 

      Early morning ( for morning procedures )and early afternoon on the day of surgery.

  • 5. 
    The use of analytical skills to solve problems and make decisions is a component of which of the following knowledge and skills dimensions?
    • A. 

      Communication abilities

    • B. 

      Facility system responsabilities

    • C. 

      Employability skills

    • D. 

      Safety practices

  • 6. 
    Nosocomial infections are:
    • A. 

      Most likely to accur during international travel

    • B. 

      Caused by drug resistant organisms

    • C. 

      Those without known cures

    • D. 

      Those which occur in the course of being treated in the hospital

  • 7. 
    The human resources tool that identifies major tasks performed by persons in specific positions is called a:
    • A. 

      Job duty list

    • B. 

      Job specification

    • C. 

      Task summary review

    • D. 

      Job description

  • 8. 
    In the future which of the following will more frequently become a requirement for working in a central service department?
    • A. 

      On the job training

    • B. 

      Experience

    • C. 

      Formal education

    • D. 

      Reference from facility administrator

  • 9. 
    Which of the following is the most popular title for the central service department head?
    • A. 

      Coordinator

    • B. 

      Director

    • C. 

      Manager

    • D. 

      Supervisor

  • 10. 
    The largest costumer of the central service department is ?
    • A. 

      The emergency department

    • B. 

      Labor and delivery

    • C. 

      Material management

    • D. 

      The operating room

  • 11. 
    Which of the following is NOT a trend in the central service?
    • A. 

      Decentralizacion of central service respomsabilities

    • B. 

      The use of more reusable and more complex devices

    • C. 

      Satellite-processing units with centralized management

    • D. 

      Consolidation into entire integrated delivery networks

  • 12. 
    In central service , the concept of " one way flow of materials" refers to the movement of products :
    • A. 

      From central service to surgical areas

    • B. 

      From surgical areas to central service

    • C. 

      From soiled areas to clean processing areas within central service.

    • D. 

      From clean processing areas to soiled areas in the central service

  • 13. 
    The sterile storage area in the central service department should be restricted to :
    • A. 

      Central service managers and supervisors

    • B. 

      Operating room personnel

    • C. 

      Central service employees only

    • D. 

      Properly attired personnel meeting facility requirements

  • 14. 
    The term " hemi" is a
    • A. 

      Prefix

    • B. 

      Root

    • C. 

      Suffix

    • D. 

      Noun

  • 15. 
    The term " exise" means
    • A. 

      To repair

    • B. 

      To open

    • C. 

      To cut out

    • D. 

      Examine

  • 16. 
    Which of the following means " beside or near"?
    • A. 

      Para

    • B. 

      Peri

    • C. 

      Parta

    • D. 

      Pana

  • 17. 
    Which of the following surgical abbreviations migth be used relating to a fractured bone?
    • A. 

      CABG

    • B. 

      BSO

    • C. 

      ORIF

    • D. 

      TAH

  • 18. 
    The term " intercosto" means
    • A. 

      Within the colon

    • B. 

      Between the toes

    • C. 

      Within the bladder

    • D. 

      Between the ribs

  • 19. 
    The majority of medical terms are to either ______ or _________ origin.
    • A. 

      Greek of french

    • B. 

      Greek or latin

    • C. 

      Latin or french

    • D. 

      Latin and english

  • 20. 
    Wich of the following tells a primary meaning of a word?
    • A. 

      Prefix word element

    • B. 

      Root word element

    • C. 

      Suffix word element

    • D. 

      Combining bowel

  • 21. 
    The purpose of a combining vowel is to:
    • A. 

      Tell the primary meaning of a word

    • B. 

      Suggest the meaning of the root word element

    • C. 

      Ease pronuntiation

    • D. 

      Ease spelling

  • 22. 
    The last word element in a medical term is the:
    • A. 

      Prefix

    • B. 

      Suffix

    • C. 

      Root

    • D. 

      Analog

  • 23. 
    The root element " gastro " refers to the:
    • A. 

      Colon

    • B. 

      Heart

    • C. 

      Muscles

    • D. 

      Stomach

  • 24. 
    The suffix " ectomy " refest to:
    • A. 

      Surgical removal

    • B. 

      Inflamation

    • C. 

      Surgical revision

    • D. 

      Visual examination of organs

  • 25. 
    "hyperglicemia" refers to:
    • A. 

      A malignant tumor

    • B. 

      Tissue death of an artery

    • C. 

      High blood sugar

    • D. 

      Enlargement of the heart

  • 26. 
    The term "rhinoplasty". refers to :
    • A. 

      Surgery of a muscle wound

    • B. 

      Surgical repair of the nose

    • C. 

      Removal of a cyst

    • D. 

      Incision of the stomach

  • 27. 
    "litrotripsy" refers to:
    • A. 

      Aspiration of fatty tissue

    • B. 

      Surgical removal of the ovary

    • C. 

      Crushing a stone

    • D. 

      Visual examination of a joint

  • 28. 
    "subcutaneous" refers to:
    • A. 

      Low sugar content in the blood

    • B. 

      Displacement of the pelvic joint

    • C. 

      Benehealth the skin

    • D. 

      Without infection,sterile

  • 29. 
    The term "periosteal elevator" refers to:
    • A. 

      Surgical removal of tissue near the thyroid

    • B. 

      Surgical removal of one-half of the stomach

    • C. 

      An instrument to cutting skin

    • D. 

      An instrument used to remove tussue around the bone

  • 30. 
    The term "BKA" refers to a surgical procedure involving:
    • A. 

      Treatment of a fractured bone without a surgical incision

    • B. 

      Surgical removal of both fallopian tubes and ovaries

    • C. 

      Surgical removal of the leg below the knee

    • D. 

      A type of hip joint reconstruction

  • 31. 
    The term "CR" relates to a surgical procedure for:
    • A. 

      Treating a fractured bone without surgical incision

    • B. 

      Creating a new blood supply to an area of the heart

    • C. 

      Surgical removal of the uterus

    • D. 

      Surgical removal of the prostate gland

  • 32. 
    This system gives the body shape and support.
    • A. 

      Muscular system

    • B. 

      Nervous system

    • C. 

      Skeletal system

    • D. 

      Circulatory system

  • 33. 
    This tissue connects one bone to another.
    • A. 

      Tendon

    • B. 

      Ligament

    • C. 

      Muscle

    • D. 

      Cartilage

  • 34. 
    These muscles control involuntary movements like, breathing,digestion,etc.
    • A. 

      Smooth muscle

    • B. 

      Cardiac muscle

    • C. 

      Skeletal muscle

    • D. 

      Fascia muscle

  • 35. 
    This surgical procedure consist in removing an ear bone that was thickened and no longer transmits sound waves and replacing it with an artificial implant to improve hearing.
    • A. 

      Tympanoplasty

    • B. 

      Stapedectomy

    • C. 

      Auditory implantation

    • D. 

      Miryngotomy

  • 36. 
    More than 55% of blood is made up of this yellowish liquid.
    • A. 

      Platelets

    • B. 

      Red blood cells

    • C. 

      White blood cells

    • D. 

      Plasma

  • 37. 
    This organ filters blood to remove amino acids and neutralize some harmful toxins.
    • A. 

      Kidney

    • B. 

      Pancreas

    • C. 

      Liver

    • D. 

      Gall bladder

  • 38. 
    The surgical procedure removes the uterus:
    • A. 

      Hysterocoscopy

    • B. 

      Hysterectomy

    • C. 

      Dilatation and curettage

    • D. 

      Bilateral- salpingoophorectomy

  • 39. 
    This gland stimulates body growth.
    • A. 

      Adrenal gland

    • B. 

      Thyroid gland

    • C. 

      Pancreas

    • D. 

      Pituitary gland

  • 40. 
    The lining of the uterus.
    • A. 

      Vagina

    • B. 

      Endometrium

    • C. 

      Fimbriae

    • D. 

      Skin

  • 41. 
    This surgical procedure removes tissue or displaced bone from the wrist area to release pressure of the median nerve.
    • A. 

      Carpal tunnel repair

    • B. 

      Ulner nerve transposcicion

    • C. 

      Arthrotomy

    • D. 

      Fasciotomy

  • 42. 
    The largest part of the human brain is the :
    • A. 

      Brain stem

    • B. 

      Cerebellum

    • C. 

      Cerebrum

    • D. 

      Spinal cord

  • 43. 
    The surgical procedure is the removal of a testicle:
    • A. 

      Transurethal resection

    • B. 

      Prostatectomy

    • C. 

      Orchiopexy

    • D. 

      Orchiectomy

  • 44. 
    The "throat."
    • A. 

      Esophagus

    • B. 

      Larnyx

    • C. 

      Trachea

    • D. 

      Pharnyx

  • 45. 
    The surgical procedure is the removal of the gall bladder.
    • A. 

      Cholecystectomy

    • B. 

      Colectomy

    • C. 

      Paritodectomy

    • D. 

      Gastrectomy

  • 46. 
    The hip joint is an example of a:
    • A. 

      Gliding joint

    • B. 

      Ball and socket joint

    • C. 

      Pivot joint

    • D. 

      Hinge joint

  • 47. 
    This tissue covers the body's external surface.
    • A. 

      Epithelial tissue

    • B. 

      Connective tissue

    • C. 

      Muscular tissue

    • D. 

      Nervous tissue

  • 48. 
    The brain center of a cell.
    • A. 

      Cell membrane

    • B. 

      Cytoplasm

    • C. 

      Nucleus

    • D. 

      DNA

  • 49. 
    Cartilage is replaced by bone through a process called:
    • A. 

      Ossificacion

    • B. 

      Calcification

    • C. 

      Osmosis

    • D. 

      Cancellous formation

  • 50. 
    The white portion of the eye is called the:
    • A. 

      Retina

    • B. 

      Iris

    • C. 

      Pupil

    • D. 

      Sclera

  • 51. 
    The "voice box".
    • A. 

      Pharynx

    • B. 

      Larnyx

    • C. 

      Mouth

    • D. 

      Trachea

  • 52. 
    Microorganisms reproduce by a process called:
    • A. 

      Repopulation

    • B. 

      Binary fission

    • C. 

      Replication

    • D. 

      Bilateral reproduction

  • 53. 
    For safety purposes, central service technicians should consider all microorganisms in the decontamination area:
    • A. 

      Gram-positive

    • B. 

      Gram-negative

    • C. 

      Manageable

    • D. 

      Potentially infectious

  • 54. 
    The part of the cell that controls cell function is the:
    • A. 

      Cytoplasm

    • B. 

      Nucleus

    • C. 

      Cell membrane

    • D. 

      Capsule

  • 55. 
    A mode of bacterial infection that would take place when an infectious agent was transmitted through an item such as food or water is called:
    • A. 

      Contact

    • B. 

      Common vehicle

    • C. 

      Airborne

    • D. 

      Vector-bone

  • 56. 
    __________ is an example of a fungus.
    • A. 

      Pneumonia

    • B. 

      Tuberculosis

    • C. 

      Athlete's foot

    • D. 

      Herpes simplex type 2

  • 57. 
    All soiled instruments and materials are received from the user units into the central __________ area.
    • A. 

      Preparation

    • B. 

      Decontamination

    • C. 

      Sterilization

    • D. 

      Process storage

  • 58. 
    Which of the following suffixes means " pertaining to"
    • A. 

      "ac"

    • B. 

      "al"

    • C. 

      "ary"

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 59. 
    Which of the following is NOT  an example of surgical asepsis?
    • A. 

      Sterilization of instruments

    • B. 

      Asset management

    • C. 

      Operating room techniques to prevent contamination of sterile instruments

    • D. 

      All of the above are examples of surgical asepsis

  • 60. 
    Given the word " hemigastrectomy" which element of the word is the root
    • A. 

      Hemi

    • B. 

      Gastro

    • C. 

      Ectomy

    • D. 

      This word has no root

  • 61. 
    Which of the following glands is located at the base of the brain and is considered the "master gland"?
    • A. 

      Pituitary

    • B. 

      Thyroid

    • C. 

      Adrenal

    • D. 

      Parathyroid

  • 62. 
    Which of the following is the circular opening of the eye which controls the amount of light which enters the eye?
    • A. 

      Iris

    • B. 

      Pupil

    • C. 

      Cornea

    • D. 

      Lens

  • 63. 
    Bacteria that cause diseases are called
    • A. 

      Aerobic

    • B. 

      Anaerobic

    • C. 

      Pathogenic

    • D. 

      Thermophillic

  • 64. 
    What percentage of microorganisms are harmful to humans because they can grow at approximately human body temperature?
    • A. 

      1%

    • B. 

      2%

    • C. 

      3%

    • D. 

      4%

  • 65. 
    What type of hepatitis vaccine is strongly recommended for most healthcare workers?
    • A. 

      Hepatitis A

    • B. 

      Hepatitis B

    • C. 

      Hepatitis D

    • D. 

      Hepatitis E

  • 66. 
    The part of the cell that controls cell function is the?
    • A. 

      Cytoplasm

    • B. 

      Nucleus

    • C. 

      Cell membrane

    • D. 

      Capsule

  • 67. 
    Involuntary muscles.
    • A. 

      Work without consciousness

    • B. 

      Work only when commanded

    • C. 

      Are not necessary

    • D. 

      Shut down when are resting

  • 68. 
    Rod shaped bacteria are classified.
    • A. 

      Coccus

    • B. 

      Bacillus

    • C. 

      Anhydrous

    • D. 

      Anerobic

  • 69. 
    A molecular reaction that creates an uncontrolled release of energy is known as: 
    • A. 

      Molecular Fission

    • B. 

      Molecular Fusion

    • C. 

      Polymerization

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 70. 
    To unload a sterilizer, crack the door, and wait __________ minutes (if a vacuum unit) or _____________  minutes (if a gravity sterilizer) to assure proper evaporation and drying.
    • A. 

      15 and 8 to 15

    • B. 

      10 and 10 to 20

    • C. 

      10 and 25 to 30

    • D. 

      8 and 15 to 20

  • 71. 
    Quality Assurance for EtO has process monitors that consists of the "4 R's": Run, Read, Record and ___________. 
    • A. 

      Resolve

    • B. 

      Retain

    • C. 

      Re-act

    • D. 

      Revert

  • 72. 
     If the Flash sterilization load consists of a single instrument comprised of metal and without lumens, a ___________ cycle at 270deg F (132deg C) should be used. 
    • A. 

      4 min

    • B. 

      3 min

    • C. 

      10 min

    • D. 

      5 min

  • 73. 
    Sterilization______________ indicators help to confirm that package have been properly exposed to the sterilization process, and can be the first sign of a process error. 
    • A. 

      Chemical

    • B. 

      Process

    • C. 

      Guaze strips

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 74. 
    Which of the following is not an ergonomic stressor? 
    • A. 

      Repetition

    • B. 

      Vibration

    • C. 

      Awkward positions

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 75. 
    Bacteria that grows best in the cold is known as:  
    • A. 

      Psychrophiles

    • B. 

      Thermophiles

    • C. 

      Mesophiles

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 76. 
    Chemicals that remove or inactivate hard water minerals are known as: 
    • A. 

      Wetting agents

    • B. 

      Sequesting agents

    • C. 

      Chelating agents

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 77. 
    The Express cycle is preset by the manufacturer for __________ minutes at 270deg F with _________ minutes of trying time and a total cycle of __________ minutes. 
    • A. 

      8, 5 and 10

    • B. 

      3, 4 and 10

    • C. 

      4, 3 and 12

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 78. 
    Chemicals that hold hard water minerals in solution, and prevent soaps or detergents from reacting with the minerals is known as: 
    • A. 

      Chelating agents

    • B. 

      Sequesting agents

    • C. 

      Wetting agents

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 79. 
    _________ involves methods used to assess the risks of a specific activity, and to develop a program to reduce losses from exposure to them. 
    • A. 

      Ergonomics

    • B. 

      All the above

    • C. 

      Risk Management

    • D. 

      Central Supply

  • 80. 
    There are two types of sterile solutions:____________ and external solutions. 
    • A. 

      Parenteral

    • B. 

      Compound

    • C. 

      Internal

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 81. 
      Up to _______ percent of the micro-organisms on an instrument can be removed with thorough cleaning
    • A. 

      99

    • B. 

      100

    • C. 

      97

    • D. 

      95

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 82. 
    If the load includes complex or lumened instruments, mixed materials, or multiple instruments, a ____________ cycle at 270deg F (132deg C) should be used. 
    • A. 

      10 min

    • B. 

      4 min

    • C. 

      3 min

    • D. 

      5 min

  • 83. 
    They style of sterilizer use a repeated sequence of steam flush and pressure pulse to remove air form the sterilizer chamber to process materials. 
    • A. 

      Flash

    • B. 

      Gravity Air

    • C. 

      Dynamic Air

    • D. 

      SFPP

  • 84. 
    Two basic types of dry heat sterilizers are used in dental offices, which are oven type and ____________. 
    • A. 

      Rapid Heat transfer

    • B. 

      Thermal Nucleur

    • C. 

      Superheated Heat

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 85. 
    A disease, one that occurs more or less continuously throughout a community is known as:  
    • A. 

      Epidemic

    • B. 

      Endemic

    • C. 

      Transdemic

    • D. 

      None of the Above

  • 86. 
    The definition of ____________ is when powered surgical instrumentation gets damaged by fluid (i.e. water, cleaning solution,..etc) due to fluids penetrating into the interior of the instrument. 
    • A. 

      Fluid invasion

    • B. 

      Fluid resonance

    • C. 

      Fluid reprocessity

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 87. 
    The most common problems associated with electric power equipment are: 
    • A. 

      Damage to electrical parts during sterilization

    • B. 

      Condensation that enters the equipment when seals wear out

    • C. 

      Electrical contacts become worn and affect equipment handling

    • D. 

      All the above

  • 88. 
    Care of Air hoses; Proper coil size for sterilization should be _______________. 
    • A. 

      5 - 6 inches

    • B. 

      8 - 10 inches

    • C. 

      9 - 12 inches

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 89. 
    Endoscope reprocessing recommendations published by the CDC and FDA are based upon the__________________ which categorizes instrument disinfection needs according to its intended use, and its risk of transmitting disease. 
    • A. 

      Spankhowzer System

    • B. 

      Spralling System

    • C. 

      Robertization System

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 90. 
      ___________ is the most important step in processing flexible endoscopes. 
    • A. 

      Sterilization

    • B. 

      Manual Cleaning

    • C. 

      Packaging

    • D. 

      Leak Testing

  • 91. 
    ____________ mandates that medical equipment should be decontaminated to the maximum extent possible before transportation. 
    • A. 

      DoT

    • B. 

      OSHA

    • C. 

      CDC

    • D. 

      FDA

  • 92. 
    Cleaning reusable brushes and accessories for endoscopes; brushes should be thoroughly cleaned by the use of ________________and then steam sterilization. 
    • A. 

      Ultrasonic Cleaning

    • B. 

      Manual Cleaning

    • C. 

      OPA

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 93. 
    In reprocessing endoscopes, after rinsing, the endoscope should be irrigated with _______________, followed by forced air-drying.
    • A. 

      Deionized Water

    • B. 

      Isopropyl alcohol

    • C. 

      Sterile Water

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 94. 
    Endoscopic accessories are of two types: diagnostic and ______________. 
    • A. 

      Opacification

    • B. 

      coagulating

    • C. 

      Rigid

    • D. 

      Therapeutic

  • 95. 
    Lens inspection for a rigid or semi-rigid endoscope involves examining the none-video scope for optical clarity by looking through the lens while viewing a _________________ with writing on it. 
    • A. 

      Black Paper

    • B. 

      Glossy White Paper

    • C. 

      Non glare White Paper

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 96. 
    When examining through the lens of the rigid or semi-rigid endoscope with the paper, this paper should be held approximately__________ inches from the distal tip. 
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 97. 
    The______________ process is the most critical step in processing loaner instrumentation. 
    • A. 

      Receiving

    • B. 

      Documentation

    • C. 

      Decontamination

    • D. 

      Quality Assurance

  • 98. 
    Agency wich may intervene in a matter of worker protection even if there are no specific regulations covering the situation.
    • A. 

      OSHA

    • B. 

      EPA

    • C. 

      FDA

    • D. 

      AORN

  • 99. 
    Regulations under the Clean air act are administred by
    • A. 

      OSHA

    • B. 

      FDA

    • C. 

      EPA

    • D. 

      AORN

  • 100. 
    Agency wich imposes very strict labeling requirements on manufacturers of chemicals used by the central service.
    • A. 

      OSHA

    • B. 

      FDA

    • C. 

      EPA

    • D. 

      AAMI

  • 101. 
    Healthcare regulations and standards provide consistency of departmental activities by outlining.
    • A. 

      Minimal performance standards

    • B. 

      Equal pay practices

    • C. 

      Productivity time lines

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 102. 
    Established national emissions standards for EO used by hospitals are regulated.
    • A. 

      All in states

    • B. 

      In Washington DC

    • C. 

      In the western states

    • D. 

      Tkere are no established national emission standards

  • 103. 
    Chemical indicators are FDA ___________  devices
    • A. 

      Class I

    • B. 

      Class II

    • C. 

      Class III

    • D. 

      Not regulated by FDA

  • 104. 
    Heart valves and pacemakers are examples of FDA _________ medical devices
    • A. 

      Class I

    • B. 

      Class II

    • C. 

      Class III

    • D. 

      Not regulated by FDA

  • 105. 
    Under current regulations who is required to report suspected medical device-related deaths to the FDA?
    • A. 

      Device manufacturer

    • B. 

      Hospitals

    • C. 

      All of the above

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 106. 
    Standards and regulations help set levels of ___________ in our departments.
    • A. 

      Quality

    • B. 

      Safety

    • C. 

      Efficiency

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 107. 
    Medical device reporting is regulated by the:
    • A. 

      NFPA

    • B. 

      EPA

    • C. 

      WHO

    • D. 

      FDA

  • 108. 
    Each year approximately _______,patients develop a healthcare-associated infection
    • A. 

      1 million

    • B. 

      2 million

    • C. 

      10 million

    • D. 

      20 million

  • 109. 
    Watches and other jewelry should not be worn in the central service department work areas because
    • A. 

      They harbor bacteria

    • B. 

      They are exoensive

    • C. 

      They may be damaged

    • D. 

      They may be displaced or stolen

  • 110. 
    During hand washing should be lathered and scrubbed for at least
    • A. 

      10 seconds

    • B. 

      15 seconds

    • C. 

      1 minute

    • D. 

      2 minutes

  • 111. 
    Thoroughly wash and rinse hands. Use friction washing in a circular motion, wash palms, back and wrist of each hand and and rinse the hands in ____ position.
    • A. 

      Rinse hands holding hands lower than elbows

    • B. 

      Hands will be in up position

    • C. 

      Hands be on down position

    • D. 

      Not need be dried

  • 112. 
    To protect themselves from splashes and spills,Central service technicians assigned to the decontamination area should wear
    • A. 

      Double-cloth gowns

    • B. 

      Blue surgical scrubs

    • C. 

      Fluid resistant gloves

    • D. 

      Sterile operating room gowns

  • 113. 
    The main theory of standards precautions is that:
    • A. 

      Patients in high - risk categories may be infectious

    • B. 

      Patients diagnosed with a specific disease may be infectious

    • C. 

      Patient are generally healthy unless they show syptoms of an infectious disease

    • D. 

      Patient may pose risk of infection whether they have been diagnosed with an infectious disease or not.

  • 114. 
    Which of the following is NOT a requirement of the OSHA blood borne pathogen standard?
    • A. 

      Provide hepatitis B vaccine to employees at no cost

    • B. 

      Observe standards precautions

    • C. 

      Keep bio-hazard areas locked

    • D. 

      Use engineering controls to prevent bio-hazard exposures

  • 115. 
    Following standards precautions protocols is required by:
    • A. 

      The FDA

    • B. 

      The NFPA

    • C. 

      The EPA

    • D. 

      OSHA

  • 116. 
    Departmental dress code apply to:
    • A. 

      Everyone entering the central service department

    • B. 

      Only hospital employees

    • C. 

      Only persons who will be spending more than 10 minutes in the central service work area.

    • D. 

      Only visitors such as sales reps, maintenance personnel. etc..

  • 117. 
    Inanimate objects that can transmit bacteria are called:
    • A. 

      Transmission devices

    • B. 

      Fomites

    • C. 

      Carriers

    • D. 

      Framiseals

  • 118. 
    Cholera is an infection of the small intestine transmitted by :
    • A. 

      Common vehicle

    • B. 

      Airborne

    • C. 

      Vector bone

    • D. 

      Contact

  • 119. 
    Floors in the central service department should be:
    • A. 

      Wet - mopped daily or using a wet dry machine daily

    • B. 

      Wet mopped weekly

    • C. 

      Swept daily and wet mopped weekly

    • D. 

      Swept dialy

  • 120. 
    The absence of microorganisms that cause disease is called:
    • A. 

      Infection prevention

    • B. 

      Infection control

    • C. 

      Asepsis

    • D. 

      HIA- control

  • 121. 
    Know what is dirty,know what is clean,know what is sterile keep the three conditions separate, and remedy contamination immediately are:
    • A. 

      The principles of asepsis

    • B. 

      The basics of blood-borne pathogen standard

    • C. 

      The principles of infection prevention and control

    • D. 

      The basics of environmental control

  • 122. 
    What color should bio-hazard labels/signs be:
    • A. 

      Red/orange

    • B. 

      Orange/yellow

    • C. 

      Orange/blue

    • D. 

      Green/black

  • 123. 
    The decontamination area of the central service department should have:
    • A. 

      10 air exchanges per hour

    • B. 

      15 air exchanges per hour

    • C. 

      20 air exchanges per hour

    • D. 

      No air exchanges because is a bio-hazard area

  • 124. 
    Which of these traffic control/dress code requirements applies to the operating room?
    • A. 

      Biohazard

    • B. 

      Unrestricted

    • C. 

      Semi-restricted

    • D. 

      Restricted

  • 125. 
    Which of the following is a system used to treat the final rinse water used for cleaning?
    • A. 

      Water conductivity

    • B. 

      Sanitization

    • C. 

      Deionization

    • D. 

      Sterilization

  • 126. 
    Bluish or rainbow-type stains are caused by _______ in water.
    • A. 

      Cholides and solids

    • B. 

      Iron and silicates

    • C. 

      Calcium

    • D. 

      Fluoride

  • 127. 
    The ideal level of silicates in water used for cleaning is __________ ppm or less.
    • A. 

      200

    • B. 

      150

    • C. 

      100

    • D. 

      50

  • 128. 
    Purified water should have a ph of ____?
    • A. 

      4.5 - 5-5

    • B. 

      5.5 - 6.5

    • C. 

      6.5 - 7.5

    • D. 

      7.5 - 8.5

  • 129. 
    Tap water should ideally have a chloride concentration of __________ ppm or less.
    • A. 

      200

    • B. 

      150

    • C. 

      100

    • D. 

      50

  • 130. 
    Water purification usually involves the use of a:
    • A. 

      Pre-filter

    • B. 

      Post-filter

    • C. 

      Pre-filter or post-filter

    • D. 

      Pre-and post - filter

  • 131. 
    Water that turbid is :
    • A. 

      Hot

    • B. 

      Tepid

    • C. 

      Clear

    • D. 

      Cloudy

  • 132. 
    Water softeners are used to remove _________ in the water.
    • A. 

      Iron and pyrogens

    • B. 

      Silicates and pyrogens

    • C. 

      Chloride and iron

    • D. 

      Calcium and magnesium

  • 133. 
    Deionized water is used for:
    • A. 

      Sterile irrigation

    • B. 

      Heating/cooling therapy units

    • C. 

      Injection

    • D. 

      Steam sterilizers

  • 134. 
    Which of the following can be removed from water when a reverse osmosis process is used?
    • A. 

      Bacteria

    • B. 

      Pyrogens

    • C. 

      Endotoxins

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 135. 
    Multi-enzimatic cleaning products containing lipase are useful for cleaning:
    • A. 

      Protein soils

    • B. 

      Starches

    • C. 

      Fats

    • D. 

      Sugars

  • 136. 
    Which of the following kills microorganisms?
    • A. 

      Soaps

    • B. 

      Detergents

    • C. 

      Germicidal detergents

    • D. 

      Enzyme presoaks

  • 137. 
    The process of pre-cleaning should begin:
    • A. 

      As soon as devices reach the central service area

    • B. 

      Immediately after the completion of an invasive procedure

    • C. 

      Immediately after instruments are inspected

    • D. 

      Before items are sorted

  • 138. 
    The main purpose of manual cleaners is to:
    • A. 

      Kill microorganisms

    • B. 

      Remove soil

    • C. 

      Reduce cleaning costs

    • D. 

      Provide back-ups if automated equipment is not working

  • 139. 
    Which of the following techniques for brushing instruments should be used?
    • A. 

      Brushing should be done under water

    • B. 

      Brushing should be done above water

    • C. 

      Brushing should be done against the grain of the device

    • D. 

      Brushes made of wire are the best because of their exceptional cleaning ability

  • 140. 
    What is the coolest part of the sterilizer?
    • A. 

      Drain line of the sterilizer

    • B. 

      Center of the sterilizer

    • C. 

      Bottom of the sterilizer

    • D. 

      Side of the sterilizer

  • 141. 
    • A. 

      Class I

    • B. 

      No class

    • C. 

      Class III

    • D. 

      Class II

  • 142. 
     In a sterilization  load containing 2 small basins, the chemicals indicators will be positioned.
    • A. 

      On the middle of the basins

    • B. 

      On the top of the basins

    • C. 

      On the lowest par of the basin

    • D. 

      On the handles to check proper identification

  • 143. 
    Package condensation will occur when:
    • A. 

      Placing hot or warm packages in cold surfaces

    • B. 

      Wet packs

    • C. 

      Because a water leak in the sterilizer

    • D. 

      Open to soon the sterilizer door

  • 144. 
    What is the preferred  pH of detergents used for most cleaning processes?
    • A. 

      Low pH

    • B. 

      High pH

    • C. 

      Neutral pH

    • D. 

      It depends on the water temperature and exposure time

  • 145. 
    System that includes inflatable compression sleeves and a characteristic pressure modulation in order to reduce risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
    • A. 

      Gastric suction unit

    • B. 

      Sequential compression device

    • C. 

      IV pump

    • D. 

      Defribilator

  • 146. 
    Which of the following is an example or regulated medical waste.
    • A. 

      Discarded sterilization wraps

    • B. 

      Blood soaked sponges

    • C. 

      User copier toner cartridges

    • D. 

      General trash from the surgery department

  • 147. 
    The moisture content of saturated steam should posses a relative humidity of:
    • A. 

      88% to 100%

    • B. 

      97% to 100%

    • C. 

      99% to 100%

    • D. 

      50% to 50%

  • 148. 
    Which of the following statements about the use of mechanical washers is NOT true?
    • A. 

      Multi level trays should be separated

    • B. 

      Trays with lids should be opened

    • C. 

      Instruments should be disassembled and opened

    • D. 

      All items should be washed on the same cycle

  • 149. 
    Water must be degassed each time the ultrasonic cleaner's tank is changed because:
    • A. 

      Excess bubbles from filling reduce the energy of the cavitation process.

    • B. 

      Excess bubbles reduce the efectiveness of the detergent

    • C. 

      Excess bubbles decrease the temperature of the tank

    • D. 

      Excess bubbles make it difficult to see items being cleaned.

  • 150. 
    Specialized clothing or equipment worn by employee for protection against a hazard is called:
    • A. 

      Restricted apparel

    • B. 

      Safety apparel

    • C. 

      Hazard equipment

    • D. 

      Personal protective equipment.

  • 151. 
    Written cleaning instructions for surgical instruments should be provided by:
    • A. 

      The mechanical washer manufacturer

    • B. 

      The instrument manufacturer

    • C. 

      The detergent manufacturer

    • D. 

      The healthcare facility

  • 152. 
    • A. 

      Are fever-producing substances

    • B. 

      Are microorganisms that have survived sterilization

    • C. 

      Cause CJD

    • D. 

      Are soil particles

  • 153. 
    Softener water:
    • A. 

      Increases the likehood of mineral scale deposits

    • B. 

      Decreases the likehood of mineral scale deposits

    • C. 

      Is not compatible with detergents

    • D. 

      Can cause rusting of metal instruments

  • 154. 
    The desired solution for cleaning instruments is:
    • A. 

      Soap

    • B. 

      Steam

    • C. 

      A disinfectant

    • D. 

      A detergent

  • 155. 
    These are used to breakdown fatty tissue on instruments:
    • A. 

      Protease enzimes

    • B. 

      Lipaze enzimes

    • C. 

      Amylaze enzimes

    • D. 

      Neutral pH cleaners

  • 156. 
    Instrument lubrication is performed:
    • A. 

      Immediate before use

    • B. 

      After sterilization

    • C. 

      After cleaning

    • D. 

      Before cleaning

  • 157. 
    To prevent coagulation of proteins water temperature should be:
    • A. 

      Below 43°C (110°f)

    • B. 

      Above 43°C (110°f)

    • C. 

      Below 100° (212°f)

    • D. 

      Below 24°C (75°F)

  • 158. 
    Detergents used in a mechanical cleaners should be:
    • A. 

      Low alkanine

    • B. 

      Low acid

    • C. 

      Low temperature

    • D. 

      Low foaming

  • 159. 
    Aluminum items should be cleaned:
    • A. 

      Using a circular motion

    • B. 

      Using a to and fro motion with the grain

    • C. 

      Using a stiff metal brush

    • D. 

      Using a water spray

  • 160. 
    Powered surgical instruments:
    • A. 

      Can not be inmersed

    • B. 

      Can be inmersed

    • C. 

      Should be cleaned at the point of use

    • D. 

      Should be cleaned using a mechanical washer

  • 161. 
    The use of heat to kill all microorganisms except spores is called:
    • A. 

      Sterilization

    • B. 

      Thermal disinfection

    • C. 

      High level disinfection

    • D. 

      Mechanical disinfection

  • 162. 
    These chemicals are used on animate "living tissue" to slow the growth of microorganisms
    • A. 

      Glutaraldehydes

    • B. 

      Disinfectants

    • C. 

      Halogens

    • D. 

      Antiseptics

  • 163. 
    Items that are introduced directly into the bloodstream or other normally sterile areas of the body are classified as:
    • A. 

      Critical items

    • B. 

      Semi critical items

    • C. 

      Non critical items

    • D. 

      Equipment

  • 164. 
    The process by which all forms of microorganisms are completely destroyed is called:
    • A. 

      High level disinfection

    • B. 

      Thermal disinfection

    • C. 

      Sterilization

    • D. 

      Chemical disinfection

  • 165. 
    Iodophors are member of this disinfectant  family:
    • A. 

      Halogens

    • B. 

      Quaternary ammonium compounds

    • C. 

      Alcohol

    • D. 

      Phenolics

  • 166. 
    Phenolics are classified as:
    • A. 

      Intermediate to low level disinfectants

    • B. 

      Intermediate to high level disinfectants

    • C. 

      High level disinfectants

    • D. 

      Sterilants

  • 167. 
    Which of the following are classified as high level disinfectants?
    • A. 

      Glutaraldehyde and OPA

    • B. 

      Glutaraldehyde and phenolics

    • C. 

      Quaternary ammonium compounds and phenolics

    • D. 

      Halogens and OPA

  • 168. 
    THERMAL DISINFECTION IS ACCOMPLISHED USING:
    • A. 

      Heated chemicals

    • B. 

      Heated glurataldehyde

    • C. 

      Prolonged high pressure steam

    • D. 

      Heated water

  • 169. 
    How long must alcohol remain in wet contact with an item to achieve a reasonable level of disinfection
    • A. 

      3 minutes

    • B. 

      5 minutes

    • C. 

      10 minutes

    • D. 

      20 minutes

  • 170. 
    What type of a pressure is required for decontamination areas?
    • A. 

      Negative air pressure

    • B. 

      Neutral

    • C. 

      Forced air

    • D. 

      Positive

  • 171. 
    Surgical instruments should be inspected:
    • A. 

      Before they are cleaned

    • B. 

      Cleaned

    • C. 

      After they are cleaned

    • D. 

      During storage

  • 172. 
    The term " hypo" means
    • A. 

      Quickly

    • B. 

      Above

    • C. 

      Below

    • D. 

      Measured

  • 173. 
    "dermopathy" is a _____?
    • A. 

      Skin disease

    • B. 

      Inflammation of the liver

    • C. 

      Fluid-filled sack

    • D. 

      Inflammation of a joint

  • 174. 
    What type the does bacteria develop spores?
    • A. 

      Gram - positive

    • B. 

      Gram - negative

    • C. 

      Both of the above

    • D. 

      Neither of the above

  • 175. 
    In medical terminology, the purpose of a combining vowel is to:
    • A. 

      Tell the primary meaning of the word

    • B. 

      Placed to connect two word roots

    • C. 

      Make the word easy to spell

    • D. 

      Differentiate between past and present tense