Hardest Trivia Quiz On IAHCSMM Certification Test!

176 Questions | Total Attempts: 343

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Hardest Trivia Quiz On IAHCSMM Certification Test!

Are you studying for the International Association of healthcare certification? We know exams can be a little nerve-wracking so what better way to gauge how ready you are to tackle them than taking up a comprehensive quiz and seeing if you may need some extra tutoring before you sit for the exam. Give it a try and all the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Soiled instruments and other items are received in the _________ area of the Central Service Department.
    • A. 

      Preparation

    • B. 

      Packaging

    • C. 

      Decontamination

    • D. 

      Sterilization

  • 2. 
    _________ is the first step in the sterilization process.
    • A. 

      Receiving

    • B. 

      Sorting

    • C. 

      Soaking

    • D. 

      Cleaning

  • 3. 
    Central Service Technicians must wear special attire referred to as ____ to minimize their exposure to blood-borne pathogens and other contaminants.
    • A. 

      PPE

    • B. 

      OSHA

    • C. 

      SCRUBS

    • D. 

      CDC

  • 4. 
    Instrument sets and other required instrumentation needed for all surgical procedures for an entire day are usually pulled  (collected).
    • A. 

      Two days before they will be used

    • B. 

      The day or evening before they will be used

    • C. 

      The morning of the planned surgery

    • D. 

      Early morning ( for morning procedures )and early afternoon on the day of surgery.

  • 5. 
    The use of analytical skills to solve problems and make decisions is a component of which of the following knowledge and skills dimensions?
    • A. 

      Communication abilities

    • B. 

      Facility system responsabilities

    • C. 

      Employability skills

    • D. 

      Safety practices

  • 6. 
    Nosocomial infections are:
    • A. 

      Most likely to accur during international travel

    • B. 

      Caused by drug resistant organisms

    • C. 

      Those without known cures

    • D. 

      Those which occur in the course of being treated in the hospital

  • 7. 
    The human resources tool that identifies major tasks performed by persons in specific positions is called a:
    • A. 

      Job duty list

    • B. 

      Job specification

    • C. 

      Task summary review

    • D. 

      Job description

  • 8. 
    In the future which of the following will more frequently become a requirement for working in a central service department?
    • A. 

      On the job training

    • B. 

      Experience

    • C. 

      Formal education

    • D. 

      Reference from facility administrator

  • 9. 
    Which of the following is the most popular title for the central service department head?
    • A. 

      Coordinator

    • B. 

      Director

    • C. 

      Manager

    • D. 

      Supervisor

  • 10. 
    The largest costumer of the central service department is ?
    • A. 

      The emergency department

    • B. 

      Labor and delivery

    • C. 

      Material management

    • D. 

      The operating room

  • 11. 
    Which of the following is NOT a trend in the central service?
    • A. 

      Decentralizacion of central service respomsabilities

    • B. 

      The use of more reusable and more complex devices

    • C. 

      Satellite-processing units with centralized management

    • D. 

      Consolidation into entire integrated delivery networks

  • 12. 
    In central service , the concept of " one way flow of materials" refers to the movement of products :
    • A. 

      From central service to surgical areas

    • B. 

      From surgical areas to central service

    • C. 

      From soiled areas to clean processing areas within central service.

    • D. 

      From clean processing areas to soiled areas in the central service

  • 13. 
    The sterile storage area in the central service department should be restricted to :
    • A. 

      Central service managers and supervisors

    • B. 

      Operating room personnel

    • C. 

      Central service employees only

    • D. 

      Properly attired personnel meeting facility requirements

  • 14. 
    The term " hemi" is a
    • A. 

      Prefix

    • B. 

      Root

    • C. 

      Suffix

    • D. 

      Noun

  • 15. 
    The term " exise" means
    • A. 

      To repair

    • B. 

      To open

    • C. 

      To cut out

    • D. 

      Examine

  • 16. 
    • A. 

      Para

    • B. 

      Peri

    • C. 

      Parta

    • D. 

      Pana

  • 17. 
    • A. 

      CABG

    • B. 

      BSO

    • C. 

      ORIF

    • D. 

      TAH

  • 18. 
    The term " intercosto" means
    • A. 

      Within the colon

    • B. 

      Between the toes

    • C. 

      Within the bladder

    • D. 

      Between the ribs

  • 19. 
    The majority of medical terms are to either ______ or _________ origin.
    • A. 

      Greek of french

    • B. 

      Greek or latin

    • C. 

      Latin or french

    • D. 

      Latin and english

  • 20. 
    Wich of the following tells a primary meaning of a word?
    • A. 

      Prefix word element

    • B. 

      Root word element

    • C. 

      Suffix word element

    • D. 

      Combining bowel

  • 21. 
    The purpose of a combining vowel is to:
    • A. 

      Tell the primary meaning of a word

    • B. 

      Suggest the meaning of the root word element

    • C. 

      Ease pronuntiation

    • D. 

      Ease spelling

  • 22. 
    The last word element in a medical term is the:
    • A. 

      Prefix

    • B. 

      Suffix

    • C. 

      Root

    • D. 

      Analog

  • 23. 
    The root element " gastro " refers to the:
    • A. 

      Colon

    • B. 

      Heart

    • C. 

      Muscles

    • D. 

      Stomach

  • 24. 
    The suffix " ectomy " refest to:
    • A. 

      Surgical removal

    • B. 

      Inflamation

    • C. 

      Surgical revision

    • D. 

      Visual examination of organs

  • 25. 
    "hyperglicemia" refers to:
    • A. 

      A malignant tumor

    • B. 

      Tissue death of an artery

    • C. 

      High blood sugar

    • D. 

      Enlargement of the heart

  • 26. 
    The term "rhinoplasty". refers to :
    • A. 

      Surgery of a muscle wound

    • B. 

      Surgical repair of the nose

    • C. 

      Removal of a cyst

    • D. 

      Incision of the stomach

  • 27. 
    "litrotripsy" refers to:
    • A. 

      Aspiration of fatty tissue

    • B. 

      Surgical removal of the ovary

    • C. 

      Crushing a stone

    • D. 

      Visual examination of a joint

  • 28. 
    "subcutaneous" refers to:
    • A. 

      Low sugar content in the blood

    • B. 

      Displacement of the pelvic joint

    • C. 

      Benehealth the skin

    • D. 

      Without infection,sterile

  • 29. 
    • A. 

      Surgical removal of tissue near the thyroid

    • B. 

      Surgical removal of one-half of the stomach

    • C. 

      An instrument to cutting skin

    • D. 

      An instrument used to remove tussue around the bone

  • 30. 
    The term "BKA" refers to a surgical procedure involving:
    • A. 

      Treatment of a fractured bone without a surgical incision

    • B. 

      Surgical removal of both fallopian tubes and ovaries

    • C. 

      Surgical removal of the leg below the knee

    • D. 

      A type of hip joint reconstruction

  • 31. 
    The term "CR" relates to a surgical procedure for:
    • A. 

      Treating a fractured bone without surgical incision

    • B. 

      Creating a new blood supply to an area of the heart

    • C. 

      Surgical removal of the uterus

    • D. 

      Surgical removal of the prostate gland

  • 32. 
    This system gives the body shape and support.
    • A. 

      Muscular system

    • B. 

      Nervous system

    • C. 

      Skeletal system

    • D. 

      Circulatory system

  • 33. 
    This tissue connects one bone to another.
    • A. 

      Tendon

    • B. 

      Ligament

    • C. 

      Muscle

    • D. 

      Cartilage

  • 34. 
    These muscles control involuntary movements like, breathing,digestion,etc.
    • A. 

      Smooth muscle

    • B. 

      Cardiac muscle

    • C. 

      Skeletal muscle

    • D. 

      Fascia muscle

  • 35. 
    This surgical procedure consist in removing an ear bone that was thickened and no longer transmits sound waves and replacing it with an artificial implant to improve hearing.
    • A. 

      Tympanoplasty

    • B. 

      Stapedectomy

    • C. 

      Auditory implantation

    • D. 

      Miryngotomy

  • 36. 
    More than 55% of blood is made up of this yellowish liquid.
    • A. 

      Platelets

    • B. 

      Red blood cells

    • C. 

      White blood cells

    • D. 

      Plasma

  • 37. 
    This organ filters blood to remove amino acids and neutralize some harmful toxins.
    • A. 

      Kidney

    • B. 

      Pancreas

    • C. 

      Liver

    • D. 

      Gall bladder

  • 38. 
    The surgical procedure removes the uterus:
    • A. 

      Hysterocoscopy

    • B. 

      Hysterectomy

    • C. 

      Dilatation and curettage

    • D. 

      Bilateral- salpingoophorectomy

  • 39. 
    This gland stimulates body growth.
    • A. 

      Adrenal gland

    • B. 

      Thyroid gland

    • C. 

      Pancreas

    • D. 

      Pituitary gland

  • 40. 
    The lining of the uterus.
    • A. 

      Vagina

    • B. 

      Endometrium

    • C. 

      Fimbriae

    • D. 

      Skin

  • 41. 
    This surgical procedure removes tissue or displaced bone from the wrist area to release pressure of the median nerve.
    • A. 

      Carpal tunnel repair

    • B. 

      Ulner nerve transposcicion

    • C. 

      Arthrotomy

    • D. 

      Fasciotomy

  • 42. 
    The largest part of the human brain is the :
    • A. 

      Brain stem

    • B. 

      Cerebellum

    • C. 

      Cerebrum

    • D. 

      Spinal cord

  • 43. 
    The surgical procedure is the removal of a testicle:
    • A. 

      Transurethal resection

    • B. 

      Prostatectomy

    • C. 

      Orchiopexy

    • D. 

      Orchiectomy

  • 44. 
    The "throat."
    • A. 

      Esophagus

    • B. 

      Larnyx

    • C. 

      Trachea

    • D. 

      Pharnyx

  • 45. 
    The surgical procedure is the removal of the gall bladder.
    • A. 

      Cholecystectomy

    • B. 

      Colectomy

    • C. 

      Paritodectomy

    • D. 

      Gastrectomy

  • 46. 
    The hip joint is an example of a:
    • A. 

      Gliding joint

    • B. 

      Ball and socket joint

    • C. 

      Pivot joint

    • D. 

      Hinge joint

  • 47. 
    This tissue covers the body's external surface.
    • A. 

      Epithelial tissue

    • B. 

      Connective tissue

    • C. 

      Muscular tissue

    • D. 

      Nervous tissue

  • 48. 
    The brain center of a cell.
    • A. 

      Cell membrane

    • B. 

      Cytoplasm

    • C. 

      Nucleus

    • D. 

      DNA

  • 49. 
    Cartilage is replaced by bone through a process called:
    • A. 

      Ossificacion

    • B. 

      Calcification

    • C. 

      Osmosis

    • D. 

      Cancellous formation

  • 50. 
    The white portion of the eye is called the:
    • A. 

      Retina

    • B. 

      Iris

    • C. 

      Pupil

    • D. 

      Sclera

  • 51. 
    The "voice box".
    • A. 

      Pharynx

    • B. 

      Larnyx

    • C. 

      Mouth

    • D. 

      Trachea

  • 52. 
    Microorganisms reproduce by a process called:
    • A. 

      Repopulation

    • B. 

      Binary fission

    • C. 

      Replication

    • D. 

      Bilateral reproduction

  • 53. 
    For safety purposes, central service technicians should consider all microorganisms in the decontamination area:
    • A. 

      Gram-positive

    • B. 

      Gram-negative

    • C. 

      Manageable

    • D. 

      Potentially infectious

  • 54. 
    The part of the cell that controls cell function is the:
    • A. 

      Cytoplasm

    • B. 

      Nucleus

    • C. 

      Cell membrane

    • D. 

      Capsule

  • 55. 
    A mode of bacterial infection that would take place when an infectious agent was transmitted through an item such as food or water is called:
    • A. 

      Contact

    • B. 

      Common vehicle

    • C. 

      Airborne

    • D. 

      Vector-bone

  • 56. 
    __________ is an example of a fungus.
    • A. 

      Pneumonia

    • B. 

      Tuberculosis

    • C. 

      Athlete's foot

    • D. 

      Herpes simplex type 2

  • 57. 
    All soiled instruments and materials are received from the user units into the central __________ area.
    • A. 

      Preparation

    • B. 

      Decontamination

    • C. 

      Sterilization

    • D. 

      Process storage

  • 58. 
    Which of the following suffixes means " pertaining to"
    • A. 

      "ac"

    • B. 

      "al"

    • C. 

      "ary"

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 59. 
    Which of the following is NOT  an example of surgical asepsis?
    • A. 

      Sterilization of instruments

    • B. 

      Asset management

    • C. 

      Operating room techniques to prevent contamination of sterile instruments

    • D. 

      All of the above are examples of surgical asepsis

  • 60. 
    Given the word " hemigastrectomy" which element of the word is the root
    • A. 

      Hemi

    • B. 

      Gastro

    • C. 

      Ectomy

    • D. 

      This word has no root

  • 61. 
    Which of the following glands is located at the base of the brain and is considered the "master gland"?
    • A. 

      Pituitary

    • B. 

      Thyroid

    • C. 

      Adrenal

    • D. 

      Parathyroid

  • 62. 
    Which of the following is the circular opening of the eye which controls the amount of light which enters the eye?
    • A. 

      Iris

    • B. 

      Pupil

    • C. 

      Cornea

    • D. 

      Lens

  • 63. 
    Bacteria that cause diseases are called
    • A. 

      Aerobic

    • B. 

      Anaerobic

    • C. 

      Pathogenic

    • D. 

      Thermophillic

  • 64. 
    What percentage of microorganisms are harmful to humans because they can grow at approximately human body temperature?
    • A. 

      1%

    • B. 

      2%

    • C. 

      3%

    • D. 

      4%

  • 65. 
    What type of hepatitis vaccine is strongly recommended for most healthcare workers?
    • A. 

      Hepatitis A

    • B. 

      Hepatitis B

    • C. 

      Hepatitis D

    • D. 

      Hepatitis E

  • 66. 
    The part of the cell that controls cell function is the?
    • A. 

      Cytoplasm

    • B. 

      Nucleus

    • C. 

      Cell membrane

    • D. 

      Capsule

  • 67. 
    Involuntary muscles.
    • A. 

      Work without consciousness

    • B. 

      Work only when commanded

    • C. 

      Are not necessary

    • D. 

      Shut down when are resting

  • 68. 
    Rod shaped bacteria are classified.
    • A. 

      Coccus

    • B. 

      Bacillus

    • C. 

      Anhydrous

    • D. 

      Anerobic

  • 69. 
    A molecular reaction that creates an uncontrolled release of energy is known as: 
    • A. 

      Molecular Fission

    • B. 

      Molecular Fusion

    • C. 

      Polymerization

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 70. 
    To unload a sterilizer, crack the door, and wait __________ minutes (if a vacuum unit) or _____________  minutes (if a gravity sterilizer) to assure proper evaporation and drying.
    • A. 

      15 and 8 to 15

    • B. 

      10 and 10 to 20

    • C. 

      10 and 25 to 30

    • D. 

      8 and 15 to 20

  • 71. 
    Quality Assurance for EtO has process monitors that consists of the "4 R's": Run, Read, Record and ___________. 
    • A. 

      Resolve

    • B. 

      Retain

    • C. 

      Re-act

    • D. 

      Revert

  • 72. 
     If the Flash sterilization load consists of a single instrument comprised of metal and without lumens, a ___________ cycle at 270deg F (132deg C) should be used. 
    • A. 

      4 min

    • B. 

      3 min

    • C. 

      10 min

    • D. 

      5 min

  • 73. 
    Sterilization______________ indicators help to confirm that package have been properly exposed to the sterilization process, and can be the first sign of a process error. 
    • A. 

      Chemical

    • B. 

      Process

    • C. 

      Guaze strips

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 74. 
    Which of the following is not an ergonomic stressor? 
    • A. 

      Repetition

    • B. 

      Vibration

    • C. 

      Awkward positions

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 75. 
    Bacteria that grows best in the cold is known as:  
    • A. 

      Psychrophiles

    • B. 

      Thermophiles

    • C. 

      Mesophiles

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 76. 
    Chemicals that remove or inactivate hard water minerals are known as: 
    • A. 

      Wetting agents

    • B. 

      Sequesting agents

    • C. 

      Chelating agents

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 77. 
    The Express cycle is preset by the manufacturer for __________ minutes at 270deg F with _________ minutes of trying time and a total cycle of __________ minutes. 
    • A. 

      8, 5 and 10

    • B. 

      3, 4 and 10

    • C. 

      4, 3 and 12

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 78. 
    Chemicals that hold hard water minerals in solution, and prevent soaps or detergents from reacting with the minerals is known as: 
    • A. 

      Chelating agents

    • B. 

      Sequesting agents

    • C. 

      Wetting agents

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 79. 
    _________ involves methods used to assess the risks of a specific activity, and to develop a program to reduce losses from exposure to them. 
    • A. 

      Ergonomics

    • B. 

      All the above

    • C. 

      Risk Management

    • D. 

      Central Supply

  • 80. 
    There are two types of sterile solutions:____________ and external solutions. 
    • A. 

      Parenteral

    • B. 

      Compound

    • C. 

      Internal

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 81. 
      Up to _______ percent of the micro-organisms on an instrument can be removed with thorough cleaning
    • A. 

      99

    • B. 

      100

    • C. 

      97

    • D. 

      95

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 82. 
    If the load includes complex or lumened instruments, mixed materials, or multiple instruments, a ____________ cycle at 270deg F (132deg C) should be used. 
    • A. 

      10 min

    • B. 

      4 min

    • C. 

      3 min

    • D. 

      5 min

  • 83. 
    They style of sterilizer use a repeated sequence of steam flush and pressure pulse to remove air form the sterilizer chamber to process materials. 
    • A. 

      Flash

    • B. 

      Gravity Air

    • C. 

      Dynamic Air

    • D. 

      SFPP

  • 84. 
    Two basic types of dry heat sterilizers are used in dental offices, which are oven type and ____________. 
    • A. 

      Rapid Heat transfer

    • B. 

      Thermal Nucleur

    • C. 

      Superheated Heat

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 85. 
    A disease, one that occurs more or less continuously throughout a community is known as:  
    • A. 

      Epidemic

    • B. 

      Endemic

    • C. 

      Transdemic

    • D. 

      None of the Above

  • 86. 
    The definition of ____________ is when powered surgical instrumentation gets damaged by fluid (i.e. water, cleaning solution,..etc) due to fluids penetrating into the interior of the instrument. 
    • A. 

      Fluid invasion

    • B. 

      Fluid resonance

    • C. 

      Fluid reprocessity

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 87. 
    The most common problems associated with electric power equipment are: 
    • A. 

      Damage to electrical parts during sterilization

    • B. 

      Condensation that enters the equipment when seals wear out

    • C. 

      Electrical contacts become worn and affect equipment handling

    • D. 

      All the above

  • 88. 
    Care of Air hoses; Proper coil size for sterilization should be _______________. 
    • A. 

      5 - 6 inches

    • B. 

      8 - 10 inches

    • C. 

      9 - 12 inches

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 89. 
    Endoscope reprocessing recommendations published by the CDC and FDA are based upon the__________________ which categorizes instrument disinfection needs according to its intended use, and its risk of transmitting disease. 
    • A. 

      Spankhowzer System

    • B. 

      Spralling System

    • C. 

      Robertization System

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 90. 
      ___________ is the most important step in processing flexible endoscopes. 
    • A. 

      Sterilization

    • B. 

      Manual Cleaning

    • C. 

      Packaging

    • D. 

      Leak Testing

  • 91. 
    ____________ mandates that medical equipment should be decontaminated to the maximum extent possible before transportation. 
    • A. 

      DoT

    • B. 

      OSHA

    • C. 

      CDC

    • D. 

      FDA

  • 92. 
    Cleaning reusable brushes and accessories for endoscopes; brushes should be thoroughly cleaned by the use of ________________and then steam sterilization. 
    • A. 

      Ultrasonic Cleaning

    • B. 

      Manual Cleaning

    • C. 

      OPA

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 93. 
    In reprocessing endoscopes, after rinsing, the endoscope should be irrigated with _______________, followed by forced air-drying.
    • A. 

      Deionized Water

    • B. 

      Isopropyl alcohol

    • C. 

      Sterile Water

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 94. 
    Endoscopic accessories are of two types: diagnostic and ______________. 
    • A. 

      Opacification

    • B. 

      coagulating

    • C. 

      Rigid

    • D. 

      Therapeutic

  • 95. 
    Lens inspection for a rigid or semi-rigid endoscope involves examining the none-video scope for optical clarity by looking through the lens while viewing a _________________ with writing on it. 
    • A. 

      Black Paper

    • B. 

      Glossy White Paper

    • C. 

      Non glare White Paper

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 96. 
    When examining through the lens of the rigid or semi-rigid endoscope with the paper, this paper should be held approximately__________ inches from the distal tip. 
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 97. 
    The______________ process is the most critical step in processing loaner instrumentation. 
    • A. 

      Receiving

    • B. 

      Documentation

    • C. 

      Decontamination

    • D. 

      Quality Assurance

  • 98. 
    Agency wich may intervene in a matter of worker protection even if there are no specific regulations covering the situation.
    • A. 

      OSHA

    • B. 

      EPA

    • C. 

      FDA

    • D. 

      AORN

  • 99. 
    Regulations under the Clean air act are administred by
    • A. 

      OSHA

    • B. 

      FDA

    • C. 

      EPA

    • D. 

      AORN

  • 100. 
    Agency wich imposes very strict labeling requirements on manufacturers of chemicals used by the central service.
    • A. 

      OSHA

    • B. 

      FDA

    • C. 

      EPA

    • D. 

      AAMI

  • 101. 
    Healthcare regulations and standards provide consistency of departmental activities by outlining.
    • A. 

      Minimal performance standards

    • B. 

      Equal pay practices

    • C. 

      Productivity time lines

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 102. 
    Established national emissions standards for EO used by hospitals are regulated.
    • A. 

      All in states

    • B. 

      In Washington DC

    • C. 

      In the western states

    • D. 

      Tkere are no established national emission standards

  • 103. 
    Chemical indicators are FDA ___________  devices
    • A. 

      Class I

    • B. 

      Class II

    • C. 

      Class III

    • D. 

      Not regulated by FDA

  • 104. 
    Heart valves and pacemakers are examples of FDA _________ medical devices
    • A. 

      Class I

    • B. 

      Class II

    • C. 

      Class III

    • D. 

      Not regulated by FDA

  • 105. 
    Under current regulations who is required to report suspected medical device-related deaths to the FDA?
    • A. 

      Device manufacturer

    • B. 

      Hospitals

    • C. 

      All of the above

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 106. 
    Standards and regulations help set levels of ___________ in our departments.
    • A. 

      Quality

    • B. 

      Safety

    • C. 

      Efficiency

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 107. 
    Medical device reporting is regulated by the:
    • A. 

      NFPA

    • B. 

      EPA

    • C. 

      WHO

    • D. 

      FDA

  • 108. 
    Each year approximately _______,patients develop a healthcare-associated infection
    • A. 

      1 million

    • B. 

      2 million

    • C. 

      10 million

    • D. 

      20 million

  • 109. 
    Watches and other jewelry should not be worn in the central service department work areas because
    • A. 

      They harbor bacteria

    • B. 

      They are exoensive

    • C. 

      They may be damaged

    • D. 

      They may be displaced or stolen

  • 110. 
    During hand washing should be lathered and scrubbed for at least
    • A. 

      10 seconds

    • B. 

      15 seconds

    • C. 

      1 minute

    • D. 

      2 minutes

  • 111. 
    Thoroughly wash and rinse hands. Use friction washing in a circular motion, wash palms, back and wrist of each hand and and rinse the hands in ____ position.
    • A. 

      Rinse hands holding hands lower than elbows

    • B. 

      Hands will be in up position

    • C. 

      Hands be on down position

    • D. 

      Not need be dried

  • 112. 
    To protect themselves from splashes and spills,Central service technicians assigned to the decontamination area should wear
    • A. 

      Double-cloth gowns

    • B. 

      Blue surgical scrubs

    • C. 

      Fluid resistant gloves

    • D. 

      Sterile operating room gowns

  • 113. 
    The main theory of standards precautions is that:
    • A. 

      Patients in high - risk categories may be infectious

    • B. 

      Patients diagnosed with a specific disease may be infectious

    • C. 

      Patient are generally healthy unless they show syptoms of an infectious disease

    • D. 

      Patient may pose risk of infection whether they have been diagnosed with an infectious disease or not.

  • 114. 
    Which of the following is NOT a requirement of the OSHA blood borne pathogen standard?
    • A. 

      Provide hepatitis B vaccine to employees at no cost

    • B. 

      Observe standards precautions

    • C. 

      Keep bio-hazard areas locked

    • D. 

      Use engineering controls to prevent bio-hazard exposures

  • 115. 
    Following standards precautions protocols is required by:
    • A. 

      The FDA

    • B. 

      The NFPA

    • C. 

      The EPA

    • D. 

      OSHA

  • 116. 
    Departmental dress code apply to:
    • A. 

      Everyone entering the central service department

    • B. 

      Only hospital employees

    • C. 

      Only persons who will be spending more than 10 minutes in the central service work area.

    • D. 

      Only visitors such as sales reps, maintenance personnel. etc..

  • 117. 
    Inanimate objects that can transmit bacteria are called:
    • A. 

      Transmission devices

    • B. 

      Fomites

    • C. 

      Carriers

    • D. 

      Framiseals

  • 118. 
    Cholera is an infection of the small intestine transmitted by :
    • A. 

      Common vehicle

    • B. 

      Airborne

    • C. 

      Vector bone

    • D. 

      Contact

  • 119. 
    Floors in the central service department should be:
    • A. 

      Wet - mopped daily or using a wet dry machine daily

    • B. 

      Wet mopped weekly

    • C. 

      Swept daily and wet mopped weekly

    • D. 

      Swept dialy

  • 120. 
    The absence of microorganisms that cause disease is called:
    • A. 

      Infection prevention

    • B. 

      Infection control

    • C. 

      Asepsis

    • D. 

      HIA- control

  • 121. 
    Know what is dirty,know what is clean,know what is sterile keep the three conditions separate, and remedy contamination immediately are:
    • A. 

      The principles of asepsis

    • B. 

      The basics of blood-borne pathogen standard

    • C. 

      The principles of infection prevention and control

    • D. 

      The basics of environmental control

  • 122. 
    What color should bio-hazard labels/signs be:
    • A. 

      Red/orange

    • B. 

      Orange/yellow

    • C. 

      Orange/blue

    • D. 

      Green/black

  • 123. 
    The decontamination area of the central service department should have:
    • A. 

      10 air exchanges per hour

    • B. 

      15 air exchanges per hour

    • C. 

      20 air exchanges per hour

    • D. 

      No air exchanges because is a bio-hazard area

  • 124. 
    Which of these traffic control/dress code requirements applies to the operating room?
    • A. 

      Biohazard

    • B. 

      Unrestricted

    • C. 

      Semi-restricted

    • D. 

      Restricted

  • 125. 
    Which of the following is a system used to treat the final rinse water used for cleaning?
    • A. 

      Water conductivity

    • B. 

      Sanitization

    • C. 

      Deionization

    • D. 

      Sterilization

  • 126. 
    Bluish or rainbow-type stains are caused by _______ in water.
    • A. 

      Cholides and solids

    • B. 

      Iron and silicates

    • C. 

      Calcium

    • D. 

      Fluoride

  • 127. 
    The ideal level of silicates in water used for cleaning is __________ ppm or less.
    • A. 

      200

    • B. 

      150

    • C. 

      100

    • D. 

      50

  • 128. 
    Purified water should have a ph of ____?
    • A. 

      4.5 - 5-5

    • B. 

      5.5 - 6.5

    • C. 

      6.5 - 7.5

    • D. 

      7.5 - 8.5

  • 129. 
    Tap water should ideally have a chloride concentration of __________ ppm or less.
    • A. 

      200

    • B. 

      150

    • C. 

      100

    • D. 

      50

  • 130. 
    Water purification usually involves the use of a:
    • A. 

      Pre-filter

    • B. 

      Post-filter

    • C. 

      Pre-filter or post-filter

    • D. 

      Pre-and post - filter

  • 131. 
    Water that turbid is :
    • A. 

      Hot

    • B. 

      Tepid

    • C. 

      Clear

    • D. 

      Cloudy

  • 132. 
    Water softeners are used to remove _________ in the water.
    • A. 

      Iron and pyrogens

    • B. 

      Silicates and pyrogens

    • C. 

      Chloride and iron

    • D. 

      Calcium and magnesium

  • 133. 
    Deionized water is used for:
    • A. 

      Sterile irrigation

    • B. 

      Heating/cooling therapy units

    • C. 

      Injection

    • D. 

      Steam sterilizers

  • 134. 
    Which of the following can be removed from water when a reverse osmosis process is used?
    • A. 

      Bacteria

    • B. 

      Pyrogens

    • C. 

      Endotoxins

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 135. 
    Multi-enzimatic cleaning products containing lipase are useful for cleaning:
    • A. 

      Protein soils

    • B. 

      Starches

    • C. 

      Fats

    • D. 

      Sugars

  • 136. 
    Which of the following kills microorganisms?
    • A. 

      Soaps

    • B. 

      Detergents

    • C. 

      Germicidal detergents

    • D. 

      Enzyme presoaks

  • 137. 
    The process of pre-cleaning should begin:
    • A. 

      As soon as devices reach the central service area

    • B. 

      Immediately after the completion of an invasive procedure

    • C. 

      Immediately after instruments are inspected

    • D. 

      Before items are sorted

  • 138. 
    The main purpose of manual cleaners is to:
    • A. 

      Kill microorganisms

    • B. 

      Remove soil

    • C. 

      Reduce cleaning costs

    • D. 

      Provide back-ups if automated equipment is not working

  • 139. 
    Which of the following techniques for brushing instruments should be used?
    • A. 

      Brushing should be done under water

    • B. 

      Brushing should be done above water

    • C. 

      Brushing should be done against the grain of the device

    • D. 

      Brushes made of wire are the best because of their exceptional cleaning ability

  • 140. 
    What is the coolest part of the sterilizer?
    • A. 

      Drain line of the sterilizer

    • B. 

      Center of the sterilizer

    • C. 

      Bottom of the sterilizer

    • D. 

      Side of the sterilizer

  • 141. 
    Autoclave sterilizer is a _____ class of device.
    • A. 

      Class I

    • B. 

      No class

    • C. 

      Class III

    • D. 

      Class II

  • 142. 
     In a sterilization  load containing 2 small basins, the chemicals indicators will be positioned.
    • A. 

      On the middle of the basins

    • B. 

      On the top of the basins

    • C. 

      On the lowest par of the basin

    • D. 

      On the handles to check proper identification

  • 143. 
    Package condensation will occur when:
    • A. 

      Placing hot or warm packages in cold surfaces

    • B. 

      Wet packs

    • C. 

      Because a water leak in the sterilizer

    • D. 

      Open to soon the sterilizer door

  • 144. 
    What is the preferred  pH of detergents used for most cleaning processes?
    • A. 

      Low pH

    • B. 

      High pH

    • C. 

      Neutral pH

    • D. 

      It depends on the water temperature and exposure time

  • 145. 
    System that includes inflatable compression sleeves and a characteristic pressure modulation in order to reduce risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
    • A. 

      Gastric suction unit

    • B. 

      Sequential compression device

    • C. 

      IV pump

    • D. 

      Defribilator

  • 146. 
    Which of the following is an example or regulated medical waste.
    • A. 

      Discarded sterilization wraps

    • B. 

      Blood soaked sponges

    • C. 

      User copier toner cartridges

    • D. 

      General trash from the surgery department

  • 147. 
    The moisture content of saturated steam should posses a relative humidity of:
    • A. 

      88% to 100%

    • B. 

      97% to 100%

    • C. 

      99% to 100%

    • D. 

      50% to 50%

  • 148. 
    Which of the following statements about the use of mechanical washers is NOT true?
    • A. 

      Multi level trays should be separated

    • B. 

      Trays with lids should be opened

    • C. 

      Instruments should be disassembled and opened

    • D. 

      All items should be washed on the same cycle

  • 149. 
    Water must be degassed each time the ultrasonic cleaner's tank is changed because:
    • A. 

      Excess bubbles from filling reduce the energy of the cavitation process.

    • B. 

      Excess bubbles reduce the efectiveness of the detergent

    • C. 

      Excess bubbles decrease the temperature of the tank

    • D. 

      Excess bubbles make it difficult to see items being cleaned.

  • 150. 
    Specialized clothing or equipment worn by employee for protection against a hazard is called:
    • A. 

      Restricted apparel

    • B. 

      Safety apparel

    • C. 

      Hazard equipment

    • D. 

      Personal protective equipment.

  • 151. 
    Written cleaning instructions for surgical instruments should be provided by:
    • A. 

      The mechanical washer manufacturer

    • B. 

      The instrument manufacturer

    • C. 

      The detergent manufacturer

    • D. 

      The healthcare facility

  • 152. 
    • A. 

      Are fever-producing substances

    • B. 

      Are microorganisms that have survived sterilization

    • C. 

      Cause CJD

    • D. 

      Are soil particles

  • 153. 
    Softener water:
    • A. 

      Increases the likehood of mineral scale deposits

    • B. 

      Decreases the likehood of mineral scale deposits

    • C. 

      Is not compatible with detergents

    • D. 

      Can cause rusting of metal instruments

  • 154. 
    The desired solution for cleaning instruments is:
    • A. 

      Soap

    • B. 

      Steam

    • C. 

      A disinfectant

    • D. 

      A detergent

  • 155. 
    These are used to breakdown fatty tissue on instruments:
    • A. 

      Protease enzimes

    • B. 

      Lipaze enzimes

    • C. 

      Amylaze enzimes

    • D. 

      Neutral pH cleaners

  • 156. 
    Instrument lubrication is performed:
    • A. 

      Immediate before use

    • B. 

      After sterilization

    • C. 

      After cleaning

    • D. 

      Before cleaning

  • 157. 
    To prevent coagulation of proteins water temperature should be:
    • A. 

      Below 43°C (110°f)

    • B. 

      Above 43°C (110°f)

    • C. 

      Below 100° (212°f)

    • D. 

      Below 24°C (75°F)

  • 158. 
    Detergents used in a mechanical cleaners should be:
    • A. 

      Low alkanine

    • B. 

      Low acid

    • C. 

      Low temperature

    • D. 

      Low foaming

  • 159. 
    Aluminum items should be cleaned:
    • A. 

      Using a circular motion

    • B. 

      Using a to and fro motion with the grain

    • C. 

      Using a stiff metal brush

    • D. 

      Using a water spray

  • 160. 
    Powered surgical instruments:
    • A. 

      Can not be inmersed

    • B. 

      Can be inmersed

    • C. 

      Should be cleaned at the point of use

    • D. 

      Should be cleaned using a mechanical washer

  • 161. 
    The use of heat to kill all microorganisms except spores is called:
    • A. 

      Sterilization

    • B. 

      Thermal disinfection

    • C. 

      High level disinfection

    • D. 

      Mechanical disinfection

  • 162. 
    These chemicals are used on animate "living tissue" to slow the growth of microorganisms
    • A. 

      Glutaraldehydes

    • B. 

      Disinfectants

    • C. 

      Halogens

    • D. 

      Antiseptics

  • 163. 
    Items that are introduced directly into the bloodstream or other normally sterile areas of the body are classified as:
    • A. 

      Critical items

    • B. 

      Semi critical items

    • C. 

      Non critical items

    • D. 

      Equipment

  • 164. 
    The process by which all forms of microorganisms are completely destroyed is called:
    • A. 

      High level disinfection

    • B. 

      Thermal disinfection

    • C. 

      Sterilization

    • D. 

      Chemical disinfection

  • 165. 
    Iodophors are member of this disinfectant  family:
    • A. 

      Halogens

    • B. 

      Quaternary ammonium compounds

    • C. 

      Alcohol

    • D. 

      Phenolics

  • 166. 
    Phenolics are classified as:
    • A. 

      Intermediate to low level disinfectants

    • B. 

      Intermediate to high level disinfectants

    • C. 

      High level disinfectants

    • D. 

      Sterilants

  • 167. 
    Which of the following are classified as high level disinfectants?
    • A. 

      Glutaraldehyde and OPA

    • B. 

      Glutaraldehyde and phenolics

    • C. 

      Quaternary ammonium compounds and phenolics

    • D. 

      Halogens and OPA

  • 168. 
    THERMAL DISINFECTION IS ACCOMPLISHED USING:
    • A. 

      Heated chemicals

    • B. 

      Heated glurataldehyde

    • C. 

      Prolonged high pressure steam

    • D. 

      Heated water

  • 169. 
    How long must alcohol remain in wet contact with an item to achieve a reasonable level of disinfection
    • A. 

      3 minutes

    • B. 

      5 minutes

    • C. 

      10 minutes

    • D. 

      20 minutes

  • 170. 
    What type of a pressure is required for decontamination areas?
    • A. 

      Negative air pressure

    • B. 

      Neutral

    • C. 

      Forced air

    • D. 

      Positive

  • 171. 
    Surgical instruments should be inspected:
    • A. 

      Before they are cleaned

    • B. 

      Cleaned

    • C. 

      After they are cleaned

    • D. 

      During storage

  • 172. 
    The term " hypo" means
    • A. 

      Quickly

    • B. 

      Above

    • C. 

      Below

    • D. 

      Measured

  • 173. 
    "dermopathy" is a _____?
    • A. 

      Skin disease

    • B. 

      Inflammation of the liver

    • C. 

      Fluid-filled sack

    • D. 

      Inflammation of a joint

  • 174. 
    What type the does bacteria develop spores?
    • A. 

      Gram - positive

    • B. 

      Gram - negative

    • C. 

      Both of the above

    • D. 

      Neither of the above

  • 175. 
    In medical terminology, the purpose of a combining vowel is to:
    • A. 

      Tell the primary meaning of the word

    • B. 

      Placed to connect two word roots

    • C. 

      Make the word easy to spell

    • D. 

      Differentiate between past and present tense

  • 176. 
    Is [your statement here] true or false?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False