Healthy Community Final

94 Questions | Total Attempts: 14

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Community Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Changing institutional behavior includes changing:
    • A. 

  • 2. 
    Changing public policy to affect a patient's behavior includes changing:
    • A. 

  • 3. 
    What concept of the health belief model is defined as : patient will engage in preventative behavior if they understand the physical and emotional costs of taking action ?
    • A. 

  • 4. 
    What concept of the health belief model is defined as : strategies to active readiness (distributing public health notices, flyers, and other reminder systems) ? 
    • A. 

  • 5. 
    Self efficacy is defined as:
    • A. 

  • 6. 
    If a patient has no intention of taking action in the next 6 months, they are exemplifying which component of the change model?
    • A. 

  • 7. 
    • A. 

  • 8. 
    What is the grade given to women who have had a hysterectomy ?
    • A. 

  • 9. 
    Which of the following systems was developed by the US Cancer institute to increase communication between the health specialist performing the pap smear and cytologist, and to provide information about the quality of the cell sample and types of cell changes?
    • A. 

  • 10. 
    The most common cause of cervical cancer (over 90% world wide) is?
    • A. 

  • 11. 
    At what age would you recommend your patients getting a colonoscopy?  
    • A. 

  • 12. 
    • A. 

  • 13. 
    The B in ABCD (pneumonic for irregular moles) stands for:
    • A. 

  • 14. 
    The C in ABCD (pneumonic for irregular moles) stands for:
    • A. 

  • 15. 
    Which of the following gender and age groups are at risk for hypertension and are within the screening age?
    • A. 

  • 16. 
    Hypertension should be diagnosed after:
    • A. 

  • 17. 
    BP should be measured every 2 years in person with the following BP:
    • A. 

  • 18. 
    BP should be measured every year in persons with the following BP:
    • A. 

  • 19. 
    • A. 

  • 20. 
    An important characteristic of gonorrhea:
    • A. 

  • 21. 
    Gonorrhea is treated with:
    • A. 

  • 22. 
    The USPTF screening grade for sexually active women and either pregnant or non-pregnant and at increased risk:
    • A. 

  • 23. 
    This bacterial STD is know as the "great imitator" because it's symptoms mimic those of other similar diseases. 
    • A. 

  • 24. 
    • A. 

  • 25. 
    The most common cause of tobacco related deaths (5.5 million) is:
    • A. 

  • 26. 
    The second common cause of tobacco related deaths ( 4.1 million) is:
    • A. 

  • 27. 
    If a patient presents with pale dry skin, increased sensitivity to cold, unexplained weight gain, depression, muscles weakness, muscle ache & tenderness, hoarse voice, and menstrual irregularities you should suspect:
    • A. 

  • 28. 
    The USPTF grade for thyroid disease screening:
    • A. 

  • 29. 
    • A. 

  • 30. 
    Type II diabetes is defined as fasting glucose level of ___________ or greater with a confirmation of repeated test on a separate day. 
    • A. 

  • 31. 
    Morbidity is:
    • A. 

      Illness/disease

    • B. 

      Death

    • C. 

      Health

    • D. 

      Love

  • 32. 
    New cases in a given time period, in a particular population is:
    • A. 

      Prevalence

    • B. 

      Incidence

    • C. 

      Risk factors

    • D. 

      Cats

  • 33. 
    Mortality is:
    • A. 

      Illness/disease

    • B. 

      Perceived susceptibility

    • C. 

      Death

    • D. 

      Sex

  • 34. 
    Changing individual behavior includes a patient's:
    • A. 

      Family, friends, peers

    • B. 

      Social networks, standards, norms

    • C. 

      Rules, policies, informal structures

    • D. 

      Knowledge, attitudes, beliefs, behaviors

    • E. 

      Local policies related to health practices

  • 35. 
    Changing interpersonal behavior includes a patient's:
    • A. 

      Social networks, standards, norms

    • B. 

      Local policies related to health practices

    • C. 

      Rules, policies, informal structures

    • D. 

      Family, friends, peers

    • E. 

      Knowledge, attitudes, beliefs, behaviors

  • 36. 
    Changing community behavior includes a patient's:
    • A. 

      Knowledge, attitudes, beliefs, behaviors

    • B. 

      Family, friends, peers

    • C. 

      Rules, policies, informal structures

    • D. 

      Social networks, standards, norms

    • E. 

      Local policies related to health practices

  • 37. 
    What concept of the health belief model is defined as : A patient is more likely to participate in preventative behavior if they believe they are susceptible to illness ?
    • A. 

      River weed

    • B. 

      Perceived barriers

    • C. 

      Perceived benefits

    • D. 

      Perceived severity

    • E. 

      Perceived susceptibility

  • 38. 
    What concept of the health belief model is defined as : patient is more likely to participate in preventative behavior if they understand the negative consequences of their actions ?
    • A. 

      Perceived benefits

    • B. 

      Self-efficacy

    • C. 

      Perceived severity

    • D. 

      Beer bongs with nipples

  • 39. 
    What concept of the health belief model is defined as : patient will take action to participate in preventative behavior will reduce risk of severity of disease ?
    • A. 

      Perceived barriers

    • B. 

      Cues to action

    • C. 

      Self-efficacy

    • D. 

      Perceived benefits

    • E. 

      Bink bink and bink

  • 40. 
    If a patient intends to take action in the next 6 months they are exemplifying which component of the change model?
    • A. 

      Contemplation

    • B. 

      Pre contemplation

    • C. 

      Preparation

    • D. 

      Actions

  • 41. 
    If the patient will be taking action in the next 30 days they are exemplifying which component of the change model?
    • A. 

      Actions

    • B. 

      Pre contemplation

    • C. 

      Contemplation

    • D. 

      Preparation

  • 42. 
    If a patient has changed they behavior for less than 6 months they are exemplifying which component of the change model?
    • A. 

      Actions

    • B. 

      Preparation

    • C. 

      Pre contemplation

    • D. 

      Contemplation

  • 43. 
    At what age should your patient begin getting mammograms ?
    • A. 

      After 20

    • B. 

      After 35

    • C. 

      After 40

    • D. 

      After 60

  • 44. 
    How often should you advise your patient to get mammograms? 
    • A. 

      Every 6 months

    • B. 

      Every 1-2 years

    • C. 

      Every 5 years

  • 45. 
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

  • 46. 
    When should your patients have their first pap smear?
    • A. 

      After a one night stand

    • B. 

      Within one week of becoming sexually active

    • C. 

      Within 3 years of becoming sexually active

    • D. 

      Within one year of becoming sexually active

  • 47. 
    A Gardisil vaccine for HPV is recommended for the following female age range:
    • A. 

      9-26

    • B. 

      7-14

    • C. 

      9-35

    • D. 

      9-30

  • 48. 
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 49. 
    At what age can your patients stop getting colonoscopies?
    • A. 

      Age 60

    • B. 

      Age 70

    • C. 

      Age 55

    • D. 

      Age 75

  • 50. 
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 51. 
    What grade does the colonoscopy screening receive over the age of 75?
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 52. 
    What grade does the colonoscopy screening receive over the age of 85?
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 53. 
    • A. 

      Because the diagnosis will be confused with a bowel obstruction

    • B. 

      Because sigmoidoscopies take longer and can only be done w/ mild anesthetic

    • C. 

      Because colonoscopies view the entire colon whereas the signmoidoscopy can miss 50% of the diagnosis since it only views the sigmoid.

  • 54. 
    What would cause a false (+) fecal occult test?
    • A. 

      Hemorrhoids, iron supplements, high sugar/fat diets, and NSAIDS

    • B. 

      Iodine supplements, breast cancer

    • C. 

      Enlarged prostate

    • D. 

      Episiotomy

  • 55. 
    Which of the following are considered normal PSA levels?
    • A. 

      5.3ng/ML

    • B. 

      1.2ng/ML

    • C. 

      3.5ng/ML

    • D. 

      0.5ng/ML

  • 56. 
    Which of the following are considered within normal range for annual increase in PSA?
    • A. 

      0.5-0.75 ng/ML

    • B. 

      1.0-2.0 ng/ML

    • C. 

      0.75-1.0 ng/ML

  • 57. 
    Which level of PSA requires a biopsy in men over the age of 50?
    • A. 

      3.5 ng/mL

    • B. 

      3.0 ng/mL

    • C. 

      4.0 ng/mL

    • D. 

      750 mL

  • 58. 
    Which of the following can lead to increases in PSA?
    • A. 

      Rectal exam

    • B. 

      Hypertension and smoking

    • C. 

      Drinking on the river

    • D. 

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia

    • E. 

      A,B & D

  • 59. 
    The A in ABCD (pneumonic for irregular moles) stands for:
    • A. 

      Ansa cervicalis

    • B. 

      Asymmetry

    • C. 

      Awkward

    • D. 

      Annoying

  • 60. 
    The D in ABCD (pneumonic for irregular moles) stands for:
    • A. 

      Dorsal

    • B. 

      Diameter

    • C. 

      Distance

    • D. 

      Drunken Dorota

    • E. 

      Division

  • 61. 
    Which of the following is a risk for developing skin cancer?
    • A. 

      Dark hair and skin, young age, between 5-10 moles on body

    • B. 

      Low altitude climates, wearing > 50 SPF, diabetes

    • C. 

      65 y/o, fair skin, light hair, history of sunburn, excessive sun exposure

    • D. 

      High altitude climates, xeroderma pigmentosum

    • E. 

      C & D

  • 62. 
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 63. 
    • A. 

      B, 25

    • B. 

      A, 30

    • C. 

      A, 18

    • D. 

      B, 21

  • 64. 
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      35

    • C. 

      40

    • D. 

      45

  • 65. 
    What is the recommended high cholesterol screening age for men?
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      35

    • C. 

      40

    • D. 

      45

  • 66. 
    If a women is between ________ and at increased risk for CHD, she should be screened for high cholesterol. This screening is given ______ grade. 
    • A. 

      30-45, A

    • B. 

      30-45, B

    • C. 

      20-45, B

    • D. 

      20-45, A

  • 67. 
    If a man is between ________ and at increased risk for CHD, she should be screened for high cholesterol. This screening is given ______ grade. 
    • A. 

      30-35, B

    • B. 

      30-45, B

    • C. 

      20-35, A

    • D. 

      20-35, B

  • 68. 
    Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for high cholesterol?
    • A. 

      High fat diet and obesity

    • B. 

      Low physical activity and diabetes

    • C. 

      Smoking and stress

    • D. 

      Low homocysteine levels and family history

    • E. 

      High homocysteine levels and family history

  • 69. 
    What is the order of testing for HIV?
    • A. 

      (+) Western blot followed by ELISA

    • B. 

      (-) Western blot followed by ELISA

    • C. 

      (+) ELISA followed by Western blot

    • D. 

      (-) ELISA followed by Western blot

    • E. 

      Western blot only because it is inexpensive and quick

  • 70. 
    Female teens are at increased risk of developing _______________ because of an immature cervix. 
    • A. 

      Menstrual cramps

    • B. 

      Gonorrhea

    • C. 

      Herpes

    • D. 

      Chlamydia

    • E. 

      Syphilis

  • 71. 
    Chlamydia may be treated with:
    • A. 

      Is not treatable, no cure found yet for this virus

    • B. 

      Anti-virals

    • C. 

      Anti-fungals

    • D. 

      Anti-biotics

  • 72. 
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 73. 
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 74. 
    • A. 

      Have you ever felt guilty about your drinking habits?

    • B. 

      Have you ever had a drink in the morning to get rid of a hangover, as an eye-opener?

    • C. 

      Have people annoyed you by criticizing your drinking habits?

    • D. 

      Have you ever felt the need to cut down on your alcohol consumption?

    • E. 

      Have you ever chugged a shot and later found the picture on facebook?

  • 75. 
    What question stands for the A in the CAGE questionnaire for alcoholism?
    • A. 

      Have you ever remembered the bus ride back from the river?

    • B. 

      Have people annoyed you by criticizing your drinking habits?

    • C. 

      Have you ever felt guilty about your drinking habits?

    • D. 

      Have you ever had a drink in the morning to get rid of a hangover, as an eye-opener?

    • E. 

      Have you ever felt the need to cut down on your alcohol consumption?

  • 76. 
    What question stands for the G in the CAGE questionnaire for alcoholism?
    • A. 

      Have you ever reached in the cooler and realized you drank all of the beer and proceeded to drink random cans floating down the river?

    • B. 

      Have you ever had a drink in the morning to get rid of a hangover, as an eye-opener?

    • C. 

      Have you ever felt guilty about your drinking habits?

    • D. 

      Have people annoyed you by criticizing your drinking habits?

    • E. 

      Have you ever felt the need to cut down on your alcohol consumption?

  • 77. 
    What question stands for the E in the CAGE questionnaire for alcoholism?
    • A. 

      Have you ever felt guilty about your drinking habits?

    • B. 

      Have you always thought that you can only have fun with your friends if you get completely smashed?

    • C. 

      Have you ever had a drink in the morning to get rid of a hangover, as an eye-opener?

    • D. 

      Have you ever felt the need to cut down on your alcohol consumption?

    • E. 

      Have people annoyed you by criticizing your drinking habits?

  • 78. 
    In reference for alcoholism screening what does AUDIT stand for?
    • A. 

      Alcohol Use Dorota Identification Test

    • B. 

      Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test

    • C. 

      Alcohol Use Dependency Identification Test

    • D. 

      Alcoholic USA Determining Identification Test

  • 79. 
    In reference to the AUDIT test, a score of ____________ can indicate harmful or hazardous drinking.
    • A. 

      4+

    • B. 

      5+

    • C. 

      7+

    • D. 

      8+

    • E. 

      10+

  • 80. 
    The most studied screening tool for detecting alcohol-related problems in primary care settings is:
    • A. 

      CAGE

    • B. 

      DSMIV

    • C. 

      PEARLS

    • D. 

      AUDIT

  • 81. 
    What does DSMIV stand for?
    • A. 

      Diagnostic Screening Manual for Obesity

    • B. 

      Diagnostic and Statistical Manual for increased risk of diabetes

    • C. 

      Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders

    • D. 

      Diagnostic Screening of Mental Disorders

  • 82. 
    _______________ screening test should trigger full diagnostic interviews tat include standard diagnostic criteria to determine presence or absence of specific depressive disorders such as _________ and _______________ . 
    • A. 

      Negative; major depression, and anxiety

    • B. 

      All; major depression and dysthymia

    • C. 

      All; major depression, and anxiety

    • D. 

      Positive; major depression and dysthymia

    • E. 

      Positive; major depression and bi-polar disorder

  • 83. 
    The third common cause of tobacco related deaths ( 2.1 million) is:
    • A. 

      Respiratory disease

    • B. 

      Cancer

    • C. 

      Cardiovascular disease

    • D. 

      Perinatal death

  • 84. 
    The fourth common cause of tobacco related deaths ( 94,000) is:
    • A. 

      Perinatal death

    • B. 

      Respiratory disease

    • C. 

      Cardiovascular disease

    • D. 

      Cancer

  • 85. 
    If a patient presents with weight loss, tachycardia, nervousness, panic attacks, irritability, increased appetite, increased heat sensitivity, goiter, and frequent bowel movements, you should suspect:
    • A. 

      Thyroid cancer

    • B. 

      Hypothyroidism

    • C. 

      Hyperthyroidism

    • D. 

      Drug use

  • 86. 
    The ADA recommends what screening test for diabetes ?
    • A. 

      Fasting plasma insulin test

    • B. 

      Fasting plasma glucagon test

    • C. 

      Fasting plasma glucose test

    • D. 

      Fasting cortisol glucose test

  • 87. 
    Improved control of LDL cholesterol can reduce cardiovascular complications by:
    • A. 

      10-15%

    • B. 

      20-30%

    • C. 

      20-50%

    • D. 

      50-75%

  • 88. 
    What are the two main goals for healthy people 2010?
    • A. 

      Promote treatment of chronic diseases with new drugs and improve quality of life

    • B. 

      Eliminate health disparities and promote diversity

    • C. 

      Eliminate chronic diseases and increase government funding

    • D. 

      Improve quality and quantity of life & eliminate health disparities

  • 89. 
    The total # of existing cases at a given time and population is:
    • A. 

      Incidence

    • B. 

      Occurrence

    • C. 

      Prevalence

    • D. 

      Asymptomatic statistic

  • 90. 
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

    • E. 

      I

  • 91. 
    What is the grade given for osteoporosis screening of adults at increased risk under the age of 60?
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

    • E. 

      I

  • 92. 
    The most common osteotic fractures are:
    • A. 

      Spine

    • B. 

      Hip

    • C. 

      Wrist

    • D. 

      A & B

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 93. 
    The "golden standard" for osteoporosis screening is:
    • A. 

      Calcium plasma levels

    • B. 

      MRI

    • C. 

      Bone marrow spinal tap

    • D. 

      DXA

  • 94. 
    T and V scores are given to patients that give them standard deviations for osteoporosis diagnosis. The patient has to be _____________ in order to be diagnosed. 
    • A. 

      Below 2.5

    • B. 

      Above 2.5

    • C. 

      Below 5.0

    • D. 

      Above 5.0

    • E. 

      Equal to 3.0