Gulf Partial Simulation Quiz

50 Questions | Total Attempts: 226

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Gulf Partial Simulation Quiz

Simulated Exam for HAAD, prometrics, DHA, and MOH, Take this exam for 60 minutes, You need 70% to pass.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    A 58 year old client Is suffering from acute phase of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following would the nurse In charge Identify as the lowest priority of the plan of care?
    • A. 

      Maintaining usual ways of accomplishing task

    • B. 

      Relieving pain

    • C. 

      Preserving joint function

    • D. 

      Prevent joint deformity

  • 2. 
    The HCP prescribed Kwell lotion to be applied to the entire body. Which instructions should the nurse teach the client concerning this medication?
    • A. 

      Make sure that the skin is completely dry before applying the lotion.

    • B. 

      Put the lotion in the bathwater and soak for at least 20 minutes.

    • C. 

      Leave the lotion on for two (2) hours after applying it to the body.

    • D. 

      Repeat total body lotion application daily for at least one (1) week.

  • 3. 
    For a 6 year-old child hospitalized with moderate edema and mild hypertension associated with acute glomerulonephrltis (AGN), which one of the following nursing Interventions would be appropriate?
    • A. 

      Relieve boredom through physical activity

    • B. 

      Institute seizure precautions

    • C. 

      Weigh the child twice per shift

    • D. 

      Encourage the child to eat protein-rich foods

  • 4. 
    The nurse is caring for an elderly client diagnosed with a herniated nucleus pulposus of L4-L5. Which scientific rationale explains the Incidence of a ruptured disc in the elderly?
    • A. 

      There Is an increased blood supply to the back as the body ages.

    • B. 

      The client did not use good body mechanics when lifting an object.

    • C. 

      Older clients develop atherosclerotlc joint disease as a result of fat deposits.

    • D. 

      Clients develop intervertebral disc degeneration as they age.

  • 5. 
    The nurse is planning care for a client during the acute phase of a sickle cell vaso-occlusive crisis.Which of the following actions would be most appropriate?
    • A. 

      Fluid restriction 1000cc per day

    • B. 

      Administer analgesic therapy as ordered

    • C. 

      Encourage increased caloric intake

    • D. 

      Ambulate in hallway 4 times a day

  • 6. 
    A child In the Emergency Room is diagnosed with an acute episode of Croup (Acute laryngotracheo - bronchitis). During the Initial assessment, which of the following finding would the nurse expect to find?
    • A. 

      Diffuse expiratory wheezing

    • B. 

      Decreased aeration in lung fields

    • C. 

      Shallow respirations

    • D. 

      Nspiratory strldor with a brassy cough

  • 7. 
    Kaliffa, 43 years old, has recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. The diet that the nurse should provide the client will have to be:
    • A. 

      Diet as tolerated

    • B. 

      High protein, low calcium

    • C. 

      Alkaline diet

    • D. 

      Low residue diet

  • 8. 
    The client is receiving external radiation to the neck for cancer of the larynx. The most likely side effect to be expected is:
    • A. 

      Constipation

    • B. 

      Sorethroat

    • C. 

      Dyspnea

    • D. 

      Diarrhea

  • 9. 
    When developing a teaching plan for clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) about the prevention of acute exacerbations, which topic should be included?
    • A. 

      Administration of antibiotics

    • B. 

      Elimination of exposure to pulmonary irritants

    • C. 

      Administration of oxygen as needed

    • D. 

      Performance of deep.breathing and coughing exercises

  • 10. 
    The client diagnosed with ARF Is admitted to the Intensive care department and placed on a therapeutic diet. Which diet would be most appropriate for the client?
    • A. 

      A low-fat and low.cholesterol diet.

    • B. 

      A high-potassium and low-calcium diet.

    • C. 

      A regular diet with six (6) small feedings a day.

    • D. 

      A high-carbohydrate and restricted.protein diet.

  • 11. 
    The nurse is caring for a client experiencing neutropenla as a result of chemotherapy and develops a plan of care for the client. The nurse plans to:
    • A. 

      Restrict fluid intake.

    • B. 

      Teach the client and family about the need for hand hygiene.

    • C. 

      Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to prevent skin breakdown.

    • D. 

      Restrict all visitors.

  • 12. 
    The nurse and an unlicensed nursing assistant are caring for a group of clients. Which nursing intervention should the nurse perform?
    • A. 

      Measure the client's output from the indwelling catheter.

    • B. 

      Provide water for a client diagnosed with diabetes insipidus.

    • C. 

      Instruct the client on appropriate fluid restrictions.

    • D. 

      Record the client's intake and output on the I & O sheet.

  • 13. 
    The husband of a client asks the nurse about the protein-restricted diet ordered because of advanced liver disease. What statement by the nurse would best explain the purpose of the diet?
    • A. 

      The liver cannot rid the body of ammonia thai is made by the breakdown of protein in the digestive system.

    • B. 

      Most people have too much protein in their diets. The amount of this diet is better for liver healing.

    • C. 

      Because of portal hyperemesis, the blood flows around the liver and ammonia made from protein collects in the brain causing hallucinations.

    • D. 

      The liver heals better with a high carbohydrates diet rather than protein.

  • 14. 
    The pregnant client is admitted to a medical unit for the treatment of acute pyelonephrltls. Which scientific rationale supports the client being hospitalized for this condition?
    • A. 

      Pregnant clients historically are afraid to take the antibiotics as ordered.

    • B. 

      The client must be treated aggressively to prevent maternal/fetal complications.

    • C. 

      The nurse can force the client to drink fluids and avoid nausea and vomiting.

    • D. 

      The client will be dehydrated and there won't be sufficient blood flow to the baby.

  • 15. 
    The client admitted with full-thickness burns may be developing DIC. Which signs/symptoms would support the diagnosis of DIC?
    • A. 

      Sudden onset of chest pain and frothy sputum.

    • B. 

      Foul smelling, concentrated urine.

    • C. 

      A reddened, inflamed central line catheter site.

    • D. 

      Oozing blood from the IV catheter site.

  • 16. 
    The client has had a squamous cell carcinoma removed from the lip. Which discharge instructions should the nurse provide?
    • A. 

      Notify the HCP if a lesion that does not heal develops around the mouth.

    • B. 

      Apply heat to the area for 20 minutes every 4 hours.

    • C. 

      Limit foods to liquid or soft consistency for 1 month.

    • D. 

      Squamous cell carcinoma tumors do not metastasize.

  • 17. 
    The client diagnosed with ESRD is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which assessment data warrant immediate intervention by the nurse?
    • A. 

      The dialysate being removed from the client's abdomen is clear.

    • B. 

      Inability to auscultate a bruit over the fistula.

    • C. 

      The client's abdomen is soft, is nontender, and has bowel sounds.

    • D. 

      The dialysate instilled into the client was 1500 mE and that removed was 1500 m/

  • 18. 
    Which equipment must be Immediately brought to the client's bedside when s code is called for a client who has experienced a cardiac arrest?
    • A. 

      A ventilator.

    • B. 

      A crash cart.

    • C. 

      A gurney.

    • D. 

      Porlable oxygen.

  • 19. 
    The elderly client Is diagnosed with chronic glomerulonephritis. Which lab value Indicates the condition has gotten worse?
    • A. 

      The BUN is 15 mg/dL.

    • B. 

      The glomerular filtration rate is 40 mL/minute.

    • C. 

      The 24-hour creatinine clearance is 100 ml/minute.

    • D. 

      The creatinine level is 1.2 mgJdL.

  • 20. 
    The hospice nurse visits a client dying of ovarian cancer. During the visit, the client expresses that "If I can Just live long enough to attend my daughter's graduation, I'll be ready to die." Which phase of coping is this client experiencing?
    • A. 

      Depression

    • B. 

      Bargaining

    • C. 

      Denial

    • D. 

      Anger

  • 21. 
    Persons with chronic asthma are at risk for which complication?
    • A. 

      Bronchogenic cancer

    • B. 

      Atelectasis

    • C. 

      Pulmonary/embolism

    • D. 

      Emphysema

  • 22. 
    Which client is at the greatest risk for the development of skin cancer?
    • A. 

      The African American male who lives in the Abu Dhabi.

    • B. 

      The client with fair complexion who cannot get a tan.

    • C. 

      The client who has a family history of basal cell carcinoma.

    • D. 

      The elderly Arab female who moved from Saudi as a child.

  • 23. 
    The emergency room nurse admits a child who experienced a seizure at school. The father comments that this is the first occurrence, and denies any family history of epilepsy. What Is the best response by the nurse?
    • A. 

      Long term treatment will prevent future seizures

    • B. 

      Since this was the first convulsion, it may not happen again.

    • C. 

      Do not worry. Epilepsy can be treated with medications.

    • D. 

      The seizure may or may not mean your child has epilepsy.

  • 24. 
    The elderly client Is admitted from the long-term care facility diagnosed with congestive heart failure. The client complains of severe Itching on both hands and the nurse notes wavy, brown, threadlike lesions between the client fingers. Which morbld condition would the nurse suspect the client of having based on these assessment data?
    • A. 

      Scabies.

    • B. 

      Herpes simplex 2.

    • C. 

      Tinea capitis.

    • D. 

      Psoriasis.

  • 25. 
    The nurse Is teaching CPR to a class. Which statement best explains the definition of sudden cardiac death?
    • A. 

      Cardiac death is the time that the physician officially declares the client dead.

    • B. 

      Cardiac death occurs after being removed from a mechanical ventilator.

    • C. 

      Cardiac death occurs within one (1) hour of the onset of cardiovascular symptoms.

    • D. 

      The death is caused by myocardial ischemia resulting from coronary artery disease.

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