Air Combat Command Trivia Questions Quiz

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Air Combat Command Trivia Questions Quiz

Are you looking for an air combat command trivia quiz so as to refresh your knowledge? One of the things that we know in the chain of the command followed and the purpose of this unit when in defense of the American airspace. Think you are ready for the exam? Take this quiz and see if you should do more studying!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Helicopters may be authorized by the squadron commander to operate into prepared/unlighted areas unaided, provided the crew is aware of all _____, and aircraft lighting provides sufficient illumination to clearly see the approach path and landing surface.
    • A. 

      Teams

    • B. 

      Runways

    • C. 

      Obstacles

    • D. 

      Visual cues

  • 2. 
    To ensure integrity of the crew preflight, an _____ wil be present whenever maintenance is performed, or at the completion of the maintenance, to check the area in which maintenance was performed.
    • A. 

      Flight engineer

    • B. 

      Aircraft Commander

    • C. 

      Alert crewmember

    • D. 

      Aerial gunner

  • 3. 
    For rope ladder operations, the _____ is responsible for providing, inspecting, and rigging rope ladders.
    • A. 

      Aerial Gunner

    • B. 

      Flight Engineer

    • C. 

      Team Member

    • D. 

      Flight Crew

  • 4. 
    Who may direct arming of crewmembers as deemed necessary by mission threat analysis?
    • A. 

      Aircraft Commanders

    • B. 

      Group Commanders

    • C. 

      Squadron Commanders

    • D. 

      Wing Commanders

  • 5. 
    Interfly is a temporary arrangement between _____ to permit the exchange or substitution of aircrew members and/or aircraft between rescue units to accomplish flying missions.
    • A. 

      OG/CC or equivalent

    • B. 

      Squadron Commander

    • C. 

      MAJCOM A3s

    • D. 

      Deployed commanders

  • 6. 
    All hoist equipped alert aircraft will carry an _____ device on board as an alternate means of insertion/extraction in the event of hoist malfunction/failure.
    • A. 

      Primary insertion

    • B. 

      Hoist quick slice kit

    • C. 

      Raft

    • D. 

      Alternate insertion/extraction

  • 7. 
    The responsibility for mission planning/preparation is shared jointly by the individual _____, and the operations and intelligence functions of the organization.
    • A. 

      Copilots

    • B. 

      Flight leads

    • C. 

      Aircrew members

    • D. 

      Aircraft commanders

  • 8. 
    During overwater operations install low intensity chemlites over each exit and place a chemlite on all emergency egress _____.
    • A. 

      Exits

    • B. 

      Equipment items

    • C. 

      Window handles

    • D. 

      Aisle ways

  • 9. 
    Should the aircraft remain on alert for more than _____, regardless if it has flown or not, complete another full Dash 1 aircraft preflight and hover check.
    • A. 

      1 week

    • B. 

      24 hrs

    • C. 

      48 hrs

    • D. 

      72 hrs

  • 10. 
    If the alert crew is not available, a "buddy preflight" crew may be used to preflight, hover and cock the aircraft at the _____ discretion.
    • A. 

      Aircraft commanders

    • B. 

      Flight engineers

    • C. 

      Mission commanders

    • D. 

      Aerial gunners

  • 11. 
    For all AIE operations, it is the _____ responsibility to ensure all crewmembers are aware of the length of the rope(s).
    • A. 

      Safetyman's

    • B. 

      Flight engineer's

    • C. 

      Deploying team's

    • D. 

      Aircraft commander's

  • 12. 
    The gunners belt and authorized restraint harness attachment point will be the Crew Overhead Restraint System (CORS), the cabin ceiling rappel rings, or the cargo tiedown fittings. A maximum of _____ gunners belts or restraint harnesses will be attached per cargo tie down ring or rappel ring.
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 13. 
    Except during operational/exercise CSAR missions, landings to non-surveyed/unprepared landing zones require a high recon flown at a minimum _____ feet above the site at a minimum airspeed of _____ KIAS.
    • A. 

      100/50

    • B. 

      300/50

    • C. 

      100/100

    • D. 

      300/100

  • 14. 
    During rope ladder operations, the maximum number of personnel on a ladder is limited to _____.
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 15. 
    Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed.
    • A. 

      Note

    • B. 

      Caution

    • C. 

      Warning

    • D. 

      Message

  • 16. 
    An operating procedure, technique, etc., which is considered essential to emphasize.
    • A. 

      Note

    • B. 

      Caution

    • C. 

      Warning

    • D. 

      Message

  • 17. 
    Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in personnel injury and/or loss of life if not carefully followed.
    • A. 

      Note

    • B. 

      Caution

    • C. 

      Warning

    • D. 

      Message

  • 18. 
    There are _____ 28 VDC power receptacles to provide a power source for the AERP system.
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 19. 
    What item must be used to transmit on a selected radio with the long cord?
    • A. 

      Pilot collective switch

    • B. 

      Co-pilot collective switch

    • C. 

      Floor mic switch at the respective crew position

    • D. 

      Handheld PTT switch at the respective crew position

  • 20. 
    When are the AN/ARC-222's two guarded frequencies monitored?
    • A. 

      At all times

    • B. 

      Only when squelch is on

    • C. 

      Only when squelch is off

    • D. 

      At 10 minute intervals

  • 21. 
    The RCS controls for the AN/ARC-222 are located in the _____.
    • A. 

      Aft console

    • B. 

      Lower console

    • C. 

      Center console

    • D. 

      Overhead console

  • 22. 
    What position must the AN/ARC-222 VHF KY-58 control panel PLAIN C/RAD 1 switch be placed for secure voice operation?
    • A. 

      C/RAD1

    • B. 

      C/RAD2

    • C. 

      Plain1

    • D. 

      Plain2

  • 23. 
    The AN/ARC-164(V) HQ has the capability to store up to _____ WODs for current and subsequent days operation.
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 24. 
    The AN/ARC-164(V) HQ automatically accept the first _____ signal it receives after power up.
    • A. 

      HQ

    • B. 

      ARC

    • C. 

      TOD

    • D. 

      WOD

  • 25. 
    During transmissions, a beeping tone is heard on the AN/ARC-164(V) HQ indicating an absence of _____.
    • A. 

      Fill

    • B. 

      TOD

    • C. 

      GPS

    • D. 

      WOD

  • 26. 
    To operate the AN/ARC-164(V) HQ anti-jam (AJ) mode, the radios must have had the _____ loaded and _____ received.
    • A. 

      WOD/TOD

    • B. 

      TOD/preset

    • C. 

      WOD/preset

    • D. 

      Net Number/TOD

  • 27. 
    When using AN/ARC-164(V) HQ, an audible tone will be heard in the headset when the AJ mode is improperly selected. The tone will be heard when the AJ mode is selected and:
    • A. 

      An invalid AJ net is selected

    • B. 

      A TOD has not been initially received

    • C. 

      A WOD for that day has not been entered

    • D. 

      Any of the above

  • 28. 
    Do not operate the AN/ARC-210 (V) in the _____ frequency mode as damage to the HPA could occur.
    • A. 

      ECCM

    • B. 

      MAR

    • C. 

      MAN

    • D. 

      PRST

  • 29. 
    If the AN/ARC-210 (V) system power is off, the SATCOM Fill Panel ZEROIZE switch must be activated for _____ seconds for zeroize to complete.
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      8

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      4

  • 30. 
    The LARS radio can store up to _____ radio ID codes simultaneously.
    • A. 

      9

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      3

  • 31. 
    LARS frequencies must be entered in _____ KHz increments.
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      25

    • D. 

      30

  • 32. 
    Do not transmit on the ARC-164 UHF during the operation of the AN/ARS-6 LARS. _____ degradation will occur.
    • A. 

      ARC-164 UHF

    • B. 

      AC power

    • C. 

      DC power

    • D. 

      LARS

  • 33. 
    A BIT failure may occur during initial power-up of the AN/ARS-6 LARS due to initialization in the internal registers. Therefore, run the BIT _____ times before removing any LRUs.
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 34. 
    Do not allow personnel within _____ of the radar antenna when the radar is transmitting.
    • A. 

      10 ft

    • B. 

      15 ft

    • C. 

      25 ft

    • D. 

      50 ft

  • 35. 
    M-206 flares have a MAG ID of _____. MJU-50 flares have a MAG ID of _____. RR-170 chaff have a MAG ID of _____.
    • A. 

      2/7/8

    • B. 

      1/6/7

    • C. 

      7/6/1

    • D. 

      2/6/1

  • 36. 
    The cabin dispense switches (slap switches) require _____ lbs of force to activate the switch.
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      10

  • 37. 
    In reference to the SPS, the _____ monitors and controls the missile warning system.
    • A. 

      AN/ALE-47 Sequencer

    • B. 

      AN/ALE-47 Programmer Unit

    • C. 

      Optical Sensors

    • D. 

      Control Indicator

  • 38. 
    The SPS optical sensor converter sends signals to the _____ where they are examined to determine if they are a threat.
    • A. 

      CI

    • B. 

      CP

    • C. 

      CCDU

    • D. 

      MDF

  • 39. 
    A _____ second tone will be heard through the ICS when a missile is detected by the MWS.
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 40. 
    The Integrated Optical Sensor Converters (IOSC) perform _____ and _____ functions.
    • A. 

      Threat Sensing/Threat Determination

    • B. 

      Missile Warning/Expandable Dispensing

    • C. 

      Missile Warning/Laser Warning

    • D. 

      Laser Warning/Expendable Dispensing

  • 41. 
    The CI (Control Indicator) display is broken into two sections: _____ and _____.
    • A. 

      STATUS and THREAT

    • B. 

      POWER and SELF TEST

    • C. 

      STATUS and MESSAGES

    • D. 

      THREAT and GRAPHICS

  • 42. 
    On the AN/ALE-47, the _____ switch relays status and dispense switch actions to the programmer.
    • A. 

      Arm

    • B. 

      Ew

    • C. 

      Power

    • D. 

      WOW

  • 43. 
    The _____ manages and executes dispense programs, performs BIT, and communicates with AN/ALE-47 system LRUs.
    • A. 

      OS

    • B. 

      MO

    • C. 

      MSP

    • D. 

      OFP

  • 44. 
    All MWS BIT detected faults are entered into the _____ and all new faults entered into the maintenance fault list
    • A. 

      OFP

    • B. 

      MDF

    • C. 

      PBIT

    • D. 

      PFL

  • 45. 
    In regards to the AN/ALE-47 system, there are _____ sequencers that control chaff/flare dispensing.
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      6

  • 46. 
    AN/ALE-47 sequencer settings can only be changed with _____ from the aircraft.
    • A. 

      Chaff removed

    • B. 

      Flares removed

    • C. 

      Power removed

    • D. 

      Both A and B

  • 47. 
    The forward flare sequencer is located on the left hand side of the _____.
    • A. 

      Pilot console

    • B. 

      Center console

    • C. 

      Gunners console

    • D. 

      Engineers console

  • 48. 
    On MWS, placing the maintenance bypass switch up bypasses the _____ relay and arms the CMDS permitting ground testing of the flare dispensers.
    • A. 

      EW

    • B. 

      WOW

    • C. 

      Power

    • D. 

      Slap switch

  • 49. 
    The MJU-33/A magazine is designed to carry _____ of the 1x1 inch cartridges such as the M206 flares.
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      40

  • 50. 
    On the AN/ALE-47, do no cycle the _____ switch on the CCDU unless expendables dispensing is approved and the aircraft is operating in an area cleared for dispensing or in case of emergency.
    • A. 

      OFF

    • B. 

      MAN

    • C. 

      JETT

    • D. 

      ENAB

  • 51. 
    Concerning the ALQ-144, do not look continuously at the infrared countermeasure transmitter during operation, or for a period of over _____ minute(s) from a distance of less than _____ feet.
    • A. 

      1/3

    • B. 

      3/1

    • C. 

      1/15

    • D. 

      3/15

  • 52. 
    The GM/AHS provides storage for approximately _____ 7.62 rounds in the magazine and _____ in the chute.
    • A. 

      2000/100

    • B. 

      1500/200

    • C. 

      2600/100

    • D. 

      2200/150

  • 53. 
    Concerning the GAU-18A, both pilot and co-pilot airspeed indicators may fluctuate +/- _____ when firing in fixed forward fire mode.
    • A. 

      20 KIAS

    • B. 

      10 KIAS

    • C. 

      5 KIAS

    • D. 

      1 KIAS

  • 54. 
    Concerning the GM/AHS, the method of installing fully loaded _____ on the aircraft should only be done during contingency operations.
    • A. 

      Weapons

    • B. 

      Pararescue teams

    • C. 

      Chaff/flare modules

    • D. 

      Ammunition magazines

  • 55. 
    On the GAU-18/A the bolt is locked to the barrel extension assembly by the _____ lock cam.
    • A. 

      Bolt

    • B. 

      Breech

    • C. 

      Barrel

    • D. 

      Firing

  • 56. 
    On the GAU-18/A, the barrel locking _____ prevents the barrel from rotating during the firing cycle.
    • A. 

      Cam

    • B. 

      Pin

    • C. 

      Shank

    • D. 

      Spring

  • 57. 
    On the GAU-18/A, _____ power is routed from the trigger switches through the GCU to the firing solenoid on the back plate assembly.
    • A. 

      28 VAC

    • B. 

      28 VDC

    • C. 

      110 VAC

    • D. 

      110 VDC

  • 58. 
    The _____ assembly attaches the GAU-18/A to the yoke assembly.
    • A. 

      Cradle

    • B. 

      Sleigh

    • C. 

      Housing

    • D. 

      Recuperator

  • 59. 
    Concerning the GM/AHS, the _____ assembly is equipped with elevation stop brackets and azimuth stop plates which limit the gun field of fire.
    • A. 

      Cradle and yoke

    • B. 

      Housing and breech

    • C. 

      Ejector and extractor

    • D. 

      Retention and extraction

  • 60. 
    The GAU-18/A receiver assembly and barrel jacket assembly support and protect the _____.
    • A. 

      Rod assembly

    • B. 

      Slide assembly

    • C. 

      Cover assembly

    • D. 

      Barrel assembly

  • 61. 
    On the GAU-18/A breach bolt, the _____ must be repositioned when changing from left to right hand feed.
    • A. 

      Barrel

    • B. 

      Breech

    • C. 

      Extractor

    • D. 

      Bolt switch

  • 62. 
    On the GAU-18/A, the _____ cams the firing pin extension to its rearward position.
    • A. 

      Firing pin tang

    • B. 

      Bolt switch

    • C. 

      Cocking lever

    • D. 

      Extractor

  • 63. 
    On the GAU-18/A, as the recoiling groups move to the rear, the _____ lock depressors unlock the bolt from the battery position.
    • A. 

      Bolt

    • B. 

      Breech

    • C. 

      Barrel

    • D. 

      Accelerator

  • 64. 
    On the GAU-18/A, the _____ movement of the bolt to the rear just as the round is being extracted from the firing chamber.
    • A. 

      Oil buffer decelerates

    • B. 

      Rod assembly decelerates

    • C. 

      Slide assemblies accelerate

    • D. 

      Accelerator tips accelerate

  • 65. 
    Concerning the GAU-18/A, the barrel and barrel extension travel rearward a total distance of _____ inches.
    • A. 

      1/2

    • B. 

      1 1/8

    • C. 

      2 3/4

    • D. 

      3 1/4

  • 66. 
    On the GAU-18/A, the retracting slide assembly componenets serve to _____ the weapon.
    • A. 

      Fire

    • B. 

      Stop

    • C. 

      Charge

    • D. 

      Breakdown

  • 67. 
    On the GAU-18/A, the _____ assembly attaches the cradle to the pintle post, which connects the machine gun assembly to the pintle mount.
    • A. 

      Yoke

    • B. 

      Tow plate

    • C. 

      Backplate

    • D. 

      Baseplate

  • 68. 
    On the GAU-18/A, the yoke consists of dual arms with dual forks for maximum _____/minimum _____ during gun firing.
    • A. 

      Error/aiming

    • B. 

      Rigidness/error

    • C. 

      Stiffness/deflection

    • D. 

      Deflection/stiffness

  • 69. 
    On the GAU-18/A, the _____ assembly provides the capability for the weapons assembly to attach to the airframe.
    • A. 

      Cradle

    • B. 

      Tow plate

    • C. 

      Pintle mount

    • D. 

      E-13 adapter

  • 70. 
    On the GM/AHS, the tow plate aft extension provides a mounting point for the _____.
    • A. 

      Pintle block

    • B. 

      Yoke assembly

    • C. 

      Link chute assembly

    • D. 

      SPS flare dispenser assembly

  • 71. 
    On the GAU-18/A, the roll vibration absorber is mounted on the _____.
    • A. 

      Tow plate

    • B. 

      Base plate

    • C. 

      E-13 adapter

    • D. 

      Pintle block

  • 72. 
    On the GAU-18/A, the _____ provides a pivot point for the yoke and pintle arm assembly.
    • A. 

      Cradle

    • B. 

      Pivot arm

    • C. 

      Pintle post

    • D. 

      Plate assembly

  • 73. 
    On the GAU-18/A, the _____ applies operating voltages to the .50 caliber booster drive assembly and provides a through connection for the gun ICS switch
    • A. 

      CEU

    • B. 

      DEC

    • C. 

      ECU

    • D. 

      GCU

  • 74. 
    On the GAU-18/A, when any emergency master arm override switch is actuated, that station becomes armed and can only be fired in the _____ fire mode.
    • A. 

      Side

    • B. 

      Floating

    • C. 

      Forward

    • D. 

      Rearward

  • 75. 
    The tip of an Armor-piercing .50 cal round is painted _____.
    • A. 

      Red

    • B. 

      Black

    • C. 

      Orange

    • D. 

      Aluminum

  • 76. 
    The .50 cal Tracer M 17 tip is painted _____.
    • A. 

      Red

    • B. 

      Blue

    • C. 

      Orange

    • D. 

      Maroon

  • 77. 
    Concerning the GAU-18/A electrical harnesses, the AC output interfaces the _____ with the _____.
    • A. 

      ICS/booster motor

    • B. 

      Booster motor/ECU

    • C. 

      Triggers/master arm override

    • D. 

      Booster motor/last round switch

  • 78. 
    During full fwd/full aft firing of the GAU-2 and the GAU-18/A, the aircrew may encounter temporary hearing loss for up to _____ seconds.
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      20

  • 79. 
    The minigun weapon system uses a _____ motor to provide drive for the mechanical operation of the minigun.
    • A. 

      DC

    • B. 

      AC

    • C. 

      Hydroelectric

    • D. 

      Hydromechanical

  • 80. 
    On the GAU-2, the gun can fire _____ shots per minute in the fixed-forward mode.
    • A. 

      2000

    • B. 

      3000

    • C. 

      4000

    • D. 

      6000

  • 81. 
    On the GAU-2, the _____ is supported in the gun housing by annular ball bearings and supports the barrel cluster.
    • A. 

      Bolt assembly

    • B. 

      Rotor assembly

    • C. 

      Clutch assembly

    • D. 

      Removable tracks

  • 82. 
    On the GAU-2, the _____ extract the spent cartridge from the chamber.
    • A. 

      Guide bar

    • B. 

      Bolt assemblies

    • C. 

      Removable tracks

    • D. 

      Round repositioners

  • 83. 
    On the GAU-2, _____ provide(s) a bearing surface on the bolt assembly side.
    • A. 

      Gun housing

    • B. 

      Rotor assembly

    • C. 

      Removable tracks

    • D. 

      Elliptical cam path

  • 84. 
    On the GAU-2, the _____ follows the elliptical cam path in the gun housing.
    • A. 

      Rotor cluster

    • B. 

      Barrel cluster

    • C. 

      Bolt assembly

    • D. 

      Removable track

  • 85. 
    On the GAU-2, the _____ of the safing sector brings the bolt assemblies into battery positions.
    • A. 

      Cover

    • B. 

      Trigger cam

    • C. 

      Dwell segment

    • D. 

      Bearing surface

  • 86. 
    On the GAU-2, upon trigger release and gun deceleration, the _____ disengages the coupling clutch gear from rotor and feeder assemblies allowing feeding to stop.
    • A. 

      ECU

    • B. 

      GCU

    • C. 

      Solenoid

    • D. 

      AC drive motor

  • 87. 
    Weapons system _____ on the GM/AHS mount is 0.0 fwd, +3.0 at 90, and +6.0 at 171 on both left and right side.
    • A. 

      Azimuth

    • B. 

      Elevation

    • C. 

      Boresight

    • D. 

      Depression

  • 88. 
    Weapons system _____ on the GM/AHS mount is -51 fwd, -48 at 90, and -45 at 171 on both left and right side.
    • A. 

      Azimuth

    • B. 

      Elevation

    • C. 

      Boresight

    • D. 

      Depression

  • 89. 
    Weapons system _____ at 171 degrees azimuth on the GM/AHS mount is +6.
    • A. 

      Azimuth

    • B. 

      Elevation

    • C. 

      Boresight

    • D. 

      Depression

  • 90. 
    Weapons system _____ is -51 at 0 degrees and -45 at 171 degrees azimuth.
    • A. 

      Azimuth

    • B. 

      Elevation

    • C. 

      Boresight

    • D. 

      Depression

  • 91. 
    On the GAU-2, the clutch solenoid remains energized for _____ msecs upon release of the triggers.
    • A. 

      40

    • B. 

      80

    • C. 

      400

    • D. 

      480

  • 92. 
    On the GAU-2, the gun drive motor remains energized for _____ msecs upon release of the triggers.
    • A. 

      40

    • B. 

      80

    • C. 

      400

    • D. 

      480

  • 93. 
    On the GAU-2, the booster drive remains energized for _____ msecs upon release of the triggers.
    • A. 

      40

    • B. 

      80

    • C. 

      400

    • D. 

      480

  • 94. 
    The _____ circuitry provides a delay function to clear the mini gun.
    • A. 

      GCU

    • B. 

      CMD

    • C. 

      GSC

    • D. 

      ECU

  • 95. 
    On the GAU-2, if the gun is operating at high rate when the trigger signal is removed, the system automatically drops to _____ rate of fire to clear.
    • A. 

      Low

    • B. 

      Neutral

    • C. 

      Medium

    • D. 

      Disengaging

  • 96. 
    The M240D has _____ major components.
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      8

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      12

  • 97. 
    The _____ provides energy for returning the M240 bolt and operating rod assembly to the firing position.
    • A. 

      Spade grip

    • B. 

      Operating rod

    • C. 

      Charging handle

    • D. 

      Driving spring rod

  • 98. 
    The total field of fire for the window mounted M240D is _____ degrees on the left and _____ degrees on the right.
    • A. 

      170/171

    • B. 

      160/160

    • C. 

      157/158

    • D. 

      180/180

  • 99. 
    When an inspection is being accomplished by more than one crew member, the inspection may be divided at _____.
    • A. 

      Numbered item

    • B. 

      Half way point

    • C. 

      3 equal portions

    • D. 

      3 equal numbered areas

  • 100. 
    The preflight check is normally performed by the _____ for the assigned mission.
    • A. 

      Copilot

    • B. 

      Aircrew commander

    • C. 

      Primary aerial gunner

    • D. 

      Primary flight engineer

  • 101. 
    Use care when opening the _____ compartment door during high wind conditions.  Wind gusts may damage the door assembly and support strut.
    • A. 

      Cabin

    • B. 

      APU access

    • C. 

      Transition bay

    • D. 

      Nose avionics

  • 102. 
    AN/AAR 47 plume detector elements contain nickelous sulfate, a _____
    • A. 

      Probable carcinogen

    • B. 

      Potential burn hazard

    • C. 

      Probable freeze hazard

    • D. 

      Potential poisonous gas

  • 103. 
    Droop stop pounding is most prevalent at airspeeds below _____ knots.
    • A. 

      100

    • B. 

      80

    • C. 

      40

    • D. 

      20

  • 104. 
    Radar, radar altimeters, Doppler, _____ and _____ will not be operated in a transmitting mode within the Fuel Servicing Safety Zone (FSSZ).
    • A. 

      TACAN/searchlight

    • B. 

      TACAN/transponder

    • C. 

      Position lights/searchlight

    • D. 

      Position lights/transponder

  • 105. 
    The Fuel Servicing Safety Zone (FSSZ) is an area within _____ feet of a pressurized fuel-carrying servicing component and _____ feet around fuel vent outlets of aircraft.
    • A. 

      25/15

    • B. 

      20/10

    • C. 

      50/25

    • D. 

      100/50

  • 106. 
    Do not turn electrical or _____ on or off during refueling.
    • A. 

      Avionics equipment

    • B. 

      Pneudraulic equipment

    • C. 

      Fueling system equipment

    • D. 

      Hydraulic equipment

  • 107. 
    Position fire extinguisher _____ from the refueling point of the helicopter.
    • A. 

      Outside rotor path

    • B. 

      10 feet

    • C. 

      15 feet

    • D. 

      25 feet

  • 108. 
    The _____ will be closed while hot refueling unless prohibited by mission essential equipment.
    • A. 

      LH cabin door

    • B. 

      LH gunners window

    • C. 

      LH cockpit door/window

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 109. 
    During refueling, a crew member will visually check for leaks from the _____, aircraft receptacle and nozzle assembly.
    • A. 

      Tank vents

    • B. 

      Dump vents

    • C. 

      Outboard vents

    • D. 

      Overboard vents

  • 110. 
    Performing emergency egress from an aircraft with munitions and flares on board requires a minimum withdraw distance of _____ from the aircraft.
    • A. 

      300 feet

    • B. 

      600 feet

    • C. 

      800 feet

    • D. 

      1000 feet

  • 111. 
    Opening the _____ before the cabin doors during smoke and fume elimination will draw smoke from the cabin into the cockpit.
    • A. 

      Nozzles

    • B. 

      Transition door

    • C. 

      Cockpit window

    • D. 

      Gunners window

  • 112. 
    If AC electrical power is not available only the _____ fire bottle(s) can be discharged.
    • A. 

      Main

    • B. 

      Reserve

    • C. 

      Main or reserve

    • D. 

      Main and reserve

  • 113. 
    Although not specifically listed as checklist steps, it is prudent to check for _____ in the event of an electrical power system failures.
    • A. 

      Voltage

    • B. 

      Amperage

    • C. 

      Popped circuit breakers

    • D. 

      Popped voltage regulators

  • 114. 
    During fuel dumping, a fuel venting condition is extremely hazardous when the helicopter is on the ground or in a hover, since _____ produced by the helicopter could ignite vapor and spilled fuel.
    • A. 

      Vibrations

    • B. 

      Wind vortices

    • C. 

      Static electricity

    • D. 

      Abnormal fluctuations

  • 115. 
    Concerning weapons system emergencies, a _____ is a delay in the function of the propelling charge.
    • A. 

      Misfire

    • B. 

      Cook-off

    • C. 

      Hang fire

    • D. 

      Runaway gun

  • 116. 
    _____ refers to a weapon not rendering a dangerous condition.
    • A. 

      Safe

    • B. 

      Misfire

    • C. 

      Hang fire

    • D. 

      Dearmed

  • 117. 
    The term _____ is used to report a complete failure of the weapon to fire.
    • A. 

      Misfire

    • B. 

      Hang fire

    • C. 

      Cook off

    • D. 

      Runaway

  • 118. 
    You must wait _____ seconds prior to attempting to clear or repair a malfunctioning .50 cal.
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      20

  • 119. 
    Regarding the GAU-18/A, if the weapon cannot be cleared in an additional _____ seconds, wait _____ minutes from first attempt to fire before clearing weapon.
    • A. 

      10/5

    • B. 

      5/10

    • C. 

      25/10

    • D. 

      10/25

  • 120. 
    Regarding the GAU-18/A, the gun will be pointed in a safe direction until it has been properly _____.
    • A. 

      Safed

    • B. 

      Cleared

    • C. 

      Repaired

    • D. 

      Dearmed

  • 121. 
    The first step in a 7.62 minigun electrical malfunction requires you to:
    • A. 

      Safe the weapon system

    • B. 

      Clear the weapon system

    • C. 

      Turn emergency master override on

    • D. 

      Confirm gun system switch positions

  • 122. 
    Malfunctions associated with the minigun can be categorized into how many sub areas?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 123. 
    If the barrels of the minigun can be rotated one full revolution and does not fire, the gun can be considered _____.
    • A. 

      Hot

    • B. 

      Safe

    • C. 

      Cleared

    • D. 

      Dearmed

  • 124. 
    When loading the KY-58, the Mode switch on the control head should be in _____.
    • A. 

      LD

    • B. 

      OP

    • C. 

      C/RAD

    • D. 

      PLAIN

  • 125. 
    When performing the KY-58 operational check if a steady tone is heard, what is the corrective action?
    • A. 

      Adjust volume

    • B. 

      Key mike several times

    • C. 

      Nothing, the load is complete

    • D. 

      Reload again or load with another loading device

  • 126. 
    Crew members operating guns will wear eye protection consisting of _____.
    • A. 

      Authorized flying glasses/shatter-proof eye protection

    • B. 

      NVGs

    • C. 

      Helmet visor

    • D. 

      Either A or C

  • 127. 
    In the .50 cal machine gun power off preflight field of fire check, ensure that _____ of the aircraft are in the guns field of fire.
    • A. 

      No portions

    • B. 

      Key positions

    • C. 

      Some portions

    • D. 

      No aircrew positions

  • 128. 
    During .50 cal preflight power on procedures, (after the chute is connected) the first link of ammunition will be positioned _____.
    • A. 

      In the chute

    • B. 

      In the chamber

    • C. 

      At the booster motor

    • D. 

      Over the belt holding pawl

  • 129. 
    In reference to the GM/AHS, _____ people are required to install fully loaded ammunition magazines on the aircraft.
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      1

  • 130. 
    Do not release the firing pin on the GAU-18/A with the _____ inserted in the gun.
    • A. 

      Timing tool

    • B. 

      Screw driver

    • C. 

      Adjustment tool

    • D. 

      Headspace gauge

  • 131. 
    On the .50 cal machine gun, timing is the point at which the firing pin releases after recoiling parts reach the battery position during _____.
    • A. 

      Firing

    • B. 

      Recoil

    • C. 

      Clearing

    • D. 

      Counter recoil

  • 132. 
    With the .50 cal machine gun, _____ of the gun must be checked and adjusted each time headspace is checked and adjusted.
    • A. 

      Timing

    • B. 

      Ejector pin

    • C. 

      Extractor pin

    • D. 

      Barrel extension

  • 133. 
    On the .50 cal machine gun, do not charge the gun with the _____ removed.
    • A. 

      Solenoid

    • B. 

      Backplate

    • C. 

      Breech bolt

    • D. 

      Rod assembly

  • 134. 
    Using the Downloading Checklist to fill the minigun ammunition chute allows the _____ to be functionally checked.
    • A. 

      GCU

    • B. 

      ECU

    • C. 

      Booster motor

    • D. 

      AC drive motor

  • 135. 
    On the minigun, after firing a long burst (800 rounds or more) or many short bursts and there is still ammunition feeding to the gun, wait approximately _____ minutes before removing the housing cover ans safing sector.
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      10

  • 136. 
    On the minigun, before performing Power On Downloading, the gun will be cleared and _____ installed.
    • A. 

      Safing bar

    • B. 

      Safing sector

    • C. 

      Safing clutch

    • D. 

      Safing switch

  • 137. 
    After clearing gun, visually inspect the feeder to ensure clear of _____.
    • A. 

      Ammunition and set screws

    • B. 

      Ammunition and links

    • C. 

      Fingers and ammunition

    • D. 

      Fingers and links

  • 138. 
    During the minigun ground operational check, under no circumstances will the minigun be cycled without the _____ installed.
    • A. 

      Safing sector

    • B. 

      Loading sector

    • C. 

      Housing cover

    • D. 

      Elliptical campath

  • 139. 
    During the M240D barrel reinstallation, verify _____ clicks.
    • A. 

      2-4

    • B. 

      3-7

    • C. 

      4-8

    • D. 

      6-10

  • 140. 
    During the M240D preflight cover assembly inspection, the cartridge guides are inspected for _____.
    • A. 

      Cleanliness

    • B. 

      Spring tension

    • C. 

      Proper direction

    • D. 

      Proper serviceability

  • 141. 
    During the M240D preflight functional check, what should the inspector do with the charging handle at the beginning of the check?
    • A. 

      Hold charging handle aft

    • B. 

      Release the charging handle

    • C. 

      Press the charging handle forward

    • D. 

      Lock the charging handle in the open bolt position

  • 142. 
    The rappelling attach points have a load limit of _____ lbs each.
    • A. 

      1000

    • B. 

      2000

    • C. 

      3000

    • D. 

      4000

  • 143. 
    The Crew Overhead Restraint System (CORS) is limited to _____lbs.
    • A. 

      1000

    • B. 

      1560

    • C. 

      1650

    • D. 

      1700

  • 144. 
    Regarding the AN/ALE-47 Payload Verification Check. SQ1 is the _____flare sequencer. SQ2 is the _____ sequencer. SQ3 is the _____ sequencer.
    • A. 

      Aft/chaff forward

    • B. 

      Forward/aft/chaff

    • C. 

      Middle/aft/chaff

    • D. 

      Forward/middle/aft

  • 145. 
    The refueling altitude should always be chosen with _____ and _____ considerations in mind.
    • A. 

      Terrain/tactical

    • B. 

      Temperature/density altitude

    • C. 

      Temperature/performance

    • D. 

      Joint/combined

  • 146. 
    Establish an ARIP a minimum of _____ nm prior to the ARCP.
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      10

  • 147. 
    Tanker and receiver(s) may arrive over the _____ from different directions; however, their course from ARIP to ARCP will be the same.
    • A. 

      AREP

    • B. 

      AAREP

    • C. 

      ARRIP

    • D. 

      ARIP

  • 148. 
    _____ is the most frequently used RV procedure.
    • A. 

      RV Delta

    • B. 

      RV Charlie

    • C. 

      RV Bravo

    • D. 

      RV Alpha

  • 149. 
    A designated point at which the receiver enters the anchor area.
    • A. 

      AAR Exit Point

    • B. 

      AAR Entry Point

    • C. 

      AAR Control Point

    • D. 

      AAR Abort Point

  • 150. 
    The procedures employed to enable the receiver to reach the astern position behind the assigned tanker or observation position by electronic, radio, and/or visual means.
    • A. 

      AAR Stores

    • B. 

      Alternate RV

    • C. 

      AAR Element

    • D. 

      AAR RV

  • 151. 
    In the event of a breakaway a radio call and/or appropriate visual signals will be given:
    • A. 

      By the tanker when the receiver is judged to be flying erratically

    • B. 

      If the tanker has a malfunction

    • C. 

      By the boom operator or if the receiver under runs the tanker

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 152. 
    Minimum visibility for a visual RV is _____.
    • A. 

      2 nm

    • B. 

      3 nm

    • C. 

      4 nm

    • D. 

      5 nm

  • 153. 
    RV procedures provide the tanker a means of transitioning from escort/intercept conditions to a position _____ of the receiver ready to begin the join up.
    • A. 

      1/2 nm in trail

    • B. 

      1/2 nm abeam

    • C. 

      1 nm in trail

    • D. 

      1 nm abeam

  • 154. 
    The _____ lead is a role flight members fulfill based upon their SA relative to the rest of the flight regardless of their position within the flight or aircraft.
    • A. 

      Aircrew

    • B. 

      Tactical

    • C. 

      Reserved

    • D. 

      Formation

  • 155. 
    When unsafe conditions are encountered, stop any additional team members deploying from the aircraft using _____.
    • A. 

      Pilot techniques

    • B. 

      Joint tactics standards

    • C. 

      Pre-briefed hand signals

    • D. 

      Pre-briefed voice procedures

  • 156. 
    Should the aircraft come under fire during rope ladder operations, the aircraft may depart the immediate area using slow forward flight (do not exceed _____ KIAS) to a safe area to recover the team.
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      40

    • D. 

      50

  • 157. 
    The common HH-60G term used when weapon is at up/down limit of field of fire and cannot employ due to aircraft altitude/attitude and should be followed by a directive.
    • A. 

      No joy

    • B. 

      Platform

    • C. 

      Padlocked

    • D. 

      Bad attitude

  • 158. 
    Internal to the aircraft, the non-firing gunner should call when abeam the survivor to _____ extended firing legs.
    • A. 

      Minimize

    • B. 

      Maximize

    • C. 

      Facilitate

    • D. 

      Direct

  • 159. 
    Use of the rope ladder for emergency extraction of personnel _____ be performed during live AIE training.
    • A. 

      May

    • B. 

      Should

    • C. 

      Will not

    • D. 

      Is authorized to

  • 160. 
    Keep the rest of the crew informed on weapon status, including arming status, malfunction status, ammunition status, and other items as required (e.g., platform). Be _____ on requests.
    • A. 

      Ready

    • B. 

      Directive

    • C. 

      Specific

    • D. 

      Expeditious

  • 161. 
    The Theory of the "K" was originally developed for determining pattern _____ in helicopter operations.
    • A. 

      Spacing

    • B. 

      Length

    • C. 

      Entry

    • D. 

      Exit

  • 162. 
    Weapons safety footprints are calculated for overland employment. Smooth water may _____ ricochet distance.
    • A. 

      Minimize

    • B. 

      Offset

    • C. 

      Decrease

    • D. 

      Increase

  • 163. 
    Firing only at targets positively identified as hostile IAW current ROE is called _____.
    • A. 

      Cleared hot

    • B. 

      Weapons free

    • C. 

      Weapons tight

    • D. 

      Weapons hold

  • 164. 
    Firing only at targets not identified as friendly IAW current ROE is called _____.
    • A. 

      Cleared hot

    • B. 

      Weapons free

    • C. 

      Weapons tight

    • D. 

      Weapons hold

  • 165. 
    Firing only in self-defense or in response to a formal order is called _____.
    • A. 

      Cleared hot

    • B. 

      Weapons free

    • C. 

      Weapons tight

    • D. 

      Weapons hold

  • 166. 
    Weapons Free indicates fire only at targets not identified as _____ IAW current ROE.
    • A. 

      Armed

    • B. 

      Hostile

    • C. 

      Friendly

    • D. 

      Threatening

  • 167. 
    Weapons Tight indicates fire only at targets positively identified as _____ IAW current ROE.
    • A. 

      Armed

    • B. 

      Hostile

    • C. 

      Friendly

    • D. 

      Threatening

  • 168. 
    The _____ is the primary pattern used following the L-attack or when the distance to the target precludes set up of a fixed forward pattern.
    • A. 

      Spooky

    • B. 

      Random

    • C. 

      Dogbone

    • D. 

      Race track

  • 169. 
    There are _____ weapons employment patterns.
    • A. 

      Three

    • B. 

      Four

    • C. 

      Five

    • D. 

      Six

  • 170. 
    The _____ pattern is the most commonly used observation pattern.
    • A. 

      Random

    • B. 

      L-attack

    • C. 

      Spooky

    • D. 

      Race track

  • 171. 
    The incapacitation of fighting troops in a vehicle is a _____.
    • A. 

      K-Kill Catastrophic Kill

    • B. 

      M-Kill Mobility Kill

    • C. 

      F-Kill Firepower Kill

    • D. 

      P-Kill Personnel Kill

  • 172. 
    Damage to the vehicle main armament so that direct fire against a target cannot be completed is a _____. The damage cannot be repaired by the crew on the battlefield.
    • A. 

      K-Kill Catastrophic Kill

    • B. 

      M-Kill Mobility Kill

    • C. 

      F-Kill Firepower Kill

    • D. 

      P-Kill Personnel Kill

  • 173. 
    Damage to a vehicle so that the driver cannot maintain controlled movement is a _____.
    • A. 

      K-Kill Catastrophic Kill

    • B. 

      M-Kill Mobility Kill

    • C. 

      F-Kill Firepower Kill

    • D. 

      P-Kill Personnel Kill

  • 174. 
    Damage to a system such that economic repair is not feasible and the system is only fir for cannibalization/salvage of parts is a _____.
    • A. 

      K-Kill Catastrophic Kill

    • B. 

      M-Kill Mobility Kill

    • C. 

      F-Kill Firepower Kill

    • D. 

      P-Kill Personnel Kill

  • 175. 
    Tracer burnout for the 7.62mm ammunition is approximately _____ meters.
    • A. 

      200

    • B. 

      400

    • C. 

      750

    • D. 

      1000

  • 176. 
    Tracer burnout for the .50 cal is approximately _____ meters.
    • A. 

      800

    • B. 

      900

    • C. 

      1200

    • D. 

      1500

  • 177. 
    The directive call to move the pattern or impact point, accompanied by a direction is _____.
    • A. 

      Reverse

    • B. 

      Add

    • C. 

      Drop

    • D. 

      Shift

  • 178. 
    An additional consideration which states "Crews should be prepared to employ weapons at a moment's notice if the situation dictates," is _____.
    • A. 

      Establish an axis of advance

    • B. 

      Avoid the zap zone

    • C. 

      Avoid target over-flight

    • D. 

      Always assume the area is hostile

  • 179. 
    Regarding fire support tactics fundamentals, _____ provides maximum engagement time and reduces the ability of the enemy to return fire.
    • A. 

      Surprise

    • B. 

      Exploitation

    • C. 

      Precise timing

    • D. 

      Fire and manuever

  • 180. 
    Test firing should be done _____.
    • A. 

      Prior to any potential engagement

    • B. 

      In an approved, authorized location

    • C. 

      As soon as possible after takeoff

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 181. 
    Regarding fire support tactics fundamentals, _____ implies striking the enemy when, where, and how least expected.
    • A. 

      Surprise

    • B. 

      Exploitation

    • C. 

      Precise timing

    • D. 

      Fire and manuever

  • 182. 
    The AN-MK6 aircraft smoke and illumination signal has burn time of approximately _____.
    • A. 

      40 minutes

    • B. 

      3 minutes

    • C. 

      20 seconds

    • D. 

      2 minutes

  • 183. 
    The AN-MK6 MOD 3 signaling device uses a _____ igniter.
    • A. 

      Tab type

    • B. 

      Pull-friction

    • C. 

      Self sealing

    • D. 

      Push-friction

  • 184. 
    The AN-MK8 smoke grenade has a burn time of approximately _____ minutes.
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      8

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      20

  • 185. 
    The MK-18 smoke grenade has a burn time of approximately _____ minute(s).
    • A. 

      7

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      1

  • 186. 
    This signal is a combination distress signal for use under day or night conditions.
    • A. 

      MK-18

    • B. 

      AN-MK59

    • C. 

      AN-MK25

    • D. 

      AN-MK13/124 MOD 0

  • 187. 
    The crew should test fire the weapons prior to any potential engagement in an _____ area.
    • A. 

      Approved

    • B. 

      Authorized

    • C. 

      Designated

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 188. 
    Minimum engagement distances may be spedified by range instructions, in absence of such guidance the recommended minimum engagement distances are _____ for 7.62 mm and _____ for .50 caliber.
    • A. 

      50 ft/200 ft

    • B. 

      50 meters/200 meters

    • C. 

      100 ft/300 ft

    • D. 

      100 meters/300 meters

  • 189. 
    The 7.62 mm round can travel over _____.
    • A. 

      1/2 mile

    • B. 

      1 mile

    • C. 

      2 miles

    • D. 

      5 miles

  • 190. 
    The .50 caliber round can travel over _____.
    • A. 

      2 miles

    • B. 

      4 miles

    • C. 

      5 miles

    • D. 

      10 miles

  • 191. 
    The most common type of fire employed by CSAR crews is _____. 
    • A. 

      Hover

    • B. 

      Running

    • C. 

      Diving

    • D. 

      Moving

  • 192. 
    • A. 

      The threat

    • B. 

      The desired weapon effect

    • C. 

      The most likely encountered threat

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 193. 
    • A. 

      Air resistance

    • B. 

      Gravity

    • C. 

      Yaw

    • D. 

      Propellant charges

  • 194. 
    Ballistics is the science of the motion of projectiles and the conditions that influence that motion. Which of the following is NOT one of the four types of ballistics that influence helicopter fired weapons?
    • A. 

      Interior

    • B. 

      Aerial

    • C. 

      Terminal

    • D. 

      Ground

  • 195. 
    To correct for trajectory shift, the gunner leads the target depending on _____.
    • A. 

      Airspeed of the helicopter and angle of deflection

    • B. 

      Velocity of the projectile and range to the target

    • C. 

      None of the above

    • D. 

      Both A and B

  • 196. 
    _____ describes the characteristics and effects of the projectile at the target.
    • A. 

      Interior ballistics

    • B. 

      Exterior ballistics

    • C. 

      Aerial ballistics

    • D. 

      Terminal ballistics

  • 197. 
    Firing at maximum ranges _____ and normally _____.
    • A. 

      Increases dispersion/decreases accuracy

    • B. 

      Decreases dispersion/increases accuracy

    • C. 

      Increases dispersion/increases accuracy

    • D. 

      Decreases dispersion/increases accuracy

  • 198. 
    Dispersion is expressed as the area within which _____ percent of rounds fired are expected to fall.
    • A. 

      25

    • B. 

      50

    • C. 

      75

    • D. 

      100

  • 199. 
    A target seen in full sunlight appears _____ than one viewed through haze or fog.
    • A. 

      Farther

    • B. 

      Closer

    • C. 

      The same as

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 200. 
    The _____ is the final approving authority for armed passengers.  At the discretion of the aircraft commander the FE/AG may collect, secure, and transport weapons for passengers who are authorized to carry them.
    • A. 

      Group commander

    • B. 

      Squadron commander

    • C. 

      Wing commander

    • D. 

      Aircraft commander