Gtf E Learning- July

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Gtf E Learning- July - Quiz

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Welcome to July E-Learning Test

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Micro Leadership Academy


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    NERD means

    • A.

      Non Erosive Reflux Disease

    • B.

      Gastric Ulcer

    • C.

      Oesophageal Ulcer

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Non Erosive Reflux Disease
    Explanation
    NERD stands for Non Erosive Reflux Disease. This term refers to a condition where there is acid reflux from the stomach into the esophagus, but it does not cause any erosions or ulcers in the esophagus. This condition is characterized by symptoms such as heartburn and regurgitation, but without any visible damage to the esophageal lining. NERD is a common form of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, and other treatments.

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  • 2. 

    Dyspepsia is characterised by

    • A.

      Epigastric pain

    • B.

      Burning,Nausea

    • C.

      Stomach bloating

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All the above
    Explanation
    Dyspepsia is a condition that is characterized by various symptoms including epigastric pain, burning sensation, nausea, and stomach bloating. Therefore, the correct answer is "All the above" as all of these symptoms are associated with dyspepsia.

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  • 3. 

    Levosulpiride is

    • A.

      Scores over other prokinetic agents in Functional Dyspepsia

    • B.

      Effective PPI

    • C.

      Regenerates partially damaged hepatocytes

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Scores over other prokinetic agents in Functional Dyspepsia
    Explanation
    Levosulpiride is a prokinetic agent that is particularly effective in treating Functional Dyspepsia. It has been found to be more beneficial compared to other prokinetic agents in improving symptoms and relieving discomfort associated with this condition. Levosulpiride works by enhancing the movement of the gastrointestinal tract, thereby improving digestion and reducing symptoms like bloating, nausea, and early satiety. Therefore, the correct answer is that Levosulpiride scores over other prokinetic agents in treating Functional Dyspepsia.

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  • 4. 

    Functional dyspepsia is

    • A.

      Upset stomach or pain in the upper part

    • B.

      Alcoholic Cirrhosis

    • C.

      DASH

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Upset stomach or pain in the upper part
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Upset stomach or pain in the upper part." Functional dyspepsia refers to a condition characterized by recurring pain or discomfort in the upper abdomen, often accompanied by symptoms such as bloating, nausea, and early satiety. Alcoholic cirrhosis, on the other hand, is a liver disease caused by excessive alcohol consumption, while DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) is a dietary pattern aimed at reducing high blood pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is the first option, as it specifically relates to the symptoms associated with functional dyspepsia.

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  • 5. 

    UDCA is

    • A.

      Non Acoholic Fatty Liver Disease

    • B.

      Ursodeoxycholic acid

    • C.

      No hypotension

    • D.

      Safe in pregnancy

    Correct Answer
    B. Ursodeoxycholic acid
    Explanation
    UDCA stands for Ursodeoxycholic acid, which is the correct answer given in the options. UDCA is a medication commonly used to treat liver diseases, including Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease. It is a type of bile acid that helps to reduce the amount of cholesterol produced by the liver and also helps to dissolve gallstones. UDCA has been proven to be safe for use during pregnancy and does not cause hypotension (low blood pressure). Therefore, the correct answer is Ursodeoxycholic acid.

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  • 6. 

    Drotaverine is 

    • A.

      Devoid of anticholinergic side effects

    • B.

      Inhibits smooth muscles

    • C.

      An effective anti emetic

    • D.

      UK MHRA recommended

    Correct Answer
    A. Devoid of anticholinergic side effects
    Explanation
    Drotaverine is the correct answer because it is devoid of anticholinergic side effects. Anticholinergic side effects refer to the adverse effects caused by drugs that block the action of acetylcholine in the nervous system. These side effects can include dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention. Drotaverine, on the other hand, does not have these anticholinergic side effects, making it a safer option for patients.

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  • 7. 

    Drotaverine is 

    • A.

      Superior to Naproxen

    • B.

      Safer than Mefenamic acid

    • C.

      Phenylacetic aid derivative

    • D.

      Safer than Dicyclomine

    Correct Answer
    D. Safer than Dicyclomine
    Explanation
    The given answer states that Drotaverine is safer than Dicyclomine. This suggests that Drotaverine has a lower risk of adverse effects or side effects compared to Dicyclomine. It implies that Drotaverine may be a preferred or safer option for use in certain medical conditions or situations where the risk of side effects is a concern.

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  • 8. 

    Silymarin is

    • A.

      Able to neutralise toxicity of Amanita,Ethanol, Paracetamol

    • B.

      Hastens recovery in viral hepatitis

    • C.

      Useful in Acute viral Hepatitis,injury caused by ischaemia, radiation, iron overload

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All the above
    Explanation
    Silymarin is a compound that has been found to have various beneficial effects on the liver. It is able to neutralize the toxicity of substances like Amanita, ethanol, and paracetamol, which can all be harmful to the liver. It also helps to hasten recovery in cases of viral hepatitis, and is useful in treating acute viral hepatitis as well as liver injury caused by factors like ischaemia, radiation, and iron overload. Therefore, the correct answer is that Silymarin is able to do all of the above.

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  • 9. 

    Ebast 10 ODT dissolves orally in 

    • A.

      10 Seconds

    • B.

      12 Seconds

    • C.

      9 seconds

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 Seconds
    Explanation
    Ebast 10 ODT dissolves orally in 10 seconds. This means that when taken orally, the medication will dissolve and be absorbed by the body within 10 seconds. This quick dissolution allows for faster onset of action and effectiveness of the medication.

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  • 10. 

    Flavour of Ebast 10 ODT is 

    • A.

      Orange Flavour

    • B.

      Pineapple Flavour

    • C.

      Mango Flavour

    • D.

      Peppermint Flavour

    Correct Answer
    D. Peppermint Flavour
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Peppermint Flavour. This is because the question is asking about the flavor of Ebast 10 ODT, and out of the given options, Peppermint Flavour is the only one that matches.

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  • 11. 

    JAPI is

    • A.

      Journal of Association of Physicians of India

    • B.

      Just About Paracetamol in India

    • C.

      75%

    • D.

      80%

    Correct Answer
    A. Journal of Association of Physicians of India
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Journal of Association of Physicians of India" because JAPI stands for Journal of Association of Physicians of India.

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  • 12. 

    Flavour of Caripill Syrup is 

    • A.

      Papaya Flavour

    • B.

      Mango Flavour

    • C.

      Mint Flavour

    • D.

      Mixed Fruit Flavour

    Correct Answer
    D. Mixed Fruit Flavour
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Mixed Fruit Flavour" because Caripill Syrup is known to have a combination of different fruit flavors.

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  • 13. 

    MRP of DOLO 650 is 

    • A.

      Rs.1.80 /tab

    • B.

      Rs.1.90 /tab

    • C.

      Rs.1.50/tab

    • D.

      Rs. 2.00/tab

    Correct Answer
    A. Rs.1.80 /tab
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Rs.1.80 /tab.

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  • 14. 

    MHRA is

    • A.

      Medicine and Health Regulatory Agency

    • B.

      Ministry of Health Registration Agency

    • C.

      Medical Health Residential Agency

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Medicine and Health Regulatory Agency
    Explanation
    MHRA stands for Medicine and Health Regulatory Agency. This agency is responsible for regulating medicines, medical devices, and blood components for transfusion in the United Kingdom. It ensures that these products are safe, effective, and of high quality. The MHRA also monitors the safety of medicines and devices once they are on the market and takes action to protect public health if any safety concerns arise. Therefore, the correct answer is Medicine and Health Regulatory Agency.

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  • 15. 

    ARIA is

    • A.

      Salmonella paratyphi

    • B.

      Salmonella Typhi

    • C.

      E-Coli

    • D.

      Allergic Rhinitis and its Imapct on Asthma

    Correct Answer
    D. Allergic Rhinitis and its Imapct on Asthma
  • 16. 

    ERD means

    • A.

      Erosive Reflux disease

    • B.

      Reflux eosphagitis

    • C.

      Lower Esophageal Sphincter disease

    • D.

      Both 1 & 2

    Correct Answer
    A. Erosive Reflux disease
    Explanation
    ERD stands for Erosive Reflux Disease. This condition is characterized by the erosion of the lining of the esophagus due to the backward flow of stomach acid and digestive juices. It is a more severe form of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and can lead to complications such as ulcers and strictures. Reflux esophagitis is a term used to describe inflammation of the esophagus caused by reflux, which is a symptom of ERD. Lower Esophageal Sphincter disease is not a recognized medical term. Therefore, the correct answer is Erosive Reflux Disease.

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  • 17. 

    Leptospirosis is

    • A.

      Plague

    • B.

      Viral Infection

    • C.

      Caused by mosquito

    • D.

      An infectious bacterial disease occurring in rodents, dogs, and other mammals, which can be transmitted to humans.

    Correct Answer
    D. An infectious bacterial disease occurring in rodents, dogs, and other mammals, which can be transmitted to humans.
    Explanation
    Leptospirosis is an infectious bacterial disease that primarily affects rodents, dogs, and other mammals. It can be transmitted to humans through contact with infected animals or their urine.

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  • 18. 

    IBS is coupled with

    • A.

      Either 2 or 3

    • B.

      Diarrhoea

    • C.

      Constipation

    • D.

      Vomiting

    Correct Answer
    A. Either 2 or 3
    Explanation
    IBS, or irritable bowel syndrome, is a gastrointestinal disorder that is commonly associated with symptoms such as diarrhea and constipation. These symptoms can vary from person to person, with some individuals experiencing predominantly diarrhea and others experiencing predominantly constipation. Vomiting, however, is not typically considered a symptom of IBS. Therefore, the correct answer is either 2 (diarrhea) or 3 (constipation).

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  • 19. 

    Periodontitis

    • A.

      Hydrolyze third-generation cephalosporins including Penicillin

    • B.

      Open the Beta-lactam ring, inactivating the antibiotic

    • C.

      Close the Beta Lactam ring

    • D.

      Inflammation of tissue around the teeth

    Correct Answer
    D. Inflammation of tissue around the teeth
    Explanation
    The given options describe different actions related to the term "Periodontitis". However, only one option matches the definition of Periodontitis, which is "Inflammation of tissue around the teeth". The other options are unrelated to Periodontitis and do not provide a correct explanation for the term.

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  • 20. 

    Cholestatic is a condition

    • A.

      Related to colon

    • B.

      In the kidney

    • C.

      Is a condition in the lungs

    • D.

      Where bile cannot flow from liver to duodenum

    Correct Answer
    D. Where bile cannot flow from liver to duodenum
    Explanation
    Cholestatic is a condition where bile cannot flow from the liver to the duodenum. Bile is produced in the liver and helps in the digestion and absorption of fats. When there is a blockage or obstruction in the bile ducts, bile cannot flow properly, leading to cholestasis. This can result in symptoms such as jaundice, itching, and pale stools. Treatment for cholestasis aims at relieving the blockage and managing the underlying cause to restore normal bile flow.

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  • 21. 

    Dysmennorhoea is

    • A.

      Painful periods

    • B.

      Menstrual cramps

    • C.

      A type of diarrhoea

    • D.

      Both 1 & 2

    Correct Answer
    D. Both 1 & 2
    Explanation
    Dysmenorrhea refers to painful periods and menstrual cramps. It is a condition that causes discomfort and pain in the lower abdomen during menstruation. This can be accompanied by other symptoms such as back pain, nausea, and headaches. Both options 1 and 2 accurately describe dysmenorrhea, making the answer "Both 1 & 2".

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  • 22. 

    MRSA is

    • A.

      Many Responsive Skin Agents

    • B.

      Must Respond Skin Areas

    • C.

      Both1 &2

    • D.

      Methicillin Rensistant Staph Aureus

    Correct Answer
    D. Methicillin Rensistant Staph Aureus
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Methicillin Resistant Staph Aureus" (MRSA). This is a type of bacteria that is resistant to many common antibiotics, including methicillin. MRSA can cause infections in various parts of the body and is often found in healthcare settings.

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  • 23. 

    GABAa

    • A.

      Gamma Amino Butyric Acid

    • B.

      Good and Bad Agent

    • C.

      Twice daily dosing

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Gamma Amino Butyric Acid
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Gamma Amino Butyric Acid because GABAa is an abbreviation for Gamma Amino Butyric Acid. The other options mentioned in the question, such as "Good and Bad Agent" and "Twice daily dosing," are unrelated and do not correspond to the given abbreviation.

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  • 24. 

    Etizolam 

    • A.

      Is a Short acting drug

    • B.

      Ultra Short acting drug

    • C.

      Medium acting drug

    • D.

      Long acting drug

    Correct Answer
    A. Is a Short acting drug
    Explanation
    Etizolam is classified as a short-acting drug. This means that it has a relatively quick onset of action and a short duration of effects. Short-acting drugs are typically metabolized and eliminated from the body relatively quickly, resulting in a shorter duration of action compared to other drugs. This information suggests that Etizolam is a drug that has a rapid onset of action and a short duration of effects.

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  • 25. 

    Bio availability of Sodium Feredetate  over Ferrous sulphate is

    • A.

      10- 12 times greater

    • B.

      2- 4 times greater

    • C.

      15-20 times greater

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    B. 2- 4 times greater
    Explanation
    The bioavailability of Sodium Feredetate over Ferrous sulphate is 2-4 times greater. This means that Sodium Feredetate is more easily absorbed by the body compared to Ferrous sulphate. As a result, a smaller dose of Sodium Feredetate would be required to achieve the same therapeutic effect as a larger dose of Ferrous sulphate.

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  • 26. 

    What are the major advantage of NaFeEDTA

    • A.

      Prevents Fe from binding with the phytic acid

    • B.

      No metallic taste

    • C.

      Arrives in the duodenum and small intestine, where the absorption of iron and minerals takes place.

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All the above
    Explanation
    NaFeEDTA has several major advantages. Firstly, it prevents Fe from binding with phytic acid, which can inhibit the absorption of iron and minerals in the body. Secondly, it does not have a metallic taste, making it more palatable for consumption. Lastly, NaFeEDTA arrives in the duodenum and small intestine, which are the primary sites for the absorption of iron and minerals. Therefore, all of the above advantages make NaFeEDTA a beneficial option.

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