Ground Radar Systems Z1c851 Volumes 1-4 Test

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Ground Radar Systems Z1c851 Volumes 1-4 Test - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)?

    • A.

      Core Task

    • B.

      Duty Competency

    • C.

      Core Competency

    • D.

      Duty Position Task

    Correct Answer
    D. Duty Position Task
    Explanation
    Volume 1 - 001

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  • 2. 

    Defense Support of Civil Authorities (DSCA), Humanitarian Relief Operations (HUMRO), Non-Combatant Evacuation Operations (NEO) and support to International Law Enforcement are all examples of:

    • A.

      Operational Capabilities Packages

    • B.

      Theater Deployable Communications

    • C.

      Manpower and Equipment Force Packaging

    • D.

      Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force Modules

    Correct Answer
    A. Operational Capabilities Packages
    Explanation
    Volume 1 - 004

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  • 3. 

    Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

    • A.

      Unit Training Manager (UTM)

    • B.

      Base Functional Manager (BFM)

    • C.

      Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)

    • D.

      Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
    Explanation
    Volume 1 - 001

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  • 4. 

    What is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

    • A.

      Modify Training

    • B.

      Conduct climate training surveys

    • C.

      Review the occupational analysis report

    • D.

      Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

    Correct Answer
    D. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
    Explanation
    volume 1 - 001

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following places air and expeditionary force (AEF) forces in a "ready to deploy" state and supports global requirements, home station requirements or support to Combatant Commanders (CCDR)?

    • A.

      Posturing

    • B.

      Tempo Bands

    • C.

      Unit Type Codes

    • D.

      Joint Manning Document

    Correct Answer
    A. Posturing
    Explanation
    Volume 1 - 004

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  • 6. 

    Which system is capable of identifying, sequencing, and separating aircraft; providing final approach guidance, and controlling instructions to aircraft at deployed locations in all types of weather?

    • A.

      Global Command and Control System (GCCS)

    • B.

      Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS)

    • C.

      Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS)

    • D.

      Deployable Air Traffic Control and Landing Systems (DATCALS)

    Correct Answer
    D. Deployable Air Traffic Control and Landing Systems (DATCALS)
    Explanation
    Volume 1 - 005

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  • 7. 

    In what year did the Air Force finalize and publish its information operations (IO) doctrine and the Joint Staff publish its IO doctrine?

    • A.

      1994

    • B.

      1995

    • C.

      1997

    • D.

      1998

    Correct Answer
    D. 1998
    Explanation
    volume 1 - 006

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  • 8. 

    Which of these are directive publications that provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Air Force policies?

    • A.

      Air Force Manuals

    • B.

      Air Force Pamphlets

    • C.

      Air Force Instructions

    • D.

      Air Force Policy Directives

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Instructions
    Explanation
    Volume 1 - 006

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  • 9. 

    Which mandatory item of a Privacy Act Statement best describes the reason information is collected?

    • A.

      Purpose

    • B.

      Authority

    • C.

      Disclosure

    • D.

      Routine Use

    Correct Answer
    A. Purpose
    Explanation
    Volume 1 - 007

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  • 10. 

    The Communication Security (COMSEC) program is designed to

    • A.

      Relocate classified material to strengthen security

    • B.

      Conduct assessments to evaluate compromise of national security

    • C.

      Deflect unauthorized interception and analysis of compromising emanations

    • D.

      Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information

    Correct Answer
    D. Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information
    Explanation
    Volume 1 - 007

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  • 11. 

    What term best describes unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment?

    • A.

      Emission

    • B.

      Emulation

    • C.

      Emanation

    • D.

      Signal Leakage

    Correct Answer
    C. Emanation
    Explanation
    Volume 1 - 008

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  • 12. 

    Which condition indicates there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer networks?

    • A.

      INFOCON 1

    • B.

      INFOCON 2

    • C.

      INFOCON 4

    • D.

      INFOCON 5

    Correct Answer
    D. INFOCON 5
    Explanation
    Volume 1 - 008

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  • 13. 

    The two categories of the Open Security Interconnect (OSI) reference model are

    • A.

      Data and Lower Layers

    • B.

      Data Link and Physical Layers

    • C.

      Application and Internet Layers

    • D.

      Application and Data Transport Layers

    Correct Answer
    D. Application and Data Transport Layers
    Explanation
    Volume 1 - 010

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  • 14. 

    What topology defines the way in which devices communicate, and data is transmitted, throughout the network?

    • A.

      Physical

    • B.

      Logical

    • C.

      Hybrid

    • D.

      Star

    Correct Answer
    B. Logical
    Explanation
    Volume 1 - 010

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  • 15. 

    Which common port contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) servers and proxies?

    • A.

      Port 80

    • B.

      Port 110

    • C.

      Port 443

    • D.

      Port 8080

    Correct Answer
    D. Port 8080
    Explanation
    Volume 1 - 011

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is a class B address?

    • A.

      192.168.123.254

    • B.

      241.200.23.45

    • C.

      169.16.0.125

    • D.

      11.12.13.14

    Correct Answer
    C. 169.16.0.125
    Explanation
    Volume 1 - 012

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  • 17. 

    The central processing unit (CPU) of a computer is also called the

    • A.

      Control unit

    • B.

      Minicomputer

    • C.

      Microprocessor

    • D.

      Arithmetic logic unit

    Correct Answer
    C. Microprocessor
    Explanation
    Volume 1 - 013

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  • 18. 

    What two main components make up the central processing unit (CPU)?

    • A.

      Control unit and read-only memory

    • B.

      Control unit and arithmetic logic unit

    • C.

      Arithmetic logic unit and read-only memory

    • D.

      Arithmetic logic unit and random access memory

    Correct Answer
    B. Control unit and arithmetic logic unit
    Explanation
    Volume 1 - 013

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  • 19. 

    What does LCD stand for?

    • A.

      Light Crystal Diode

    • B.

      Light Creating Diode

    • C.

      Liquid Crystal Display

    • D.

      Liquid Creating Display

    Correct Answer
    C. Liquid Crystal Display
    Explanation
    Volume 1 - 013

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  • 20. 

    Analog modems are used over the voice band range of

    • A.

      10 Hz to 20 MHz

    • B.

      20 Hz to 20 kHz

    • C.

      30 Hz to 40 MHz

    • D.

      40 Hz to 40 kHz

    Correct Answer
    B. 20 Hz to 20 kHz
    Explanation
    Volume 1 - 015

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  • 21. 

    A UNIX command interpreter that recognizes and interprets commands that you enter is called the

    • A.

      Root

    • B.

      Tree

    • C.

      Shell

    • D.

      Kernel

    Correct Answer
    C. Shell
    Explanation
    Volume 1 - 016

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  • 22. 

    Three types of UNIX pathnames are

    • A.

      Absolute, relative, and complex

    • B.

      Absolute, relative, and simple

    • C.

      Normal, simple, and complex

    • D.

      Normal, absolute, and relative

    Correct Answer
    B. Absolute, relative, and simple
    Explanation
    Volume 1 - 016

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  • 23. 

    What happens when radio waves strike an object?

    • A.

      All of the energy is reflected

    • B.

      None of the energy is reflected

    • C.

      Some of the energy is reflected

    • D.

      All of the energy is absorbed by the object

    Correct Answer
    C. Some of the energy is reflected
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 201

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  • 24. 

    Approximately how long does it take for radio frequency energy to travel 1 nautical mile to a target and return to the radar? 

    • A.

      3.09 microseconds

    • B.

      6.18 microseconds

    • C.

      9.27 microseconds

    • D.

      12.36 microseconds

    Correct Answer
    D. 12.36 microseconds
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 201

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  • 25. 

    Which feedhorn is used only for receiving?

    • A.

      Passive

    • B.

      Linear

    • C.

      Active

    • D.

      Circular

    Correct Answer
    A. Passive
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 204

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  • 26. 

    What do we call the fictitious surface on or near an antenna?

    • A.

      Main lobe

    • B.

      Minor lobe

    • C.

      Antenna aperture

    • D.

      Interfering signals

    Correct Answer
    C. Antenna aperture
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 206

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  • 27. 

    The shape of the beam of radar energy and its antenna pattern depend on the radar's

    • A.

      Gain

    • B.

      Location

    • C.

      Purpose

    • D.

      Power

    Correct Answer
    C. Purpose
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 206

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  • 28. 

    What scan system uses a thin beam to cover a rectangular area by sweeping the area horizontally with the angle of elevation incrementally stepped up or down with each horizontal sweep of the sector?

    • A.

      Raster

    • B.

      Conical

    • C.

      Circular

    • D.

      Monopulse

    Correct Answer
    A. Raster
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 206

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  • 29. 

    Which scan radar is also used in the acquisition phase by some airborne intercept radars?

    • A.

      Raster

    • B.

      Conical

    • C.

      Circular

    • D.

      Monopulse

    Correct Answer
    A. Raster
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 206

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  • 30. 

    What is the name of radio frequency waves bent upwards, instead of toward, the earth?

    • A.

      Sub-refraction

    • B.

      Super-refraction

    • C.

      Ducting or trapping

    • D.

      Anomalous propagation

    Correct Answer
    A. Sub-refraction
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 207

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  • 31. 

    What method of modulation does an A-scan indicator use to display video?

    • A.

      Z-Axis

    • B.

      Intensity

    • C.

      Deflection

    • D.

      Amplitude

    Correct Answer
    C. Deflection
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 208

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  • 32. 

    What type of radar system uses a B-scan indicator?

    • A.

      Long-range surveillance

    • B.

      Airport surveillance

    • C.

      Precision approach

    • D.

      Weather

    Correct Answer
    C. Precision approach
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 208

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  • 33. 

    In a Raster scan indicator, how many vertical scan periods does it take to produce one complete picture?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 208

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  • 34. 

    Which indicator component's main purpose is to control the intensity of the cathode-ray tube (CRT) electron beam?

    • A.

      Deflection circuits

    • B.

      Cathode-ray tube

    • C.

      Video circuits

    • D.

      Power supply

    Correct Answer
    C. Video circuits
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 209

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  • 35. 

    In a typical indicator system, where is digital display data from the data processing circuits converted into analog drive signals?

    • A.

      Deflection circuits

    • B.

      Cathode-ray tube

    • C.

      Video circuits

    • D.

      Power supply

    Correct Answer
    A. Deflection circuits
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 209

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  • 36. 

    What is the leading edge spacing between the P1 and P3 interrogation pulses while in Mode 3?

    • A.

      0.45 microseconds

    • B.

      3 microseconds

    • C.

      5 microseconds

    • D.

      8 microseconds

    Correct Answer
    D. 8 microseconds
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 210

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  • 37. 

    Which selective identification feature special response explains a 7500 reply?

    • A.

      Communication failure

    • B.

      Military emergency

    • C.

      Engine failure

    • D.

      Hijacking

    Correct Answer
    D. Hijacking
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 211

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  • 38. 

    What factor determines the spacing of the sidebands in an amplitude modulated signal?

    • A.

      Amplitude of the modulating signal

    • B.

      Frequency of the modulating signal

    • C.

      Amplitude of the carrier signal

    • D.

      Frequency of the carrier signal

    Correct Answer
    B. Frequency of the modulating signal
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 213

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  • 39. 

    In phase modulation, the carrier's

    • A.

      Phase shifts at the rate of the modulating signal

    • B.

      Phase shifts with the phase of the modulating signal

    • C.

      Amplitude shifts at the rate of the modulating signal

    • D.

      Amplitude shifts with the phase of the modulating signal

    Correct Answer
    A. Phase shifts at the rate of the modulating signal
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 215

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  • 40. 

    When used together, what two error detection methods are 98 percent effective in detecting errors?

    • A.

      Checksum and cyclic redundancy check

    • B.

      Longitudinal redundancy check and check sum

    • C.

      Cyclic redundancy check and vertical redundancy check

    • D.

      Vertical redundancy check and longitudinal redundancy check

    Correct Answer
    D. Vertical redundancy check and longitudinal redundancy check
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 218

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  • 41. 

    What is the most common error correction technique in electronic transmissions or circuits?

    • A.

      Automatic retransmit on request

    • B.

      A combination of a, c, and d

    • C.

      Block check character matrix

    • D.

      Forward error control

    Correct Answer
    A. Automatic retransmit on request
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 219

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  • 42. 

    Which statement describes an advantage of using fiber optic cable?

    • A.

      The easy tap-ability of fiber optic cables reduces security risks

    • B.

      Fiber optic cable has a higher attenuation than coaxial cable

    • C.

      Electromagnetic fields do not affect fiber optic cables

    • D.

      Nuclear radiation does not affect fiber optic cable

    Correct Answer
    C. Electromagnetic fields do not affect fiber optic cables
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 220

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  • 43. 

    What component of a fiber optic cable provides the reflective surface that allows light to propagate?

    • A.

      Core

    • B.

      Buffer

    • C.

      Jacket

    • D.

      Cladding

    Correct Answer
    D. Cladding
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 221

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  • 44. 

    What is the principle on which fiber optics work?

    • A.

      Total internal reflection

    • B.

      Refraction of light

    • C.

      Light wavelengths

    • D.

      Rays of incidence

    Correct Answer
    A. Total internal reflection
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 222

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  • 45. 

    When you make a resistance measurement, how do you electrically isolate a resistor from the circuit?

    • A.

      Remove power from the circuit

    • B.

      Short both sides of the resistor

    • C.

      Insulate both sides of the resistor

    • D.

      Desolder one side of the resistor

    Correct Answer
    D. Desolder one side of the resistor
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 226

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  • 46. 

    Insulation resistance increases as the

    • A.

      Length of insulation increases

    • B.

      Area of the conductor increases

    • C.

      Thickness of the insulating material increases

    • D.

      Thickness and length of insulating material increases

    Correct Answer
    C. Thickness of the insulating material increases
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 227

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  • 47. 

    You must discharge conductors after insulation resistance measurements to

    • A.

      Prevent shock

    • B.

      Protect the equipment

    • C.

      Prepare conductors for another test

    • D.

      Prevent igniting explosive mixture of gas

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevent shock
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 228

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  • 48. 

    Which probe does not need to actually make contact with the circuit under test?

    • A.

      Current probe

    • B.

      Passive 1:1 probe

    • C.

      Active field effect transistor probe

    • D.

      Passive divider, 10:1 probe

    Correct Answer
    A. Current probe
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 231

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  • 49. 

    What type of interpolation does a digital storage oscilloscope use to measure pulse waves?

    • A.

      Sine

    • B.

      Linear

    • C.

      Normal

    • D.

      Sequential

    Correct Answer
    B. Linear
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 232

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  • 50. 

    If someone says "we doubled our transmitter power", how much is the gain in dB?

    • A.

      3 dB

    • B.

      6 dB

    • C.

      9 dB

    • D.

      12 dB

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 dB
    Explanation
    Volume 2 - 235

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  • Feb 28, 2017
    Quiz Edited by
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