Ground Radar Systems Journeymen CDC 4-6 #2
Settings
One shops CDC practice test. Also, if some are off. Please Tell me. Thanks
- 1.The maximum allowable percent of ground slope for the radar antenna pallet is
- A.
4%
- B.
6%
- C.
10%
- D.
15%
- 2.The north mark alignment insures that your antenna oriented to within
- A.
±.25 degrees north
- B.
.5degrees north
- C.
1degrees north
- D.
2degrees north
- 3.What is the relationship of the STALO frequency to the transmit frequency in the
- A.
The STALO is 16MHz below the transmit frequency.
- B.
The STALO is 16MHz above the transmit frequency.
- C.
The STALO is 32 MHz below the transmit frequency.
- D.
The STALO is 32 MHz above the transmit frequency.
- 4.The range and azimuth correlation of IFF and radar returns is accomplished in the
- A.
IF receivers
- B.
Post processor
- C.
Signal processor
- D.
PPI
- 5.How many modes of communication are provides to the operator in the TPS-75 radar by the communications system?
- A.
4
- B.
5
- C.
6
- D.
7
- 6.The radars initialization function in the TPS-75 is performed
- A.
Manually by the operator
- B.
Manually at system power-up
- C.
Automatically at system power-up
- D.
Automatically by the radar control panel
- 7.The serial communication interface, part of the radar control function in the TPS-75, provides a link between the radar control unit and the
- A.
Six system microprocessor.
- B.
Eight system microprocessor.
- C.
Multibus and other system unit.
- D.
MIG rack, clutter mapper, and synchronizer.
- 8.What is the frequency of the master clock signal provided by the frequency generator to the processing timing generator in the TPS-75 radar?
- A.
4Mhz
- B.
8Mhz
- C.
16Mhz
- D.
32Mhz
- 9.What are the PRT modes for the TPS-75 radar?
- A.
Fixed, staggered, or burst.
- B.
Fixed, staggered, pulsed.
- C.
Selected, controlled, burst.
- D.
Selected, controlled, or pulse
- 10.In the TPS-75 radar, a JATS jump signal is generated every
- A.
180° of antenna rotation
- B.
360 of antenna rotation
- C.
405 of antenna rotation
- D.
540 of antenna rotation
- 11.The most commonly used and normally maintenance free reflecter used for the used for the GPN-22 precision approach radar is the
- A.
Moving target indicator reflector
- B.
Center-line reflector
- C.
Reference reflector
- D.
Bracket reflector
- 12.In the GPN-22 precision approach radar frequency diversity is used in the scan mode to eliminate
- A.
Weather returns
- B.
Large target fluctuations only
- C.
Large target fluctuations and weather returns
- D.
Large target fluctuations and provide target enhancement
- 13.In the GPN-22 precision approach radar, the coherent and non-coherent input signal data converter is
- A.
Unipolar video
- B.
Bipolar video
- C.
Canceled unipolar video
- D.
Canceled bipolar video
- 14.Once a track is established in the GPN-22 precision approach radar, what device uses error data obtain from the received signal predict where the target will be during the next track interval
- A.
Target data computer (TDC)
- B.
Signal data computer (SDC)
- C.
Computer data entry module (CDEM)
- D.
Antenna beam position control (ABPCU)
- 15.How many narrow band filters does GPN-22 precision approach radar (PAR) employ to convert a shift in IF to a range error signal?
- A.
24
- B.
37
- C.
74
- D.
137
- 16.During the target tracking cycle, in the GPN-22 precison approach radar (PAR). How many tracks does it employ to convert a shift in IF to a range error signal?
- A.
3
- B.
4
- C.
5
- D.
6
- 17.At what interval does the target data computer (TDC) perform system fault monitoring?
- A.
Every PRT
- B.
Once every 2 secondsc.
- C.
Once per track interval
- D.
At beam interrupt signal time
- 18.In the GPN-22 precison approach radar (PAR), what are the three modes of operation with respect to the data loop operation?
- A.
Command, input, and output
- B.
Command, open-loop, closed-loop
- C.
Diagnostic, operational, coherent
- D.
Data point, closed-loop, self-test
- 19.The data loop interface logic circuitry used in each of the subsystem is commonly called
- A.
One’s component
- B.
Repeater logic
- C.
Closed-loop
- D.
Open-loop
- 20.Which if the following is not part of the siting info requested by the target data computer from the computer data entry(CDE)?
- A.
Safety zone
- B.
Elevation angle
- C.
Distance to taxiway
- 21.Which indicator component’s main purpose is to control the intensity of CRT electron beam?
- A.
Deflection circuits
- B.
Video circuits.
- C.
Power Supply
- D.
Cathode-ray tube.
- 22.Digital display data from the data processing circuits is converted into analog drive signal in the
- A.
Deflection circuits
- B.
Video circuits
- C.
Power supply
- D.
CRT
- 23.Electromagnetic deflection is accomplished by applying
- A.
Current through the two deflection plates
- B.
Triggers to the two deflection plates
- C.
Current through the deflection coil.
- D.
Triggers to the deflection coil
- 24.The vacuum in a cathode-ray tube (CRT)
- A.
Prevents implosion if the CRT is broken.
- B.
Keeps the phosphor coating from burning
- C.
Eliminates static charges on the deflection plates
- D.
Prevents collision between electrons in the beam and air molecules
- 25.Is the leading edge-to-edge edge spacing between P1 and P3 of Mode 3?
- A.
0.45 µsec.
- B.
3 µsec.
- C.
5 µsec.
- D.
8 µsec.
- 26.The frequency used for identification friend or foe/selective identification feature (IFF/SIF) interrogations is
- A.
1030 MHz
- B.
1070 MHz
- C.
1090 MHz
- D.
1270 MHz
- 27.What information pulses are present in a code train that decodes as 5421?
- A.
A4, A1, B4, C2, D1.
- B.
C4, B3, B1, A4, D2.
- C.
D4, B1, C2, D4, A1.
- D.
B4, B1, C2, D4, A1.
- 28.An X pulse is present in an SIF code train when
- A.
A Mode 4 reply is being received.
- B.
The aircraft is a pilotless drone or missile.
- C.
The aircraft is declaring a military emergency.
- D.
It is requested by the radar operator to identify the aircraft position.
- 29.Which special response explains 7500 reply?
- A.
Communication failure.
- B.
Military emergency.
- C.
Engine failure.
- D.
Hijacking.
- 30.The AN/UPM-155 radar test set is capable of testing
- A.
Interrogators and associated components.
- B.
Radar transmitter VZWR.
- C.
Radar jamming strength.
- D.
Radar receivers.
- 31.When the beam is switching in the TPN-24 is selected, ground clutter is eliminated
- A.
For 360 degrees and out of the end of range
- B.
For 360 degrees and out to the selected range
- C.
In the quadrant selected and out to end of range
- D.
In the quadrant selected and out to the selected range
- 32.What is the normal frequency difference between the two transmitter in the TPN-24 that permit proper operation of the diplexer?
- A.
47MHz
- B.
65
- C.
93
- D.
101
- 33.What portion of the TPN-24 antenna is not stored within the shelter for transport?
- A.
A. Feedhorn
- B.
B. Power divider
- C.
C. Beacon antenna
- D.
D. Parabolic reflector
- 34.What normal receiver mode in the TPN-24 provides a CFAR?
- A.
Linear mode
- B.
Wideband-limiting mode
- C.
Coherent mode
- D.
Noncoherent mode
- 35.The coherent oscillator in the TPN-24 is turned on
- A.
Simultaneously with arrival of the gated AFC IF signal
- B.
3.5 to 4.0 µsec befor the start of the receive time period.
- C.
In conjunction with thr transmitted RF pulse burst
- D.
Automatically when power is applied to the radar
- 36.Which receiver in the TPN-19 derives its reference signal from the clutter itself?
- A.
Normal
- B.
Dickie-fix
- C.
Coherent
- D.
Noncoherent
- 37.Which two videos are combined in the synchronizer video processor of the TPN-24 to provide the benefit of the dual diversity operation?
- A.
Noncoherent MTI and coherent MTI
- B.
Normal and noncoherent MTI
- C.
Coherent MTI and normal
- D.
Normal and normal
- 38.Why is the normal A video blanked, in the TPN-24 video processor, at the beginning of each PRF?
- A.
Time alignment
- B.
Clutter elimination
- C.
B channel transmit time
- D.
Reciever noise elimination
- 39.In the TPN-24 video processor, what video is used instead of normal video when a block of clutter is detected by the clutter gate
- A.
Noncoherent MTI video
- B.
Wideband limited video
- C.
Coherent MTI video
- D.
Limited video
- 40.How many transmitters are required to transfer a large volume of data from the ASR to the operation shelter?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
- 41.Which circuit in the microwave radio receiver mixes the local oscillator signal with the RF input to produce the IF signal?
- A.
RF to baseband circuits
- B.
Control and fault alarm circuit
- C.
Local oscillator frequency synthesizer
- D.
Frequency generation and control circuits.
- 42.In the TPN-25, where are the antenna beam positin commands from the target data computer routed?
- A.
Shift registers
- B.
Static storage registers
- C.
Synchronous control logic
- D.
TDC command data register
- 43.On the TPN-25, the automatic interlock device prevents movement of the boom unless the antenna is at what angle with respect to the boom?
- A.
6°
- B.
4°
- C.
2°
- D.
0°
- 44.What actions result, when boom movement stop
- A.
Reinsertion of the pins and setting the boom brakes
- B.
Alarm deactivation and the setting of the boom brakes
- C.
Reinsertion of the pins and alarm deactivation
- D.
Motor stoppage and alarm deactivation
- 45.What device is contained within the TPN-25 radar data transfer subsystem that is not contained within the TPN-24 radar transfer subsystem?
- A.
Microwave transmitter
- B.
Supervisory multiplexer
- C.
Digital-to digital converter
- D.
Analog to digital converter
- 46.The purpose of the ASR video processor video processor enhancer circuit card is to
- A.
Reduce synchronous target intensity (aircraft returns), and remove nonsynchronous returns, such as random noise
- B.
Increase synchronous target intensity, and remove non-synchronous returns, such as random noise.
- C.
Reduce synchronous target intensity, and cancel normal video.
- D.
Increase synchronous target intensity, and cancel normal video.
- 47.In the ASR video processor, either log or normal video is selected for the input to the moving target indicator (MTI)/normal enhancer circuit in the
- A.
Normal video combiner.
- B.
Normal log FTC circuit card
- C.
Normal video switch.
- D.
Log video switch
- 48.The cascade canceller response is more desirable (lower response) for
- A.
Higher speed moving target
- B.
Slow speed moving targets
- C.
Average speed moving targets
- D.
Higher speed and lower speed moving target
- 49.1. If your services slower-moving aircraft, which subclutter visibility (SCV) mode would be the best to use?
- A.
25dB
- B.
30dB
- C.
35dB
- D.
40dB
- 50.What function of the range azimuth gating (RAG) is used to indicate runway, air route, or approach pattern?
- A.
Test
- B.
Isolated gating
- C.
Azimuth gating of STC
- D.
Azimuth strobe gating
- 51.Who initially determines area needs for the range azimuth gating circuits?
- A.
Senior radar technician
- B.
Chief of maintenance
- C.
Operations commander
- D.
Survey team
- 52.For how many minutes is the control memory energized by the temporary power supply when a power failure occurs?
- A.
10
- B.
15
- C.
20
- D.
25
- 53.Concerning ASR remoting, all control function are sent through the
- A.
Control encoder and decoder.
- B.
Multi-stage multiplexer
- C.
Pulse code modulation circuit.
- D.
Dual distribution amplifier.
- 54.What ATC IFF/SIF component generates mode interrogation triggers?
- A.
A. Coder-synchronizer
- B.
B. Interference blanker
- C.
C. Receiver/transmitter
- D.
D. Transfer switching drawer assembly (TSDA)
- 55.In the TPX-42 the mode interrogation pulses originate from the
- A.
Interference blanker.
- B.
Coder-synchronizer.
- C.
Video signal processor.
- D.
Programmable indicator processor.
- 56.The range delay switches used with the range azimuth beacon monitor (RABM) provide a maximum delay of
- A.
3 mi
- B.
6 1/8mi
- C.
12mi
- D.
15 7/8mi
- 57.In the range azimuth beacon monitor (RABM), which device isolates the receiver input from the transmitter output?
- A.
Diplexer
- B.
Crystal detector
- C.
Preselector filter
- D.
Pulse-width discriminator (PWD)
- 58.1. What is the frequency of the transmitted output from the range azimuth beacon monitor (RABM)
- A.
1030kHz
- B.
1090kHz
- C.
1030MHz
- D.
1090MHz
- 59.If too much attenuation is used with the range azimuth beacon monitor (RABM),
- A.
An alarm will sound.
- B.
The receiver will be damage.
- C.
The RABM cannot detect a input.
- D.
The RABM cannot produce an output.
- 60.In the transfer switching drawer assembly (TSDA), the amplitude normalize circuit limit inputs to how many volts before routing the signals to other circuits?
- A.
.25
- B.
.5
- C.
1.5
- D.
5
- 61.In the WSR-88D weather radar, what communications link does the statistical multiplexer (STATMUX) A7 support?
- A.
Unit control position(UCP).
- B.
Radar data acquisition(RDA).
- C.
Principal user processor(PUP).
- D.
Radar product generator(RPG).
- 62.What controls the loading of the WSR-88D radar product generator (RPG) operating system?
- A.
Unit control position(UCP).
- B.
Radar data acquisition (RDA).
- C.
Principal user processor (PUP).
- D.
Principal user external system (PUES).
- 63.In the WSR-88D, what communication link is used to connect the remote unit control position (UCP) to the radar product generation processor?
- A.
Wideband.
- B.
Fiber optic.
- C.
Narrowband.
- D.
Digital-to-analog converter.
- 64.What configuration lets the WSR-88D radar’s unit control position (UCP) access the radar product generator (RPG) operating system, application and maintenance programs, and the control diagnostic system (CDS)
- A.
Local UCP configuration only.
- B.
Hardwired UCP configuration.
- C.
Programmable UCP configuration.
- D.
Local and remote configurations.
- 65.Along with what terminal and high speed-speed printer, a WSR-88D radar’s remote unit control position (UCP) includes a
- A.
System console.
- B.
Maintenance terminal.
- C.
STATMUX and a dial-port modem.
- D.
STATMUX and a dedicated-port modem.
- 66.What processor in the WSR-88D radar’s principal user processor (PUP) formats data and distributes it to data storage, archive IV, and the graphics processor?
- A.
Display processor.
- B.
Unit control processor
- C.
Product generation processor.
- D.
Programmable signal processor.
- 67.What section of the principal user processor (PUP) data processing cabinet provides visual alerts, audible alarms, and status display information?
- A.
Control processor.
- B.
Display processor.
- C.
RPG data processor.
- D.
Auto call unit (UCU) rack.
- 68.What processor in the WSR-88D radar system interfaces with the system console and application terminal, and responds to their action requests?
- A.
PUP display processor.
- B.
PUP graphic processor.
- C.
RPG product generation processor.
- D.
RDA programmable signal processor.
- 69.What processor in the WSR-88D radar’s principal user processor(PUP) data processor cabinet receives product inputs from the display processor, formats the data, and writes them into graphics memory?
- A.
Data processor.
- B.
Graphics processor.
- C.
Hardwired signal processor.
- D.
Product generation processor.
- 70.What processor in the WSR-88D receives and responds to control requests from the principal user processor(PUP) workstation graphics table?
- A.
PUP display processor.
- B.
PUP graphic processor.
- C.
RPG product generation processor.
- D.
RDA programmable signal processor
- 71.What principal user processor (PUP) device is the primary operational position for the WSR-88D weather radar?
- A.
System console.
- B.
PUP workstation.
- C.
PUP workstation extension.
- D.
Unit control position (UCP).
- 72.In the WSR-88D radar’s principal user processor(PUP), the interfacing between the graphics processor and display processor is accomplished by the
- A.
Graphic monitors.
- B.
Application terminal.
- C.
Color graphics printer.
- D.
Color graphics display.
- 73.In the WSR-88D radar’s principal user processor(PUP), the purpose of puck and tablet data generated by the graphics tablet and sent to the graphic processor is to
- A.
Select menu-driven display diagnostics.
- B.
Select menu-driven graphics diagnostics.
- C.
Direct the selection of the elevation cuts.
- D.
Control the display and select radar products.
- 74.What WSR-88D radar processor is responsible for actuating threshold alarms provided by the audible alarm UD46?
- A.
CPU chassis.
- B.
System console.
- C.
Display processor.
- D.
Graphic processor.
- 75.In the TPN-24 transmitter and high-voltage power supply, what resonant frequency is selected to provide optimum purity of the output sine waves?
- A.
1.35 times the main operating frequency of 4MHz
- B.
1.35 times the main operating frequency of 20kHz
- C.
1.35 times the main operating frequency of 10kHz
- D.
1.35 times the main operating frequency of 667kHz
- 76.The answer that best describes the input to the 8kV high-voltage power supply in the TPN-24 is:
- A.
Two 60 KHz sine-waves 180 degrees apart
- B.
Two 60 KHz sine-waves 10 to 175 degrees apart
- C.
Two 10 KHz sine-waves 180 degrees apart
- D.
Two 10 kHz sine-waves 10 to 175 degrees apart
- 77.The maximum output from the 8kV high-voltage power supply in thr TPN-24 is produced when the input sign waves are
- A.
45 degrees out of phase
- B.
90 degrees out of phase
- C.
175 degrees out of phase
- D.
270 degrees out of phase
- 78.The trigger used to fire the thyratron switch in the modulator and post regulator circuit in the TPN-24 originates on what circuit?
- A.
Synchronizer-video processor
- B.
Pulse generator assembly
- C.
Preregulator
- D.
Modulator
- 79.1. In the TPN-24 transmitter, what is the duration and amplitude of the pulse applied to the magnetron cathode?
- A.
1µsec, -16kV
- B.
1µsec,+16kV
- C.
1µsec-27kV
- D.
1µsec ,+27kV
- 80.What is the frequency range at which the TPN-24 magnetron oscillates
- A.
2.5-2.7 MHz
- B.
2.7-2.9 MHz
- C.
2.5-2.7 GHz
- D.
2.7-2.9 GHz
- 81.In the TPN-24, where is mode control accomplished when the CONTROL switch on the transmitter control-monitor panel is placed in the operate position?
- A.
Radar set control
- B.
Control-monitor panel
- C.
Remote monitoring set
- D.
Runway supervisory unit
- 82.In the TPN-24, how long is the current reduced to thr magnetron filament when the transmitter is initially turned on?
- A.
15sec
- B.
30sec
- C.
45sec
- D.
60sec
- 83.Which horn is used to produce the main low angle beam in the TPN-24, and where is it located?
- A.
1, positioned at the top vertical array.
- B.
1, positioned at the bottom of the vertical array
- C.
12, positioned at the top of the vertical array
- D.
12, positioned at the bottom of the vertical array
- 84.What type of polarization is produced when the TPM-24 antenna polarizer rotor is moved to its second position?
- A.
Linear
- B.
Vertical
- C.
Circular
- D.
Horizontal
- 85.In the WSR-88D, what monitors and assesses the performance of the radar data acquisition(RDA), performs calibration calculations, and reports RDA status to the radar product generator(RPG)?
- A.
Maintenance terminal.
- B.
RDASC M3200 processor.
- C.
Hardwired signal processor.
- D.
Programmable signal processor.
- 86.Which function is performed by the WSR-88D radar’s radar data acquisition (RDA) hardwired signal processor?
- A.
Ground clutter filtering.
- B.
Display data processing.
- C.
Base weather data extraction.
- D.
Programmable signal processor (PSP) base data formatting.
- 87.Master timing for the WSR-88D radar transmitter, radar receiver, and RDA status and control(RDASC) processor are provided by the
- A.
RDASC M3200 processor.
- B.
Data acquisition unit (DAU).
- C.
Hardware signal processor(HSP)
- D.
Programmable signal processor(PSP) base data formatting.
- 88.The programmable signal processor (PSP) in the WSR-88D radar’s receiver, and RDA status and control (RDA) data processor cabinet transfer the microcode routine to the random-access memory (RAM) on
- A.
System initialization.
- B.
A radial-by-radial basis.
- C.
Receipt of clutter map data.
- D.
Transfer of program from the streaming tape drive.
- 89.A function of the WSR-88D radar product generator (RPG) processor is to
- A.
Dealias velocity.
- B.
Provide clutter filtering.
- C.
Develop echo power reflectivity.
- D.
90. What outputs from the WSR-88D radar product generator (RPG) processor are sent to the radar data acquisition (RDA)?Generate antenna control signals.
- 90.1. What outputs from the WSR-88D radar product generator (RPG) processor are sent to the radar data acquisition (RDA)?
- A.
RPG switch settings. Control commands, antenna azimuth, parity bits.
- B.
Elevation angle word, clutter suppression zones, antenna pedestal interlock status.
- C.
Control commands, volume coverage patterns, clutter censor zones, and data requests
- D.
Maintenance profile data request, power supply alarm status, volume coverage pattern alarm threshold.
- 91.What is used in the WSR-88D radar product generator (RPG) to allow direct data transfer between memory and various peripherals?
- A.
Direct memory access(DMA).
- B.
Random-access memory(RAM).
- C.
Dynamic random-access memory(DRAM).
- D.
Selective programmable-access memory.
- 92.What is used in the WSR-88D radar product generator (RPG) archive III storage unit, what type of device is used for permanent memory storage?
- A.
Core memory.
- B.
Magnetic tape.
- C.
Fixed disk drive.
- D.
Optical disk drive.
- 93.In WSR-88D radar product generator (RPG) dail-port modems support communication with
- A.
Associated principal user external system (PUES) and remote unit control position (UCP).
- B.
The radar data acquisition (RDA) equipment group
- C.
Associated principal user processors (PUP).
- D.
Nonassociated PUPs and other users.
- 94.What type of medium do the WSR-88D radar product generator (RPG) dedicated-port modems support?
- A.
Local network.
- B.
Microwave link
- C.
Public telephone lines.
- D.
Private (leased) telephone lines
- 95.How many sectors of input data represents 360 degrees of antenna rotation in the OD-153 indicator?
- A.
16
- B.
18
- C.
32
- D.
36
- 96.In the DBRITE system, a direct cable may be used to connect the composite video signal to the display at distances of up to
- A.
400ft
- B.
500ft
- C.
800ft
- D.
1200ft
- 97.What assembly in the power supply and junction (PS&J) box recieces and multiplexs data to be sent to the digital scan converter?
- A.
Logic board.
- B.
Microprocessor.
- C.
Analog multiplexer.
- D.
Analog-to-digital converter.
- 98.Which of these logic boards is in each digital scan converter (DSC)?
- A.
PPI, interface, logic.
- B.
PPI, synthetic, logic.
- C.
Interface, PPI, synthetic
- D.
Interface, logic synthetic.
- 99.On the tower display, the built-in test (BIT) target is always located at
- A.
40 nm and at 1 of 8 azimuth selectable at 45 degree increments.
- B.
56 nm and at 1 of 8 azimuth selectable at 45 degree increments.
- C.
40 nm and 180 degrees only.
- D.
56 nm and at 180 degrees only.
- 100.What DBRITE display assembly applies the video signal to the cathode if the cathode ray tube (CRT)
- A.
A. Deflection.
- B.
B. Video sync.
- C.
C. Video driver.
- D.
D. Dynamic focus.
Back to top