Ground Radar Systems Journeymen CDC 4-6 #2

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 32

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Ground Radar Systems Journeymen CDC 4-6 #2

One shops CDC practice test. Also, if some are off. Please Tell me. Thanks


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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
     The maximum allowable percent of ground slope for the radar antenna pallet is
    • A. 

      4%

    • B. 

      6%

    • C. 

      10%

    • D. 

      15%

  • 2. 
    The north mark alignment insures that your antenna oriented to within
    • A. 

      ±.25 degrees north

    • B. 

      .5degrees north

    • C. 

      1degrees north

    • D. 

      2degrees north

  • 3. 
    What is the relationship of the STALO frequency to the transmit frequency in the
    • A. 

      The STALO is 16MHz below the transmit frequency.

    • B. 

      The STALO is 16MHz above the transmit frequency.

    • C. 

      The STALO is 32 MHz below the transmit frequency.

    • D. 

      The STALO is 32 MHz above the transmit frequency.

  • 4. 
    The range and azimuth correlation of IFF and radar returns is accomplished in the
    • A. 

      IF receivers

    • B. 

      Post processor

    • C. 

      Signal processor

    • D. 

      PPI

  • 5. 
    How many modes of communication are provides to the operator in the TPS-75 radar by the communications system?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      7

  • 6. 
    The radars initialization function in the TPS-75 is performed
    • A. 

      Manually by the operator

    • B. 

      Manually at system power-up

    • C. 

      Automatically at system power-up

    • D. 

      Automatically by the radar control panel

  • 7. 
    The serial communication interface, part of the radar control function in the TPS-75, provides a link between the radar control unit and the
    • A. 

      Six system microprocessor.

    • B. 

      Eight system microprocessor.

    • C. 

      Multibus and other system unit.

    • D. 

      MIG rack, clutter mapper, and synchronizer.

  • 8. 
      What is the frequency of the master clock signal provided by the frequency generator to the processing timing generator in the TPS-75 radar?
    • A. 

      4Mhz

    • B. 

      8Mhz

    • C. 

      16Mhz

    • D. 

      32Mhz

  • 9. 
     What are the PRT modes for the TPS-75 radar?
    • A. 

      Fixed, staggered, or burst.

    • B. 

      Fixed, staggered, pulsed.

    • C. 

      Selected, controlled, burst.

    • D. 

      Selected, controlled, or pulse

  • 10. 
     In the TPS-75 radar, a JATS jump signal is generated every
    • A. 

      180° of antenna rotation

    • B. 

      360 of antenna rotation

    • C. 

      405 of antenna rotation

    • D. 

      540 of antenna rotation

  • 11. 
    The most commonly used and normally maintenance free reflecter used for the used for the GPN-22 precision approach radar  is the
    • A. 

      Moving target indicator reflector

    • B. 

      Center-line reflector

    • C. 

      Reference reflector

    • D. 

      Bracket reflector

  • 12. 
      In the GPN-22 precision approach radar frequency diversity is used in the scan mode to eliminate
    • A. 

      Weather returns

    • B. 

      Large target fluctuations only

    • C. 

      Large target fluctuations and weather returns

    • D. 

      Large target fluctuations and provide target enhancement

  • 13. 
    In the GPN-22 precision approach radar, the coherent and non-coherent input signal data converter is
    • A. 

      Unipolar video

    • B. 

      Bipolar video

    • C. 

      Canceled unipolar video

    • D. 

      Canceled bipolar video

  • 14. 
    Once a track is established in the GPN-22 precision approach radar, what device uses error data obtain from the received signal predict where the target will be during the next track interval
    • A. 

      Target data computer (TDC)

    • B. 

      Signal data computer (SDC)

    • C. 

      Computer data entry module (CDEM)

    • D. 

      Antenna beam position control (ABPCU)

  • 15. 
     How many narrow band filters does GPN-22 precision approach radar (PAR) employ to convert a shift in IF to a range error signal?
    • A. 

      24

    • B. 

      37

    • C. 

      74

    • D. 

      137

  • 16. 
    During the target tracking cycle, in the GPN-22 precison approach radar (PAR). How many tracks does it employ to convert a shift in IF to a range error signal?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      6

  • 17. 
    At what interval does the target data computer (TDC) perform system fault monitoring?
    • A. 

      Every PRT

    • B. 

      Once every 2 secondsc.

    • C. 

      Once per track interval

    • D. 

      At beam interrupt signal time

  • 18. 
    In the GPN-22 precison approach radar (PAR), what are the three modes of operation with respect to the data loop operation?
    • A. 

      Command, input, and output

    • B. 

      Command, open-loop, closed-loop

    • C. 

      Diagnostic, operational, coherent

    • D. 

      Data point, closed-loop, self-test

  • 19. 
    The data loop interface logic circuitry used in each of the subsystem is commonly called
    • A. 

      One’s component

    • B. 

      Repeater logic

    • C. 

      Closed-loop

    • D. 

      Open-loop

  • 20. 
    Which if the following is not part of the siting info requested by the target data computer from the computer data entry(CDE)?
    • A. 

      Safety zone

    • B. 

      Elevation angle

    • C. 

      Distance to taxiway

  • 21. 
       Which indicator component’s main purpose is to control the intensity of CRT electron beam?
    • A. 

      Deflection circuits

    • B. 

      Video circuits.

    • C. 

      Power Supply

    • D. 

      Cathode-ray tube.

  • 22. 
    Digital display data from the data processing circuits is converted into analog drive signal in the
    • A. 

      Deflection circuits

    • B. 

      Video circuits

    • C. 

      Power supply

    • D. 

      CRT

  • 23. 
     Electromagnetic deflection is accomplished by applying
    • A. 

      Current through the two deflection plates

    • B. 

      Triggers to the two deflection plates

    • C. 

      Current through the deflection coil.

    • D. 

      Triggers to the deflection coil

  • 24. 
    The vacuum in a cathode-ray tube (CRT)
    • A. 

      Prevents implosion if the CRT is broken.

    • B. 

      Keeps the phosphor coating from burning

    • C. 

      Eliminates static charges on the deflection plates

    • D. 

      Prevents collision between electrons in the beam and air molecules

  • 25. 
    Is the leading edge-to-edge edge spacing between P1 and P3 of Mode 3?
    • A. 

      0.45 µsec.

    • B. 

      3 µsec.

    • C. 

      5 µsec.

    • D. 

      8 µsec.

  • 26. 
    The frequency used for identification friend or foe/selective identification feature (IFF/SIF) interrogations is
    • A. 

      1030 MHz

    • B. 

      1070 MHz

    • C. 

      1090 MHz

    • D. 

      1270 MHz

  • 27. 
     What information pulses are present in a code train that decodes as 5421?
    • A. 

      A4, A1, B4, C2, D1.

    • B. 

      C4, B3, B1, A4, D2.

    • C. 

      D4, B1, C2, D4, A1.

    • D. 

      B4, B1, C2, D4, A1.

  • 28. 
    An X pulse is present in an SIF code train when
    • A. 

      A Mode 4 reply is being received.

    • B. 

      The aircraft is a pilotless drone or missile.

    • C. 

      The aircraft is declaring a military emergency.

    • D. 

      It is requested by the radar operator to identify the aircraft position.

  • 29. 
    Which special response explains 7500 reply?
    • A. 

      Communication failure.

    • B. 

      Military emergency.

    • C. 

      Engine failure.

    • D. 

      Hijacking.

  • 30. 
     The AN/UPM-155 radar test set is capable of testing
    • A. 

      Interrogators and associated components.

    • B. 

      Radar transmitter VZWR.

    • C. 

      Radar jamming strength.

    • D. 

      Radar receivers.

  • 31. 
      When the beam is switching in the TPN-24 is selected, ground clutter is eliminated
    • A. 

      For 360 degrees and out of the end of range

    • B. 

      For 360 degrees and out to the selected range

    • C. 

      In the quadrant selected and out to end of range

    • D. 

      In the quadrant selected and out to the selected range

  • 32. 
         What is the normal frequency difference between the two transmitter in the TPN-24 that permit proper operation of the diplexer?
    • A. 

      47MHz

    • B. 

      65

    • C. 

      93

    • D. 

      101

  • 33. 
    What portion of the TPN-24 antenna is not stored within the shelter for transport?
    • A. 

      A. Feedhorn

    • B. 

      B. Power divider

    • C. 

      C. Beacon antenna

    • D. 

      D. Parabolic reflector

  • 34. 
    What normal receiver mode in the TPN-24 provides a CFAR?
    • A. 

      Linear mode

    • B. 

      Wideband-limiting mode

    • C. 

      Coherent mode

    • D. 

      Noncoherent mode

  • 35. 
      The coherent oscillator in the TPN-24 is turned on
    • A. 

      Simultaneously with arrival of the gated AFC IF signal

    • B. 

      3.5 to 4.0 µsec befor the start of the receive time period.

    • C. 

      In conjunction with thr transmitted RF pulse burst

    • D. 

      Automatically when power is applied to the radar

  • 36. 
    Which receiver in the TPN-19 derives its reference signal from the clutter itself?
    • A. 

      Normal

    • B. 

      Dickie-fix

    • C. 

      Coherent

    • D. 

      Noncoherent

  • 37. 
     Which two videos are combined in the synchronizer video processor of the TPN-24 to provide the benefit of the dual diversity operation?
    • A. 

      Noncoherent MTI and coherent MTI

    • B. 

      Normal and noncoherent MTI

    • C. 

      Coherent MTI and normal

    • D. 

      Normal and normal

  • 38. 
      Why is the normal A video blanked, in the TPN-24 video processor, at the beginning of each PRF?
    • A. 

      Time alignment

    • B. 

      Clutter elimination

    • C. 

      B channel transmit time

    • D. 

      Reciever noise elimination

  • 39. 
    In the TPN-24 video processor, what video is used instead of normal video when a block of clutter is detected by the clutter gate
    • A. 

      Noncoherent MTI video

    • B. 

      Wideband limited video

    • C. 

      Coherent MTI video

    • D. 

      Limited video

  • 40. 
    How many transmitters are required to transfer a large volume of data from the ASR to the operation shelter?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 41. 
    Which circuit in the microwave radio receiver mixes the local oscillator signal with the RF input to produce the IF signal?
    • A. 

      RF to baseband circuits

    • B. 

      Control and fault alarm circuit

    • C. 

      Local oscillator frequency synthesizer

    • D. 

      Frequency generation and control circuits.

  • 42. 
    In the TPN-25, where are the antenna beam positin commands from the target data computer routed?
    • A. 

      Shift registers

    • B. 

      Static storage registers

    • C. 

      Synchronous control logic

    • D. 

      TDC command data register

  • 43. 
     On the TPN-25, the automatic interlock device prevents movement of the boom unless the antenna is at what angle with respect to the boom?
    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 44. 
     What actions result, when boom movement stop
    • A. 

      Reinsertion of the pins and setting the boom brakes

    • B. 

      Alarm deactivation and the setting of the boom brakes

    • C. 

      Reinsertion of the pins and alarm deactivation

    • D. 

      Motor stoppage and alarm deactivation

  • 45. 
    What device is contained within the TPN-25 radar data transfer subsystem that is not contained within the TPN-24 radar transfer subsystem?
    • A. 

      Microwave transmitter

    • B. 

      Supervisory multiplexer

    • C. 

      Digital-to digital converter

    • D. 

      Analog to digital converter

  • 46. 
    The purpose of the ASR video processor video processor enhancer circuit card is to
    • A. 

      Reduce synchronous target intensity (aircraft returns), and remove nonsynchronous returns, such as random noise

    • B. 

      Increase synchronous target intensity, and remove non-synchronous returns, such as random noise.

    • C. 

      Reduce synchronous target intensity, and cancel normal video.

    • D. 

      Increase synchronous target intensity, and cancel normal video.

  • 47. 
    In the ASR video processor, either log or normal video is selected for the input to the moving target indicator (MTI)/normal enhancer circuit in the
    • A. 

      Normal video combiner.

    • B. 

      Normal log FTC circuit card

    • C. 

      Normal video switch.

    • D. 

      Log video switch

  • 48. 
     The cascade canceller response is more desirable (lower response) for
    • A. 

      Higher speed moving target

    • B. 

      Slow speed moving targets

    • C. 

      Average speed moving targets

    • D. 

      Higher speed and lower speed moving target

  • 49. 
    1.       If your services slower-moving aircraft, which subclutter visibility (SCV) mode would be the best to use?
    • A. 

      25dB

    • B. 

      30dB

    • C. 

      35dB

    • D. 

      40dB

  • 50. 
    What function of the range azimuth gating (RAG) is used to indicate runway, air route, or approach pattern?
    • A. 

      Test

    • B. 

      Isolated gating

    • C. 

      Azimuth gating of STC

    • D. 

      Azimuth strobe gating

  • 51. 
     Who initially determines area needs for the range azimuth gating circuits?
    • A. 

      Senior radar technician

    • B. 

      Chief of maintenance

    • C. 

      Operations commander

    • D. 

      Survey team

  • 52. 
    For how many minutes is the control memory energized by the temporary power supply when a power failure occurs?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      25

  • 53. 
    Concerning ASR remoting, all control function are sent through the
    • A. 

      Control encoder and decoder.

    • B. 

      Multi-stage multiplexer

    • C. 

      Pulse code modulation circuit.

    • D. 

      Dual distribution amplifier.

  • 54. 
    What ATC IFF/SIF component generates mode interrogation triggers?
    • A. 

      A. Coder-synchronizer

    • B. 

      B. Interference blanker

    • C. 

      C. Receiver/transmitter

    • D. 

      D. Transfer switching drawer assembly (TSDA)

  • 55. 
     In the TPX-42 the mode interrogation pulses originate from the
    • A. 

      Interference blanker.

    • B. 

      Coder-synchronizer.

    • C. 

      Video signal processor.

    • D. 

      Programmable indicator processor.

  • 56. 
    The range delay switches used with the range azimuth beacon monitor (RABM) provide a maximum delay of
    • A. 

      3 mi

    • B. 

      6 1/8mi

    • C. 

      12mi

    • D. 

      15 7/8mi

  • 57. 
     In the range azimuth beacon monitor (RABM), which device isolates the receiver input from the transmitter output?
    • A. 

      Diplexer

    • B. 

      Crystal detector

    • C. 

      Preselector filter

    • D. 

      Pulse-width discriminator (PWD)

  • 58. 
    1.       What is the frequency of the transmitted output from the range azimuth beacon monitor (RABM)
    • A. 

      1030kHz

    • B. 

      1090kHz

    • C. 

      1030MHz

    • D. 

      1090MHz

  • 59. 
    If too much attenuation is used with the range azimuth beacon monitor (RABM),
    • A. 

      An alarm will sound.

    • B. 

      The receiver will be damage.

    • C. 

      The RABM cannot detect a input.

    • D. 

      The RABM cannot produce an output.

  • 60. 
    In the transfer switching drawer assembly (TSDA), the amplitude normalize circuit limit inputs to how many volts before routing the signals to other circuits?
    • A. 

      .25

    • B. 

      .5

    • C. 

      1.5

    • D. 

      5

  • 61. 
     In the WSR-88D weather radar, what communications link does the statistical multiplexer (STATMUX) A7 support?
    • A. 

      Unit control position(UCP).

    • B. 

      Radar data acquisition(RDA).

    • C. 

      Principal user processor(PUP).

    • D. 

      Radar product generator(RPG).

  • 62. 
    What controls the loading of the WSR-88D radar product generator (RPG) operating system?
    • A. 

      Unit control position(UCP).

    • B. 

      Radar data acquisition (RDA).

    • C. 

      Principal user processor (PUP).

    • D. 

      Principal user external system (PUES).

  • 63. 
    In the WSR-88D, what communication link is used to connect the remote unit control position (UCP) to the radar product generation processor?
    • A. 

      Wideband.

    • B. 

      Fiber optic.

    • C. 

      Narrowband.

    • D. 

      Digital-to-analog converter.

  • 64. 
     What configuration lets the WSR-88D radar’s unit control position (UCP) access the radar product generator (RPG) operating system, application and maintenance programs, and the control diagnostic system (CDS)
    • A. 

      Local UCP configuration only.

    • B. 

      Hardwired UCP configuration.

    • C. 

      Programmable UCP configuration.

    • D. 

      Local and remote configurations.

  • 65. 
    Along with what terminal and high speed-speed printer, a WSR-88D radar’s remote unit control position (UCP) includes a
    • A. 

      System console.

    • B. 

      Maintenance terminal.

    • C. 

      STATMUX and a dial-port modem.

    • D. 

      STATMUX and a dedicated-port modem.

  • 66. 
    What processor in the WSR-88D radar’s principal user processor (PUP) formats data and distributes it to data storage, archive IV, and the graphics processor?
    • A. 

      Display processor.

    • B. 

      Unit control processor

    • C. 

      Product generation processor.

    • D. 

      Programmable signal processor.

  • 67. 
     What section of the principal user processor (PUP) data processing cabinet provides visual alerts, audible alarms, and status display information?
    • A. 

      Control processor.

    • B. 

      Display processor.

    • C. 

      RPG data processor.

    • D. 

      Auto call unit (UCU) rack.

  • 68. 
    What processor in the WSR-88D radar system interfaces with the system console and application terminal, and responds to their action requests?
    • A. 

      PUP display processor.

    • B. 

      PUP graphic processor.

    • C. 

      RPG product generation processor.

    • D. 

      RDA programmable signal processor.

  • 69. 
    What processor in the WSR-88D radar’s principal user processor(PUP) data processor cabinet receives product inputs from the display processor, formats the data, and writes them into graphics memory?
    • A. 

      Data processor.

    • B. 

      Graphics processor.

    • C. 

      Hardwired signal processor.

    • D. 

      Product generation processor.

  • 70. 
    What processor in the WSR-88D receives and responds to control requests from the principal user processor(PUP) workstation graphics table?
    • A. 

      PUP display processor.

    • B. 

      PUP graphic processor.

    • C. 

      RPG product generation processor.

    • D. 

      RDA programmable signal processor

  • 71. 
     What principal user processor (PUP) device is the primary operational position for the WSR-88D weather radar?
    • A. 

      System console.

    • B. 

      PUP workstation.

    • C. 

      PUP workstation extension.

    • D. 

      Unit control position (UCP).

  • 72. 
    In the WSR-88D radar’s principal user processor(PUP), the interfacing between the graphics processor and display processor is accomplished by the
    • A. 

      Graphic monitors.

    • B. 

      Application terminal.

    • C. 

      Color graphics printer.

    • D. 

      Color graphics display.

  • 73. 
       In the WSR-88D radar’s principal user processor(PUP), the purpose of puck and tablet data generated by the graphics tablet and sent to the graphic processor is to
    • A. 

      Select menu-driven display diagnostics.

    • B. 

      Select menu-driven graphics diagnostics.

    • C. 

      Direct the selection of the elevation cuts.

    • D. 

      Control the display and select radar products.

  • 74. 
    What WSR-88D radar processor is responsible for actuating threshold alarms provided by the audible alarm UD46?
    • A. 

      CPU chassis.

    • B. 

      System console.

    • C. 

      Display processor.

    • D. 

      Graphic processor.

  • 75. 
    In the TPN-24 transmitter and high-voltage power supply, what resonant frequency is selected to provide optimum purity of the output sine waves?
    • A. 

      1.35 times the main operating frequency of 4MHz

    • B. 

      1.35 times the main operating frequency of 20kHz

    • C. 

      1.35 times the main operating frequency of 10kHz

    • D. 

      1.35 times the main operating frequency of 667kHz

  • 76. 
    The answer that best describes the input to the 8kV high-voltage power supply in the TPN-24 is:
    • A. 

      Two 60 KHz sine-waves 180 degrees apart

    • B. 

      Two 60 KHz sine-waves 10 to 175 degrees apart

    • C. 

      Two 10 KHz sine-waves 180 degrees apart

    • D. 

      Two 10 kHz sine-waves 10 to 175 degrees apart

  • 77. 
     The maximum output from the 8kV high-voltage power supply in thr TPN-24 is produced when the input sign waves are
    • A. 

      45 degrees out of phase

    • B. 

      90 degrees out of phase

    • C. 

      175 degrees out of phase

    • D. 

      270 degrees out of phase

  • 78. 
    The trigger used to fire the thyratron switch in the modulator and post regulator circuit in the TPN-24 originates on what circuit?
    • A. 

      Synchronizer-video processor

    • B. 

      Pulse generator assembly

    • C. 

      Preregulator

    • D. 

      Modulator

  • 79. 
    1.       In the TPN-24 transmitter, what is the duration and amplitude of the pulse applied to the magnetron cathode?
    • A. 

      1µsec, -16kV

    • B. 

      1µsec,+16kV

    • C. 

      1µsec-27kV

    • D. 

      1µsec ,+27kV

  • 80. 
    What is the frequency range at which the TPN-24 magnetron oscillates
    • A. 

      2.5-2.7 MHz

    • B. 

      2.7-2.9 MHz

    • C. 

      2.5-2.7 GHz

    • D. 

      2.7-2.9 GHz

  • 81. 
    In the TPN-24, where is mode control accomplished when the CONTROL switch on the transmitter control-monitor panel is placed in the operate position?
    • A. 

      Radar set control

    • B. 

      Control-monitor panel

    • C. 

      Remote monitoring set

    • D. 

      Runway supervisory unit

  • 82. 
    In the TPN-24, how long is the current reduced to thr magnetron filament when the transmitter is initially turned on?
    • A. 

      15sec

    • B. 

      30sec

    • C. 

      45sec

    • D. 

      60sec

  • 83. 
     Which horn is used to produce the main low angle beam in the TPN-24, and where is it located?
    • A. 

      1, positioned at the top vertical array.

    • B. 

      1, positioned at the bottom of the vertical array

    • C. 

      12, positioned at the top of the vertical array

    • D. 

      12, positioned at the bottom of the vertical array

  • 84. 
    What type of polarization  is produced when the TPM-24 antenna polarizer rotor is moved to its second position?
    • A. 

      Linear

    • B. 

      Vertical

    • C. 

      Circular

    • D. 

      Horizontal

  • 85. 
    In the WSR-88D, what monitors and assesses the performance of the radar data acquisition(RDA), performs calibration calculations, and reports RDA status to the radar product generator(RPG)?
    • A. 

      Maintenance terminal.

    • B. 

      RDASC M3200 processor.

    • C. 

      Hardwired signal processor.

    • D. 

      Programmable signal processor.

  • 86. 
    Which function is performed by the WSR-88D radar’s radar data acquisition (RDA) hardwired signal processor?
    • A. 

      Ground clutter filtering.

    • B. 

      Display data processing.

    • C. 

      Base weather data extraction.

    • D. 

      Programmable signal processor (PSP) base data formatting.

  • 87. 
     Master timing for the WSR-88D radar transmitter, radar receiver, and RDA status and control(RDASC) processor are provided by the
    • A. 

      RDASC M3200 processor.

    • B. 

      Data acquisition unit (DAU).

    • C. 

      Hardware signal processor(HSP)

    • D. 

      Programmable signal processor(PSP) base data formatting.

  • 88. 
    The  programmable signal processor (PSP) in the WSR-88D radar’s receiver, and RDA status and control (RDA) data processor cabinet transfer the microcode routine to the random-access memory (RAM) on
    • A. 

      System initialization.

    • B. 

      A radial-by-radial basis.

    • C. 

      Receipt of clutter map data.

    • D. 

      Transfer of program from the streaming tape drive.

  • 89. 
      A function of the WSR-88D radar product generator (RPG) processor is to
    • A. 

      Dealias velocity.

    • B. 

      Provide clutter filtering.

    • C. 

      Develop echo power reflectivity.

    • D. 

      90. What outputs from the WSR-88D radar product generator (RPG) processor are sent to the radar data acquisition (RDA)?Generate antenna control signals.

  • 90. 
    1.       What outputs from the WSR-88D radar product generator (RPG) processor are sent to the radar data acquisition (RDA)?
    • A. 

      RPG switch settings. Control commands, antenna azimuth, parity bits.

    • B. 

      Elevation angle word, clutter suppression zones, antenna pedestal interlock status.

    • C. 

      Control commands, volume coverage patterns, clutter censor zones, and data requests

    • D. 

      Maintenance profile data request, power supply alarm status, volume coverage pattern alarm threshold.

  • 91. 
      What is used in the WSR-88D radar product generator (RPG) to allow direct data transfer between memory and various peripherals?
    • A. 

      Direct memory access(DMA).

    • B. 

      Random-access memory(RAM).

    • C. 

      Dynamic random-access memory(DRAM).

    • D. 

      Selective programmable-access memory.

  • 92. 
    What is used in the WSR-88D radar product generator (RPG) archive III storage unit, what type of device is used for permanent memory storage?
    • A. 

      Core memory.

    • B. 

      Magnetic tape.

    • C. 

      Fixed disk drive.

    • D. 

      Optical disk drive.

  • 93. 
    In WSR-88D radar product generator (RPG) dail-port modems support communication with
    • A. 

      Associated principal user external system (PUES) and remote unit control position (UCP).

    • B. 

      The radar data acquisition (RDA) equipment group

    • C. 

      Associated principal user processors (PUP).

    • D. 

      Nonassociated PUPs and other users.

  • 94. 
    What type of medium do the WSR-88D radar product generator (RPG) dedicated-port modems support?
    • A. 

      Local network.

    • B. 

      Microwave link

    • C. 

      Public telephone lines.

    • D. 

      Private (leased) telephone lines

  • 95. 
    How many sectors of input data represents 360 degrees of antenna rotation in the OD-153 indicator?
    • A. 

      16

    • B. 

      18

    • C. 

      32

    • D. 

      36

  • 96. 
    In the DBRITE system, a direct cable may be used to connect the composite video signal to the display at distances of up to
    • A. 

      400ft

    • B. 

      500ft

    • C. 

      800ft

    • D. 

      1200ft

  • 97. 
    What assembly in the power supply and junction (PS&J) box recieces and multiplexs data to be sent to the digital scan converter?
    • A. 

      Logic board.

    • B. 

      Microprocessor.

    • C. 

      Analog multiplexer.

    • D. 

      Analog-to-digital converter.

  • 98. 
    Which of these logic boards is in each digital scan converter (DSC)?
    • A. 

      PPI, interface, logic.

    • B. 

      PPI, synthetic, logic.

    • C. 

      Interface, PPI, synthetic

    • D. 

      Interface, logic synthetic.

  • 99. 
     On the tower display, the built-in test (BIT) target is always located at
    • A. 

      40 nm and at 1 of 8 azimuth selectable at 45 degree increments.

    • B. 

      56 nm and at 1 of 8 azimuth selectable at 45 degree increments.

    • C. 

      40 nm and 180 degrees only.

    • D. 

      56 nm and at 180 degrees only.

  • 100. 
    What DBRITE display assembly applies the video signal to the cathode if the cathode ray tube (CRT)
    • A. 

      A. Deflection.

    • B. 

      B. Video sync.

    • C. 

      C. Video driver.

    • D. 

      D. Dynamic focus.