Ground Radar Systems Journeymen CDC 4-6 #2
One shops CDC practice test. Also, if some are off. Please Tell me. Thanks
- 1.
The maximum allowable percent of ground slope for the radar antenna pallet is
- A.
4%
- B.
6%
- C.
10%
- D.
15%
Correct Answer
B. 6% -
- 2.
The north mark alignment insures that your antenna oriented to within
- A.
±.25 degrees north
- B.
.5degrees north
- C.
1degrees north
- D.
2degrees north
Correct Answer
C. 1degrees north -
- 3.
What is the relationship of the STALO frequency to the transmit frequency in the
- A.
The STALO is 16MHz below the transmit frequency.
- B.
The STALO is 16MHz above the transmit frequency.
- C.
The STALO is 32 MHz below the transmit frequency.
- D.
The STALO is 32 MHz above the transmit frequency.
Correct Answer
C. The STALO is 32 MHz below the transmit frequency. -
- 4.
The range and azimuth correlation of IFF and radar returns is accomplished in the
- A.
IF receivers
- B.
Post processor
- C.
Signal processor
- D.
PPI
Correct Answer
B. Post processor -
- 5.
How many modes of communication are provides to the operator in the TPS-75 radar by the communications system?
- A.
4
- B.
5
- C.
6
- D.
7
Correct Answer
B. 5 -
- 6.
The radars initialization function in the TPS-75 is performed
- A.
Manually by the operator
- B.
Manually at system power-up
- C.
Automatically at system power-up
- D.
Automatically by the radar control panel
Correct Answer
C. Automatically at system power-up -
- 7.
The serial communication interface, part of the radar control function in the TPS-75, provides a link between the radar control unit and the
- A.
Six system microprocessor.
- B.
Eight system microprocessor.
- C.
Multibus and other system unit.
- D.
MIG rack, clutter mapper, and synchronizer.
Correct Answer
A. Six system microprocessor. -
- 8.
What is the frequency of the master clock signal provided by the frequency generator to the processing timing generator in the TPS-75 radar?
- A.
4Mhz
- B.
8Mhz
- C.
16Mhz
- D.
32Mhz
Correct Answer
D. 32Mhz -
- 9.
What are the PRT modes for the TPS-75 radar?
- A.
Fixed, staggered, or burst.
- B.
Fixed, staggered, pulsed.
- C.
Selected, controlled, burst.
- D.
Selected, controlled, or pulse
Correct Answer
A. Fixed, staggered, or burst. -
- 10.
In the TPS-75 radar, a JATS jump signal is generated every
- A.
180° of antenna rotation
- B.
360 of antenna rotation
- C.
405 of antenna rotation
- D.
540 of antenna rotation
Correct Answer
B. 360 of antenna rotation -
- 11.
The most commonly used and normally maintenance free reflecter used for the used for the GPN-22 precision approach radar is the
- A.
Moving target indicator reflector
- B.
Center-line reflector
- C.
Reference reflector
- D.
Bracket reflector
Correct Answer
C. Reference reflector -
- 12.
In the GPN-22 precision approach radar frequency diversity is used in the scan mode to eliminate
- A.
Weather returns
- B.
Large target fluctuations only
- C.
Large target fluctuations and weather returns
- D.
Large target fluctuations and provide target enhancement
Correct Answer
D. Large target fluctuations and provide target enhancement -
- 13.
In the GPN-22 precision approach radar, the coherent and non-coherent input signal data converter is
- A.
Unipolar video
- B.
Bipolar video
- C.
Canceled unipolar video
- D.
Canceled bipolar video
Correct Answer
B. Bipolar video -
- 14.
Once a track is established in the GPN-22 precision approach radar, what device uses error data obtain from the received signal predict where the target will be during the next track interval
- A.
Target data computer (TDC)
- B.
Signal data computer (SDC)
- C.
Computer data entry module (CDEM)
- D.
Antenna beam position control (ABPCU)
Correct Answer
A. Target data computer (TDC) -
- 15.
How many narrow band filters does GPN-22 precision approach radar (PAR) employ to convert a shift in IF to a range error signal?
- A.
24
- B.
37
- C.
74
- D.
137
Correct Answer
A. 24 -
- 16.
During the target tracking cycle, in the GPN-22 precison approach radar (PAR). How many tracks does it employ to convert a shift in IF to a range error signal?
- A.
3
- B.
4
- C.
5
- D.
6
Correct Answer
D. 6 -
- 17.
At what interval does the target data computer (TDC) perform system fault monitoring?
- A.
Every PRT
- B.
Once every 2 secondsc.
- C.
Once per track interval
- D.
At beam interrupt signal time
Correct Answer
B. Once every 2 secondsc. -
- 18.
In the GPN-22 precison approach radar (PAR), what are the three modes of operation with respect to the data loop operation?
- A.
Command, input, and output
- B.
Command, open-loop, closed-loop
- C.
Diagnostic, operational, coherent
- D.
Data point, closed-loop, self-test
Correct Answer
A. Command, input, and output -
- 19.
The data loop interface logic circuitry used in each of the subsystem is commonly called
- A.
One’s component
- B.
Repeater logic
- C.
Closed-loop
- D.
Open-loop
Correct Answer
B. Repeater logic -
- 20.
Which if the following is not part of the siting info requested by the target data computer from the computer data entry(CDE)?
- A.
Safety zone
- B.
Elevation angle
- C.
Distance to taxiway
Correct Answer
C. Distance to taxiway -
- 21.
Which indicator component’s main purpose is to control the intensity of CRT electron beam?
- A.
Deflection circuits
- B.
Video circuits.
- C.
Power Supply
- D.
Cathode-ray tube.
Correct Answer
B. Video circuits. -
- 22.
Digital display data from the data processing circuits is converted into analog drive signal in the
- A.
Deflection circuits
- B.
Video circuits
- C.
Power supply
- D.
CRT
Correct Answer
A. Deflection circuits -
- 23.
Electromagnetic deflection is accomplished by applying
- A.
Current through the two deflection plates
- B.
Triggers to the two deflection plates
- C.
Current through the deflection coil.
- D.
Triggers to the deflection coil
Correct Answer
C. Current through the deflection coil. -
- 24.
The vacuum in a cathode-ray tube (CRT)
- A.
Prevents implosion if the CRT is broken.
- B.
Keeps the phosphor coating from burning
- C.
Eliminates static charges on the deflection plates
- D.
Prevents collision between electrons in the beam and air molecules
Correct Answer
D. Prevents collision between electrons in the beam and air molecules -
- 25.
Is the leading edge-to-edge edge spacing between P1 and P3 of Mode 3?
- A.
0.45 µsec.
- B.
3 µsec.
- C.
5 µsec.
- D.
8 µsec.
Correct Answer
D. 8 µsec. -
- 26.
The frequency used for identification friend or foe/selective identification feature (IFF/SIF) interrogations is
- A.
1030 MHz
- B.
1070 MHz
- C.
1090 MHz
- D.
1270 MHz
Correct Answer
A. 1030 MHz -
- 27.
What information pulses are present in a code train that decodes as 5421?
- A.
A4, A1, B4, C2, D1.
- B.
C4, B3, B1, A4, D2.
- C.
D4, B1, C2, D4, A1.
- D.
B4, B1, C2, D4, A1.
Correct Answer
A. A4, A1, B4, C2, D1. -
- 28.
An X pulse is present in an SIF code train when
- A.
A Mode 4 reply is being received.
- B.
The aircraft is a pilotless drone or missile.
- C.
The aircraft is declaring a military emergency.
- D.
It is requested by the radar operator to identify the aircraft position.
Correct Answer
B. The aircraft is a pilotless drone or missile. -
- 29.
Which special response explains 7500 reply?
- A.
Communication failure.
- B.
Military emergency.
- C.
Engine failure.
- D.
Hijacking.
Correct Answer
D. Hijacking. -
- 30.
The AN/UPM-155 radar test set is capable of testing
- A.
Interrogators and associated components.
- B.
Radar transmitter VZWR.
- C.
Radar jamming strength.
- D.
Radar receivers.
Correct Answer
A. Interrogators and associated components. -
- 31.
When the beam is switching in the TPN-24 is selected, ground clutter is eliminated
- A.
For 360 degrees and out of the end of range
- B.
For 360 degrees and out to the selected range
- C.
In the quadrant selected and out to end of range
- D.
In the quadrant selected and out to the selected range
Correct Answer
D. In the quadrant selected and out to the selected range -
- 32.
What is the normal frequency difference between the two transmitter in the TPN-24 that permit proper operation of the diplexer?
- A.
47MHz
- B.
65
- C.
93
- D.
101
Correct Answer
C. 93 -
- 33.
What portion of the TPN-24 antenna is not stored within the shelter for transport?
- A.
A. Feedhorn
- B.
B. Power divider
- C.
C. Beacon antenna
- D.
D. Parabolic reflector
Correct Answer
C. C. Beacon antenna -
- 34.
What normal receiver mode in the TPN-24 provides a CFAR?
- A.
Linear mode
- B.
Wideband-limiting mode
- C.
Coherent mode
- D.
Noncoherent mode
Correct Answer
B. Wideband-limiting mode -
- 35.
The coherent oscillator in the TPN-24 is turned on
- A.
Simultaneously with arrival of the gated AFC IF signal
- B.
3.5 to 4.0 µsec befor the start of the receive time period.
- C.
In conjunction with thr transmitted RF pulse burst
- D.
Automatically when power is applied to the radar
Correct Answer
A. Simultaneously with arrival of the gated AFC IF signal -
- 36.
Which receiver in the TPN-19 derives its reference signal from the clutter itself?
- A.
Normal
- B.
Dickie-fix
- C.
Coherent
- D.
Noncoherent
Correct Answer
D. Noncoherent -
- 37.
Which two videos are combined in the synchronizer video processor of the TPN-24 to provide the benefit of the dual diversity operation?
- A.
Noncoherent MTI and coherent MTI
- B.
Normal and noncoherent MTI
- C.
Coherent MTI and normal
- D.
Normal and normal
Correct Answer
D. Normal and normal -
- 38.
Why is the normal A video blanked, in the TPN-24 video processor, at the beginning of each PRF?
- A.
Time alignment
- B.
Clutter elimination
- C.
B channel transmit time
- D.
Reciever noise elimination
Correct Answer
C. B channel transmit time -
- 39.
In the TPN-24 video processor, what video is used instead of normal video when a block of clutter is detected by the clutter gate
- A.
Noncoherent MTI video
- B.
Wideband limited video
- C.
Coherent MTI video
- D.
Limited video
Correct Answer
A. Noncoherent MTI video -
- 40.
How many transmitters are required to transfer a large volume of data from the ASR to the operation shelter?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 2 -
- 41.
Which circuit in the microwave radio receiver mixes the local oscillator signal with the RF input to produce the IF signal?
- A.
RF to baseband circuits
- B.
Control and fault alarm circuit
- C.
Local oscillator frequency synthesizer
- D.
Frequency generation and control circuits.
Correct Answer
A. RF to baseband circuits -
- 42.
In the TPN-25, where are the antenna beam positin commands from the target data computer routed?
- A.
Shift registers
- B.
Static storage registers
- C.
Synchronous control logic
- D.
TDC command data register
Correct Answer
D. TDC command data register -
- 43.
On the TPN-25, the automatic interlock device prevents movement of the boom unless the antenna is at what angle with respect to the boom?
- A.
6°
- B.
4°
- C.
2°
- D.
0°
Correct Answer
D. 0° -
- 44.
What actions result, when boom movement stop
- A.
Reinsertion of the pins and setting the boom brakes
- B.
Alarm deactivation and the setting of the boom brakes
- C.
Reinsertion of the pins and alarm deactivation
- D.
Motor stoppage and alarm deactivation
Correct Answer
A. Reinsertion of the pins and setting the boom brakes -
- 45.
What device is contained within the TPN-25 radar data transfer subsystem that is not contained within the TPN-24 radar transfer subsystem?
- A.
Microwave transmitter
- B.
Supervisory multiplexer
- C.
Digital-to digital converter
- D.
Analog to digital converter
Correct Answer
C. Digital-to digital converter -
- 46.
The purpose of the ASR video processor video processor enhancer circuit card is to
- A.
Reduce synchronous target intensity (aircraft returns), and remove nonsynchronous returns, such as random noise
- B.
Increase synchronous target intensity, and remove non-synchronous returns, such as random noise.
- C.
Reduce synchronous target intensity, and cancel normal video.
- D.
Increase synchronous target intensity, and cancel normal video.
Correct Answer
B. Increase synchronous target intensity, and remove non-synchronous returns, such as random noise. -
- 47.
In the ASR video processor, either log or normal video is selected for the input to the moving target indicator (MTI)/normal enhancer circuit in the
- A.
Normal video combiner.
- B.
Normal log FTC circuit card
- C.
Normal video switch.
- D.
Log video switch
Correct Answer
B. Normal log FTC circuit card -
- 48.
The cascade canceller response is more desirable (lower response) for
- A.
Higher speed moving target
- B.
Slow speed moving targets
- C.
Average speed moving targets
- D.
Higher speed and lower speed moving target
Correct Answer
B. Slow speed moving targets -
- 49.
1. If your services slower-moving aircraft, which subclutter visibility (SCV) mode would be the best to use?
- A.
25dB
- B.
30dB
- C.
35dB
- D.
40dB
Correct Answer
A. 25dB -
- 50.
What function of the range azimuth gating (RAG) is used to indicate runway, air route, or approach pattern?
- A.
Test
- B.
Isolated gating
- C.
Azimuth gating of STC
- D.
Azimuth strobe gating
Correct Answer
D. Azimuth strobe gating -
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Mar 17, 2022Quiz Edited by
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