Ground Radar Systems Journeyman CDC 4-6 #1

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 47

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Ground Radar Systems Journeyman CDC 4-6 #1 - Quiz

One shops CDC practise test. Not to sure of #91. Also, if any andswers are off. Please tell me. Thanks


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
     What method does an A-scan indicator use to display video?
    • A. 

      Z-axis modulation.

    • B. 

      Intensity modulation

    • C. 

      Deflection modulation

    • D. 

      Amplitude modulation

  • 2. 
    What target information is provided by the plan-position indicator? (PPI)
    • A. 

      Azimuth only

    • B. 

      Elevation only

    • C. 

      Range and azimuth

    • D. 

      Elevation and range

  • 3. 
    What type of scan can “paint” a map of the area, to include areas if heavy rain or clouds?
    • A. 

      A-scan.

    • B. 

      B-scan.

    • C. 

      Raster scans.

    • D. 

      Plan-position indicator scan

  • 4. 
    In a Raster scan indicator, how many vertical scan periods does it take to produce one complete picture?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 5. 
    Which indicator component determines the overall operation of the indicator?
    • A. 

      Data processing circuits.

    • B. 

      Deflection circuits.

    • C. 

      Video Circuits.

    • D. 

      Cathode-ray tube

  • 6. 
    Which indicator component’s main purpose is to control the intensity of CRT electron beam?
    • A. 

      Deflection circuits.

    • B. 

      Video circuits

    • C. 

      Power Supply.

    • D. 

      Cathode-ray tube

  • 7. 
    Digital display data from the data processing circuits is converted into analog drive signal in the
    • A. 

      Deflection circuits

    • B. 

      Video circuits

    • C. 

      Power supply

    • D. 

      CRT

  • 8. 
    Electromagnetic deflection is accomplished by applying
    • A. 

      Current through the two deflection plates.

    • B. 

      Triggers to the two deflection plates

    • C. 

      Current through the deflection coil

    • D. 

      Triggers to the deflection coil

  • 9. 
    The vacuum in a cathode-ray tube (CRT)
    • A. 

      Prevents implosion if the CRT is broken

    • B. 

      Keeps the phosphor coating from burning

    • C. 

      Eliminates static charges on the deflection plates

    • D. 

      Prevents collision between electrons in the beam and air molecules

  • 10. 
    What is the leading edge-to-edge edge spacing between P1 and P3 of Mode 3?
    • A. 

      0.45 µsec

    • B. 

      3 µsec

    • C. 

      5 µsec

    • D. 

      8 µsec

  • 11. 
    The frequency used for identification friend or foe/selective identification feature (IFF/SIF) interrogations is
    • A. 

      1030 MHz

    • B. 

      1070 MHz

    • C. 

      1090 MHz

    • D. 

      1270 MHz

  • 12. 
    What information pulses are present in a code train that decodes as 5421?
    • A. 

      A4, A1, B4, C2, D1.

    • B. 

      C4, B3, B1, A4, D2

    • C. 

      D4, B1, C2, D4, A1

    • D. 

      B4, B1, C2, D4, A1.

  • 13. 
    An X pulse is present in an SIF code train when
    • A. 

      A Mode 4 reply is being received

    • B. 

      The aircraft is a pilotless drone or missile

    • C. 

      The aircraft is declaring a military emergency

    • D. 

      It is requested by the radar operator to identify the aircraft position

  • 14. 
    Which special response explains 7500 reply?
    • A. 

      Communication failure.

    • B. 

      Military emergency.

    • C. 

      Engine failure

    • D. 

      Hijacking

  • 15. 
    The AN/UPM-155 radar test set is capable of testing
    • A. 

      Interrogators and associated components

    • B. 

      Radar transmitter VZWR

    • C. 

      Radar jamming strength

    • D. 

      Radar receivers

  • 16. 
    What possible input voltage (s) may be supplied to the AN/UPM-155 radar test set for operation?
    • A. 

      115 VAC

    • B. 

      120 VAC

    • C. 

      130 VAC

    • D. 

      115 VAC or 230 VAC

  • 17. 
    What three components are included within electronic combat (EC).
    • A. 

      Electronic attack (EA), suppression of enemy air defenses (SEAD), and electronic warfare (EW).

    • B. 

      Electronic attack, suppression of enemy air defenses (SEAD), signal intelligence (SIGNT).

    • C. 

      Command, control, and communication countermeasures (C³CM), suppression of enemy air defenses (SEAD), and electronic warfare (EW).

    • D. 

      Command, control, and communication countermeasures (C³CM), suppression of enemy air defenses (SEAD), signal intelligence (SIGNT).

  • 18. 
    What are the three primary areas of electronic warfare?
    • A. 

      Electronic warfare support (ES), electronic attack (EA), and electronic protection (EP).

    • B. 

      Suppression of enemy air defenses (SEAD), Electronic warfare support (ES), electronic attack (EA).

    • C. 

      Suppression of enemy air defenses (SEAD), Electronic warfare support (ES), and electronic protection (EP)

    • D. 

      Electronic warfare support (ES), electronic attack (EA), Command, control, and communication countermeasures (C³CM).

  • 19. 
    What is the relatively new concept of employing electronic warfare support (ES)?
    • A. 

      To exploit signal environment before an engagement

    • B. 

      To provide a tactically oriented immediate response

    • C. 

      To provide indirect support to theater commanders

    • D. 

      To support long term intelligence

  • 20. 
    The primary role of the electronic warfare support (ES) is a wartime function that provides the military commander a capability that can
    • A. 

      Prevent jamming from accruing

    • B. 

      Identify all possible interferences

    • C. 

      Isolate friendly from enemy forces

    • D. 

      Integrate with other operational forces

  • 21. 
    Predictable external factors that affect electronic attack (EA) are
    • A. 

      Troposheric scatter and burn through range.

    • B. 

      Atmospheric attenuation and tropospheric scatter

    • C. 

      Victim radar characteristic and burn through range

    • D. 

      Atmospheric attenuation and victim radar characteristics.

  • 22. 
    The three major categories that noise jammers can be divided into are
    • A. 

      Confusion jammers, spot jammers, and sweep jammers

    • B. 

      Spot jammers, sweep jammers, and barrage jammers

    • C. 

      Deception jammers, confusion jammers, and spot jammers

    • D. 

      Deception jammers, confusion jammers, and barrage jammers

  • 23. 
    A decoy is
    • A. 

      An expendable aircraft-like vehicle used to provide deception

    • B. 

      An expendable aircraft-like vehicle used to gather information

    • C. 

      A manned aircraft flown in a different sector to mislead operators

    • D. 

      A manned aircraft flown at different altitudes to mislead operators

  • 24. 
    That transmitter fix is for synchronous pulsed jammers?
    • A. 

      Staggered PRF

    • B. 

      Coded Pulse Anti-Clutter System

    • C. 

      Manual gain control

    • D. 

      Frequency agility

  • 25. 
    What technique is used in a strong clutter or jamming environment to improve target detection?
    • A. 

      Fast time constant (FTC)

    • B. 

      Manual gain control (MGC).

    • C. 

      Moving target indicator (MTI)

    • D. 

      Instantaneous automatic gain control (IAGC)

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