Genetics Final Exam Quiz

72 Questions | Total Attempts: 70

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Genetics Quizzes & Trivia

Do you go to Westmont College and are taking human anatomy class? If so, then I have prepared a genetics quiz that is designed to help you review what we covered this semester. Do give it a try and see just how much you know about it as you prepare for the final exam. All the best and keep on revising!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    In our experiment in lab, which bacteria was able to grow on the LB + amp plates?
    • A. 

      All the bacteria, regardless of whether that had the plasmid or not.

    • B. 

      Only the bacteria that contained the plasmid.

    • C. 

      Only the bacteria that lacked the plasmid.

  • 2. 
    Hershey and Chase's experiment helped prove that DNA is the genetic material. What if they had used a phage that had RNA as its genetic material? Would their experimental design still work?
    • A. 

      Yes, because their use of RNase would tell them whether RNA was critical.

    • B. 

      No, because the phage RNA would incorporate both [32P] and [35S].

    • C. 

      No, because the phage RNA would NOT incorporate either [32P] or [35S].

    • D. 

      Yes, because, like DNA, the phage RNA would incorportate [32P] and not [35S]

  • 3. 
    Why did Chargaff’s data support the idea that DNA was the genetic material while Levene’s did not? Choose one answer.
    • A. 

      A. Levene’s data implied the nucleotides were randomly assembled in cells but Chargaff proved they were in a specific order.

    • B. 

      B. Chargaff proved that each species had different values for each base (although within species A=T & G=C), suggesting that DNA was different between them.

    • C. 

      C. Levene’s data showed there wasn’t enough DNA in cells to encode all the necessary information but Chargaff disproved this.

    • D. 

      D. Levene found that RNA & DNA used the exact same nucleotides while Chargaff proved that they didn’t.

  • 4. 
    In Griffith's experiments, why did the rat die when it was injected with live R strain and heat-killed S strain (choose most appropriate answer)?
    • A. 

      Some of the S strain bacteria came back to live after acquiring some fragments of the R strain.

    • B. 

      One R strain bacterium must have spontaneously mutated to become virulent.

    • C. 

      Some of the R strain bacteria took in a fragment of the S strain DNA that encoded for synthesis of the polysaccharide coat.

    • D. 

      Some of the R strain bacteria took in a fragment of the S strain DNA that encoded for ampicillin resistance.

    • E. 

      The R strain surrounded itself with some of the polysaccharide coating from the dead S strain.

  • 5. 
    What is NOT a required property of genetic material?
    • A. 

      Reliable storage of all necessary information for life

    • B. 

      Ability to be replicated

    • C. 

      Unchanging over time

    • D. 

      Controlled expression of information

    • E. 

      All are required properties of genetic material

  • 6. 
    Who isolated DNA from human cells for the first time?
    • A. 

      Schwann and Schleiden

    • B. 

      Watson and Crick

    • C. 

      Meischer

    • D. 

      Griffith

    • E. 

      Mendel

  • 7. 
    One strand of the DNA helix is 3’-GCCTATTTGACT-5’. What is the sequence and direction of its complementary strand?
    • A. 

      5’-TCAGTTTATCCG-3’

    • B. 

      B. 3’-CGGAUAAACUGA-5’

    • C. 

      C. 3’-TCAGTTTATCCG-5’

    • D. 

      D. 5’-CGGATAAACTGA-3’

    • E. 

      E. 5’-CGGAUAAACUGA-3’

    • F. 

      F. 3’-CGGATAAACTGA-5’

  • 8. 
    In a nucleotide, the phosphate is attached to which carbon of the pentose sugar?
    • A. 

      3'

    • B. 

      2'

    • C. 

      4'

    • D. 

      5'

    • E. 

      1'

  • 9. 
    If the conservative model of DNA replication WAS correct, what bands would Meselson and Stahl have seen after the 2nd generation of E. coli growth?
    • A. 

      One, thick intermediate band

    • B. 

      Equal quantities of an intermediate band and a heavy band

    • C. 

      Large, thick “light” band and a thinner “heavy” band

    • D. 

      Thinner “light” band and a large, thick “heavy” band

    • E. 

      Light, intermediate, and heavy bands

  • 10. 
    DNA polymerase I adds nucleotides to the 
    • A. 

      5' end of the primer.

    • B. 

      3' end of the primer.

    • C. 

      5’ end of the new DNA strand after the primer is removed

    • D. 

      3’ end of the new DNA strand after the primer is removed

  • 11. 
    Why did Arthur Kornberg find DNA pol I and not DNA pol III even though the latter is the enzyme responsible for the majority of DNA replication?
    • A. 

      There is significantly more DNA pol I in each cell.

    • B. 

      E. coli don't have DNA pol III.

    • C. 

      DNA pol III does not work in a cell-free, in vitro DNA synthesis system.

    • D. 

      He did find DNA pol III but called it the Kornberg enzyme.

  • 12. 
    The discontinuous aspect of DNA replication on the lagging strand is caused by
    • A. 

      The 5' to 3' polarity restriction in polymerization.

    • B. 

      Random priming

    • C. 

      Polymerase slippage

    • D. 

      Discontinuous helicase activity.

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 13. 
    What technique would you use if you wanted to determine which chromosome contained a certain gene?
    • A. 

      In situ hybridization

    • B. 

      Southern blotting

    • C. 

      Transformation

    • D. 

      FISH

    • E. 

      Restriction mapping

  • 14. 
    The origin of replication in a prokaryotic chromosome has a lot of A's and T's.  Why does this make sense?
    • A. 

      There is no reason. It is pure chance but has been conserved over time.

    • B. 

      A's and T's are more easily recognized by the proteins of the replisome

    • C. 

      They make up the restriction site recognized by the restriction endonuclease

    • D. 

      They are easier to pry apart (i.e. require less energy).

  • 15. 
    An absorbance value of 1 at 260nm for DNA indicates the sample contains 50 micrograms/milliliter of DNA. In contrast, an absorbance value of 1 at 260 nm for RNA indicates the sample contains 40 micrograms/milliliter of RNA. Why the difference?
    • A. 

      DNA is always heavier because of the de-oxyribose in the nucleotides

    • B. 

      RNA absorbs more UV light because it is single-stranded

    • C. 

      Uracil absorbs more UV light because it contains more nitrogen.

    • D. 

      RNA is less-stable so degrades more easily.

  • 16. 
    How does RNA differ from DNA?
    • A. 

      It forms left-handed helix.

    • B. 

      It uses only purines

    • C. 

      In RNA, the amount of G's may not equal the amount of C's

    • D. 

      It is not negatively charged

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 17. 
    Zamecnick mixed together 3 components in his "cell-free in vitro protein synthesis system." In which component were the ribosomes that he discovered?
    • A. 

      The radioactive amino acids

    • B. 

      The non-radioactive amino acids

    • C. 

      The E. coli lysate

    • D. 

      The ATP regeneration system

    • E. 

      The Rat Liver Extract

  • 18. 
    Transcription in prokaryotes terminates at
    • A. 

      A gene's stop codon

    • B. 

      A region beyond the end of the RNA-coding region

    • C. 

      A region called the TATA box

    • D. 

      A region called the promoter

  • 19. 
    What do homologous chromosomes have in common?
    • A. 

      They are the same size.

    • B. 

      They contain the same genes.

    • C. 

      They will show the same banding pattern when stained

    • D. 

      Their centromere is in the same location.

    • E. 

      All of the above.

  • 20. 
    Chromatin remodeling affects
    • A. 

      G-banding pattern of chromosomes

    • B. 

      Gene activity (how often a gene is "on" and "off")

    • C. 

      MRNA processing

    • D. 

      Rate of DNA replication

    • E. 

      Number of nucleotides in a genome

  • 21. 
    What property is true about telomeras?
    • A. 

      Polymerizes DNA from a DNA template

    • B. 

      Polymerizes DNA from an RNA template

    • C. 

      Polymerizes RNA from an RNA template

    • D. 

      Polymerizes RNA from a DNA template

    • E. 

      Requires no template to polymerize nucleic acid

  • 22. 
    Which answer below would be a reasonable size for a prokaryotic chromosome?
    • A. 

      54,200 bp

    • B. 

      275,000 bp

    • C. 

      1.39 million bp

    • D. 

      4.01 billion bp

    • E. 

      2.39 trillion bp

  • 23. 
    Supercoiled DNA
    • A. 

      Have more histones in their chromain

    • B. 

      May have slightly more or less than 10.4 base-pairs per helical turn

    • C. 

      Is only found in mitotic chromosomes

    • D. 

      Is never found naturally in cells.

    • E. 

      Forms a left-handed helix

  • 24. 
    The function of the sigma factor in a prokaryote is:
    • A. 

      To prime the mRNA

    • B. 

      To unwind the DNA helix during replication

    • C. 

      To facilitate elongation

    • D. 

      To bind strongly to the promoter

    • E. 

      To mediate termination

  • 25. 
    Why are frameshifts one of the most severe types of mutations?
    • A. 

      They occur only in gametes

    • B. 

      More than one chromosome is affected.

    • C. 

      They change a nucleotide's base-pairing, causing it to base-pair with a different nucleotide

    • D. 

      They not only affect one codon but all codons downstream.

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