Fundamentals Of Nursing IV: Www.Rnpedia.Com
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Mark the letter of the letter of choice then click on the next button. Score will be posted as soon as the you are done with the quiz. You got 120 minutes to finish the exam. Good luck!Content Outline1. The nursing process2. Physical Assessment3. Health Assessment3. A Temperature3. B Pulse3. C Respiration3. D Blood pressure 4. Routine Procedures4. A Urinalysis specimen collection4. B Sputum specimen collection4. C Urine examination4. D Positioning pre-procedure4. E Stool specimen collection
Questions and Answers
- 1.
She is the first one to coin the term “NURSING PROCESS” She introduced 3 steps of nursing process which are Observation, Ministration and Validation.
- A.
Nightingale
- B.
Johnson
- C.
Rogers
- D.
Hall
Correct Answer
D. HallExplanation
Hall is the correct answer because she is credited with being the first one to coin the term "NURSING PROCESS" and introduced the three steps of nursing process: Observation, Ministration, and Validation. Nightingale, Johnson, and Rogers are not associated with these specific contributions.Rate this question:
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- 2.
The American Nurses association formulated an innovation of the Nursing process. Today, how many distinct steps are there in the nursing process?
- A.
APIE – 4
- B.
ADPIE – 5
- C.
ADOPIE – 6
- D.
ADOPIER – 7
Correct Answer
C. ADOPIE – 6Explanation
The correct answer is ADOPIE - 6. The nursing process consists of six distinct steps: Assessment, Diagnosis, Outcome Identification, Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation. Each step is crucial in providing effective and efficient patient care.Rate this question:
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- 3.
They are the first one to suggest a 4 step nursing process which are : APIE , or assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation. 1. Yura 2. Walsh 3. Roy 4. Knowles
- A.
1,2
- B.
1,3
- C.
3,4
- D.
2,3
Correct Answer
A. 1,2Explanation
Yura and Walsh are the correct answers because they were the first ones to suggest the 4 step nursing process known as APIE, which stands for assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation. Roy and Knowles are not the correct answers as they did not contribute to the development of the APIE nursing process.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which characteristic of nursing process is responsible for proper utilization of human resources, time and cost resources?
- A.
Organized and Systematic
- B.
Humanistic
- C.
Efficient
- D.
Effective
Correct Answer
C. EfficientExplanation
Efficient is the characteristic of the nursing process that is responsible for the proper utilization of human resources, time, and cost resources. Efficiency refers to the ability to accomplish tasks with minimum wasted effort, time, and resources. In nursing, being efficient means using available resources effectively, managing time wisely, and minimizing unnecessary costs. By being efficient, nurses can ensure that they are utilizing their skills and resources optimally, providing quality care to patients while also maximizing productivity and minimizing waste.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which characteristic of nursing process addresses the INDIVIDUALIZED care a client must receive?
- A.
Organized and Systematic
- B.
Humanistic
- C.
Efficient
- D.
Effective
Correct Answer
B. HumanisticExplanation
The characteristic of nursing process that addresses the individualized care a client must receive is humanistic. This means that nursing care is focused on the unique needs, preferences, and values of each individual client. It emphasizes the importance of treating clients with respect, dignity, and empathy, and tailoring care to meet their specific needs. The humanistic approach recognizes that each client is a unique individual and requires personalized care to promote their overall well-being.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A characteristic of the nursing process that is essential to promote client satisfaction and progress. The care should also be relevant with the client’s needs.
- A.
Organized and Systematic
- B.
Humanistic
- C.
Efficient
- D.
Effective
Correct Answer
D. EffectiveExplanation
Effective is the correct answer because in order to promote client satisfaction and progress, the nursing process must be able to achieve the desired outcomes and goals for the client. The care provided should be evidence-based and tailored to meet the client's specific needs. It should also be efficient in terms of time management and resource utilization. By being effective, the nursing process ensures that the client's health and well-being are improved and maintained.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Rhina, who has Menieres disease, said that her environment is moving. Which of the following is a valid assessment? 1. Rhina is giving an objective data 2. Rhina is giving a subjective data 3. The source of the data is primary 4. The source of the data is secondary
- A.
1,3
- B.
2,3
- C.
2.4
- D.
1,4
Correct Answer
B. 2,3Explanation
Rhina stating that her environment is moving is a subjective data because it is based on her personal perception and experience. The source of the data is primary because it is coming directly from Rhina, the person experiencing Menieres disease.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Nurse Angela, observe Joel who is very apprehensive over the impending operation. The client is experiencing dyspnea, diaphoresis and asks lots of questions. Angela made a diagnosis of ANXIETY R/T INTRUSIVE PROCEDURE. This is what type of Nursing Diagnosis?
- A.
Actual
- B.
Probable
- C.
Possible
- D.
Risk
Correct Answer
A. ActualExplanation
The given nursing diagnosis of ANXIETY R/T INTRUSIVE PROCEDURE is classified as an Actual nursing diagnosis. This is because the client is currently experiencing symptoms of anxiety such as dyspnea, diaphoresis, and asking lots of questions. The nurse has observed these symptoms and made a diagnosis based on the client's current condition.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Nurse Angela diagnosed Mrs. Delgado, who have undergone a BKA. Her diagnosis is SELF ESTEEM DISTURBANCE R/T CHANGE IN BODY IMAGE. Although the client has not yet seen her lost leg, Angela already anticipated the diagnosis. This is what type of Diagnosis?
- A.
Actual
- B.
Probable
- C.
Possible
- D.
Risk
Correct Answer
D. RiskExplanation
The correct answer is "Risk." In this scenario, Nurse Angela is anticipating a diagnosis of SELF ESTEEM DISTURBANCE R/T CHANGE IN BODY IMAGE for Mrs. Delgado, who has undergone a BKA (below knee amputation). However, Mrs. Delgado has not yet seen her lost leg. Therefore, this diagnosis is based on the potential risk of developing self-esteem disturbance due to the change in her body image. It is not an actual diagnosis because Mrs. Delgado has not experienced the body image change yet.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Nurse Angela is about to make a diagnosis but very unsure because the S/S the client is experiencing is not specific with her diagnosis of POWERLESSNESS R/T DIFFICULTY ACCEPTING LOSS OF LOVED ONE. She then focus on gathering data to refute or prove her diagnosis but her plans and interventions are already ongoing for the diagnosis. Which type of Diagnosis is this?
- A.
Actual
- B.
Probable
- C.
Possible
- D.
Risk
Correct Answer
C. PossibleExplanation
The nurse is unsure about her diagnosis because the client's symptoms are not specific to her initial diagnosis. She is gathering data to either refute or prove her diagnosis. Since her plans and interventions are already ongoing for the diagnosis, it suggests that the diagnosis is possible.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Nurse Angela knew that Stephen Lee Mu Chin, has just undergone an operation with an incision near the diaphragm. She knew that this will contribute to some complications later on. She then should develop what type of Nursing diagnosis?
- A.
Actual
- B.
Probable
- C.
Possible
- D.
Risk
Correct Answer
D. RiskExplanation
Based on the given information, Nurse Angela knows that Stephen Lee Mu Chin has just undergone an operation near the diaphragm, which increases the likelihood of complications in the future. Therefore, she should develop a nursing diagnosis of "Risk." This indicates that there is a potential for complications to occur due to the recent operation.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which of the following Nursing diagnosis is INCORRECT?
- A.
Fluid volume deficit R/T Diarrhea
- B.
High risk for injury R/T Absence of side rails
- C.
Possible ineffective coping R/T Loss of loved one
- D.
Self esteem disturbance R/T Effects of surgical removal of the leg
Correct Answer
B. High risk for injury R/T Absence of side railsExplanation
The correct answer is "High risk for injury R/T Absence of side rails" because this nursing diagnosis is incorrect. The presence or absence of side rails does not directly contribute to the risk of injury. Other factors such as impaired mobility, confusion, or environmental hazards would be more relevant in assessing the risk for injury.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Among the following statements, which should be given the HIGHEST priority?
- A.
Client is in extreme pain
- B.
Client’s blood pressure is 60/40
- C.
Client’s temperature is 40 deg. Centigrade
- D.
Client is cyanotic
Correct Answer
D. Client is cyanoticExplanation
The highest priority should be given to the statement "Client is cyanotic." Cyanosis is a condition characterized by bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes, indicating a lack of oxygen in the blood. This is a critical sign that suggests a severe respiratory or circulatory problem. Immediate intervention is required to address the underlying cause and improve oxygenation. The other statements, while important, do not indicate an immediate life-threatening condition like cyanosis does.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following need is given a higher priority among others?
- A.
The client has attempted suicide and safety precaution is needed
- B.
The client has disturbance in his body image because of the recent operation
- C.
The client is depressed because her boyfriend left her all alone
- D.
The client is thirsty and dehydrated
Correct Answer
D. The client is thirsty and dehydratedExplanation
Thirst and dehydration are basic physiological needs that must be met in order to maintain proper bodily function. Without addressing this need, the client's health and well-being could be at risk. In comparison, the other options involve psychological or emotional needs, which although important, may not have immediate life-threatening consequences if not addressed immediately. Therefore, addressing the client's thirst and dehydration takes precedence over the other needs mentioned.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which of the following is TRUE with regards to Client Goals?
- A.
They are specific, measurable, attainable and time bounded
- B.
They are general and broadly stated
- C.
They should answer for WHO, WHAT ACTIONS, WHAT CIRCUMSTANCES, HOW WELL and WHEN.
- D.
Example is : After discharge planning, Client demonstrated the proper psychomotor skills for insulin injection.
Correct Answer
B. They are general and broadly statedExplanation
The given answer states that client goals are general and broadly stated. This means that client goals are not specific, measurable, attainable, or time bounded. Instead, they are more general statements that do not provide specific details about the actions, circumstances, or timeline involved in achieving the goal. The example provided also supports this explanation, as it demonstrates a general statement about the client's skills without providing specific details about the actions taken or the timeframe in which they were achieved.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which of the following is a NOT a correct statement of an Outcome criteria?
- A.
Ambulates 30 feet with a cane before discharge
- B.
Discusses fears and concerns regarding the surgical procedure
- C.
Demonstrates proper coughing and breathing technique after a teaching session
- D.
Reestablishes a normal pattern of elimination
Correct Answer
D. Reestablishes a normal pattern of eliminationExplanation
The statement "Reestablishes a normal pattern of elimination" is not a correct outcome criteria because it is not specific or measurable. It does not provide any criteria or parameters to determine what is considered a "normal" pattern of elimination. Outcome criteria should be clear, measurable, and specific in order to evaluate the progress or success of a particular goal or intervention.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of the following is a OBJECTIVE data?
- A.
Dizziness
- B.
Chest pain
- C.
Anxiety
- D.
Blue nails
Correct Answer
D. Blue nailsExplanation
Blue nails is considered an objective data because it is a physical observation that can be measured and documented. Unlike symptoms such as dizziness, chest pain, or anxiety, which are subjective and based on the individual's perception, blue nails can be objectively assessed by observing the color of the nails. This objective data can provide valuable information about the individual's health condition and can be used for further diagnosis and treatment.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A patient’s chart is what type of data source?
- A.
Primary
- B.
Secondary
- C.
Tertiary
- D.
Can be A and B
Correct Answer
B. SecondaryExplanation
A patient's chart is considered a secondary data source because it is created by someone other than the patient themselves. It is a record that is generated by healthcare professionals, such as doctors or nurses, to document the patient's medical history, diagnoses, treatments, and other relevant information. This data source is derived from primary sources, such as the patient's own reports and medical tests, but it is not directly collected or created by the patient. Therefore, it falls under the category of secondary data.Rate this question:
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- 19.
All of the following are characteristic of the Nursing process except
- A.
Dynamic
- B.
Cyclical
- C.
Universal
- D.
Intrapersonal
Correct Answer
D. IntrapersonalExplanation
The nursing process is a systematic method used by nurses to provide patient care. It involves five steps: assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation. The characteristics of the nursing process include being dynamic, meaning it is constantly changing and adapting to the patient's needs; cyclical, as it is a continuous and ongoing process; and universal, as it can be applied to all patients regardless of their condition or setting. The term "intrapersonal" refers to an individual's thoughts and emotions, which is not a characteristic of the nursing process.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which of the following is true about the NURSING CARE PLAN?
- A.
It is nursing centered
- B.
Rationales are supported by interventions
- C.
Verbal
- D.
At least 2 goals are needed for every nursing diagnosis
Correct Answer
A. It is nursing centeredExplanation
The correct answer is that the nursing care plan is nursing centered. This means that the plan is focused on the specific needs and care of the patient from a nursing perspective. It takes into consideration the patient's nursing diagnoses, goals, and interventions that are specific to nursing care. The nursing care plan is not centered around other healthcare professionals or disciplines, but rather focuses on the unique role of the nurse in providing care to the patient.Rate this question:
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- 21.
A framework for health assessment that evaluates the effects of stressors to the mind, body and environment in relation with the ability of the client to perform ADL.
- A.
Functional health framework
- B.
Head to toe framework
- C.
Body system framework
- D.
Cephalocaudal framework
Correct Answer
A. Functional health frameworkExplanation
The functional health framework is a comprehensive approach to health assessment that considers the effects of stressors on the mind, body, and environment. It also takes into account the client's ability to perform activities of daily living (ADL). This framework focuses on evaluating the client's overall functional status and how it is impacted by various stressors. It provides a holistic view of the client's health and helps identify areas of concern that may need intervention or support.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Client has undergone Upper GI and Lower GI series. Which type of health assessment framework is used in this situation?
- A.
Functional health framework
- B.
Head to toe framework
- C.
Body system framework
- D.
Cephalocaudal framework
Correct Answer
C. Body system frameworkExplanation
In this situation, the body system framework is used for health assessment. The client has undergone Upper GI and Lower GI series, which are diagnostic tests that focus on specific body systems, namely the gastrointestinal system. The body system framework involves assessing each body system separately to gather information about its functioning and any potential abnormalities or issues. This approach allows healthcare professionals to focus on the specific system that is being assessed and provide targeted care and treatment based on the findings.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following statement is true regarding temperature?
- A.
Oral temperature is more accurate than rectal temperature
- B.
The bulb used in Rectal temperature reading is pear shaped or round
- C.
The older the person, the higher his BMR
- D.
When the client is swimming, BMR Decreases
Correct Answer
B. The bulb used in Rectal temperature reading is pear shaped or roundExplanation
Rectal temperature readings are taken using a thermometer with a bulb that is pear-shaped or round in order to facilitate easy insertion into the rectum. This shape helps to ensure that the thermometer stays in place and provides an accurate reading of the body's internal temperature.Rate this question:
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- 24.
A type of heat loss that occurs when the heat is dissipated by air current
- A.
Convection
- B.
Conduction
- C.
Radiation
- D.
Evaporation
Correct Answer
A. ConvectionExplanation
Convection is the correct answer because it refers to the transfer of heat through the movement of a fluid, such as air or water. In this case, when heat is dissipated by air current, it is a form of convection. The air current carries the heat away, resulting in heat loss. Conduction refers to the transfer of heat through direct contact, radiation is the transfer of heat through electromagnetic waves, and evaporation is the process of heat loss through the conversion of a liquid into a gas.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which of the following is TRUE about temperature?
- A.
The highest temperature usually occurs later in a day, around 8 P.M to 12 M.N
- B.
The lowest temperature is usually in the Afternoon, Around 12 P.M
- C.
Thyroxin decreases body temperature
- D.
Elderly people are risk for hyperthermia due to the absence of fats, Decreased thermoregulatory control and sedentary lifestyle.
Correct Answer
A. The highest temperature usually occurs later in a day, around 8 P.M to 12 M.NExplanation
The answer states that the highest temperature usually occurs later in a day, around 8 P.M to 12 M.N. This is true because during the day, the sun's rays heat up the Earth's surface, and this heat continues to be released into the atmosphere even after sunset. As a result, the temperature continues to rise for a few hours after sunset, reaching its peak in the late evening before gradually decreasing throughout the night.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Hyperpyrexia is a condition in which the temperature is greater than
- A.
40 degree Celsius
- B.
39 degree Celsius
- C.
100 degree Fahrenheit
- D.
105.8 degree Fahrenheit
Correct Answer
D. 105.8 degree FahrenheitExplanation
Hyperpyrexia is a medical condition characterized by an extremely high body temperature. In this case, the correct answer is 105.8 degrees Fahrenheit. This temperature is significantly higher than the other options provided, indicating a severe and potentially life-threatening condition. Hyperpyrexia can be caused by various factors such as infections, heat stroke, or certain medications. It requires immediate medical attention and treatment to prevent complications and organ damage.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Tympanic temperature is taken from John, A client who was brought recently into the ER due to frequent barking cough. The temperature reads 37.9 Degrees Celsius. As a nurse, you conclude that this temperature is
- A.
High
- B.
Low
- C.
At the low end of the normal range
- D.
At the high end of the normal range
Correct Answer
D. At the high end of the normal rangeExplanation
The tympanic temperature reading of 37.9 degrees Celsius is considered to be at the high end of the normal range.Rate this question:
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- 28.
John has a fever of 38.5 Deg. Celsius. It surges at around 40 Degrees and go back to 38.5 degrees 6 times today in a typical pattern. What kind of fever is John having?
- A.
Relapsing
- B.
Intermittent
- C.
Remittent
- D.
Constant
Correct Answer
C. RemittentExplanation
John is experiencing a remittent fever. A remittent fever is characterized by fluctuations in body temperature, where the fever spikes and then returns to a lower level multiple times within a 24-hour period. In this case, John's fever surges to around 40 degrees Celsius and then goes back to 38.5 degrees Celsius six times in a typical pattern, indicating a remittent fever.Rate this question:
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- 29.
John has a fever of 39.5 degrees 2 days ago, But yesterday, he has a normal temperature of 36.5 degrees. Today, his temperature surges to 40 degrees. What type of fever is John having?
- A.
Relapsing
- B.
Intermittent
- C.
Remittent
- D.
Constant
Correct Answer
A. RelapsingExplanation
John is experiencing a relapsing fever. This is indicated by the pattern of his temperature fluctuating between normal and high temperatures. Two days ago, he had a fever of 39.5 degrees, then his temperature returned to normal of 36.5 degrees, and today it surged to 40 degrees. This pattern of fever coming and going is characteristic of a relapsing fever.Rate this question:
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- 30.
John’s temperature 10 hours ago is a normal 36.5 degrees. 4 hours ago, He has a fever with a temperature of 38.9 Degrees. Right now, his temperature is back to normal. Which of the following best describe the fever john is having?
- A.
Relapsing
- B.
Intermittent
- C.
Remittent
- D.
Constant
Correct Answer
B. IntermittentExplanation
John's temperature fluctuates between normal and feverish levels, indicating that he is experiencing intermittent fever. This type of fever is characterized by periods of normal temperature alternating with periods of fever.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The characteristic fever in Dengue Virus is characterized as:
- A.
Tricyclic
- B.
Bicyclic
- C.
Biphasic
- D.
Triphasic
Correct Answer
C. BiphasicExplanation
The characteristic fever in Dengue Virus is characterized as biphasic. This means that the fever occurs in two phases. The first phase is typically a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a period of remission where the fever subsides. After the remission phase, a second phase of fever occurs, which is usually milder but can still be accompanied by other symptoms such as rash, headache, and joint pain. This biphasic pattern of fever is a distinguishing feature of dengue fever.Rate this question:
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- 32.
When John has been given paracetamol, his fever was brought down dramatically from 40 degrees Celsius to 36.7 degrees in a matter of 10 minutes. The nurse would assess this event as:
- A.
The goal of reducing john’s fever has been met with full satisfaction of the outcome criteria
- B.
The desired goal has been partially met
- C.
The goal is not completely met
- D.
The goal has been met but not with the desired outcome criteria
Correct Answer
D. The goal has been met but not with the desired outcome criteriaExplanation
The given answer suggests that although John's fever has been brought down dramatically, it has not reached the desired outcome criteria. This implies that the nurse may have expected the fever to decrease further or to reach a specific temperature. Therefore, while the goal of reducing John's fever has been achieved, it has not been met with the desired outcome criteria.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What can you expect from Marianne, who is currently at the ONSET stage of fever?
- A.
Hot, flushed skin
- B.
Increase thirst
- C.
Convulsion
- D.
Pale,cold skin
Correct Answer
D. Pale,cold skin -
- 34.
Marianne is now at the Defervescence stage of the fever, which of the following is expected?
- A.
Delirium
- B.
Goose flesh
- C.
Cyanotic nail beds
- D.
Sweating
Correct Answer
D. SweatingExplanation
At the defervescence stage of a fever, the body temperature starts to decrease. Sweating is expected during this stage as it is a mechanism by which the body cools down. The sweat helps to dissipate heat from the body, thus aiding in reducing the temperature. This is a natural response of the body as it tries to regulate its temperature and return to normal. Therefore, sweating is the expected symptom at the defervescence stage of a fever.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Considered as the most accessible and convenient method for temperature taking
- A.
Oral
- B.
Rectal
- C.
Tympanic
- D.
Axillary
Correct Answer
A. OralExplanation
Oral temperature taking is considered the most accessible and convenient method because it is non-invasive and can be easily done by placing a thermometer under the tongue. It is a common method used in hospitals, clinics, and homes, as it provides a quick and accurate reading of the body's temperature. Additionally, it is suitable for all age groups, including infants, children, and adults.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Considered as Safest and most non invasive method of temperature taking
- A.
Oral
- B.
Rectal
- C.
Tympanic
- D.
Axillary
Correct Answer
D. AxillaryExplanation
Axillary temperature taking is considered the safest and least invasive method of measuring temperature. It involves placing a thermometer in the armpit, which is a relatively non-sensitive area of the body. This method is particularly suitable for infants, young children, and individuals who are unable to cooperate or have difficulty with other methods. Axillary temperature taking is also less likely to cause discomfort or injury compared to other methods such as oral or rectal temperature measurements.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which of the following is NOT a contraindication in taking ORAL temperature?
- A.
Quadriplegic
- B.
Presence of NGT
- C.
Dyspnea
- D.
Nausea and Vomitting
Correct Answer
A. QuadriplegicExplanation
The correct answer is Quadriplegic. Quadriplegia refers to paralysis of all four limbs, typically caused by a spinal cord injury. This condition does not directly affect the ability to take an oral temperature. Contraindications for taking oral temperature include the presence of a nasogastric tube (NGT), as it may interfere with accurate temperature measurement, dyspnea (difficulty breathing), and nausea and vomiting, as these symptoms may make it difficult for the person to hold the thermometer under their tongue.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which of the following is a contraindication in taking RECTAL temperature?
- A.
Unconscious
- B.
Neutropenic
- C.
NPO
- D.
Very young children
Correct Answer
B. NeutropenicExplanation
A contraindication in taking RECTAL temperature is being neutropenic. Neutropenia refers to a low level of neutrophils, which are a type of white blood cell that helps fight off infections. Taking a rectal temperature involves inserting a thermometer into the rectum, which can potentially introduce bacteria and increase the risk of infection. Therefore, individuals who are neutropenic, with a weakened immune system, are at a higher risk of developing infections and should avoid rectal temperature measurements.Rate this question:
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- 39.
How long should the Rectal Thermometer be inserted to the clients anus?
- A.
1 to 2 inches
- B.
.5 to 1.5 inches
- C.
3 to 5 inches
- D.
2 to 3 inches
Correct Answer
B. .5 to 1.5 inchesExplanation
The rectal thermometer should be inserted into the client's anus to a depth of .5 to 1.5 inches. This is the recommended range for accurate temperature measurement. Inserting the thermometer too shallow or too deep may result in an inaccurate reading.Rate this question:
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- 40.
In cleaning the thermometer after use, The direction of the cleaning to follow Medical Asepsis is :
- A.
From bulb to stem
- B.
From stem to bulb
- C.
From stem to stem
- D.
From bulb to bulb
Correct Answer
B. From stem to bulbExplanation
The correct direction for cleaning the thermometer after use to follow Medical Asepsis is from stem to bulb. This is because the stem is the part of the thermometer that comes into contact with the patient's body, and it is important to clean this area first to remove any potential contaminants. Cleaning from stem to bulb ensures that any bacteria or germs are not transferred from the bulb to the stem during the cleaning process.Rate this question:
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- 41.
How long should the thermometer stay in the Client’s Axilla?
- A.
3 minutes
- B.
4 minutes
- C.
7 minutes
- D.
10 minutes
Correct Answer
C. 7 minutesExplanation
The thermometer should stay in the client's axilla for 7 minutes. This is the recommended time to ensure an accurate measurement of body temperature. The axilla, or armpit, is a common site for temperature measurement as it is easily accessible and provides a reliable reading. Waiting for 7 minutes allows the thermometer to accurately measure the client's body temperature and provide an appropriate assessment of their health.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which of the following statement is TRUE about pulse?
- A.
Young person have higher pulse than older persons
- B.
Males have higher pulse rate than females after puberty
- C.
Digitalis has a positive chronotropic effect
- D.
In lying position, Pulse rate is higher
Correct Answer
A. Young person have higher pulse than older personsExplanation
Young people generally have a higher pulse rate than older individuals. This is because the heart rate tends to decrease with age due to factors such as decreased metabolic rate and overall physical fitness. Additionally, the elasticity of the blood vessels decreases with age, resulting in a slower pulse rate.Rate this question:
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- 43.
The following are correct actions when taking radial pulse except:
- A.
Put the palms downward
- B.
Use the thumb to palpate the artery
- C.
Use two or three fingers to palpate the pulse at the inner wrist
- D.
Assess the pulse rate, rhythm, volume and bilateral quality
Correct Answer
B. Use the thumb to palpate the arteryExplanation
Using the thumb to palpate the artery is not a correct action when taking a radial pulse. The thumb has its own pulse and using it to palpate the artery can interfere with accurate assessment of the patient's pulse rate, rhythm, volume, and bilateral quality. It is recommended to use two or three fingers to palpate the pulse at the inner wrist, with the palms facing upward.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure is termed as
- A.
Apical rate
- B.
Cardiac rate
- C.
Pulse deficit
- D.
Pulse pressure
Correct Answer
D. Pulse pressureExplanation
Pulse pressure refers to the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure. It is calculated by subtracting the diastolic pressure from the systolic pressure. Pulse pressure is an important measure of cardiovascular health and can indicate the elasticity and efficiency of the arteries. A higher pulse pressure may suggest stiff arteries or increased risk of cardiovascular diseases, while a lower pulse pressure may indicate low cardiac output or heart failure.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which of the following completely describes PULSUS PARADOXICUS?
- A.
A greater-than-normal increase in systolic blood pressure with inspiration
- B.
A greater-than-normal decrease in systolic blood pressure with inspiration
- C.
Pulse is paradoxically low when client is in standing position and high when supine.
- D.
Pulse is paradoxically high when client is in standing position and low when supine.
Correct Answer
B. A greater-than-normal decrease in systolic blood pressure with inspirationExplanation
Pulsus paradoxus refers to a greater-than-normal decrease in systolic blood pressure with inspiration. This phenomenon is observed when there is an abnormal drop in blood pressure during inspiration due to increased pressure on the heart. It can be seen in conditions such as cardiac tamponade, severe asthma, and obstructive sleep apnea. This abnormality can be detected by measuring blood pressure during inspiration and expiration, with a significant decrease indicating pulsus paradoxus.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which of the following is TRUE about respiration?
- A.
I:E 2:1
- B.
I:E : 4:3
- C.
I:E 1:1
- D.
I:E 1:2
Correct Answer
D. I:E 1:2Explanation
The correct answer is I:E 1:2. This refers to the ratio of inspiration to expiration during respiration. In a 1:2 ratio, inspiration lasts for a shorter duration compared to expiration. This means that the time taken to inhale is half the time taken to exhale. This ratio is commonly seen in normal, relaxed breathing.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Contains the pneumotaxic and the apneutic centers
- A.
Medulla oblongata
- B.
Pons
- C.
Carotid bodies
- D.
Aortic bodies
Correct Answer
B. PonsExplanation
The correct answer is Pons. The Pons is a part of the brainstem that contains the pneumotaxic and the apneutic centers. These centers are responsible for controlling the rate and depth of breathing. The pneumotaxic center helps regulate the switch between inspiration and expiration, while the apneutic center helps regulate the duration of inspiration. Therefore, the Pons plays a crucial role in the control of respiration.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which of the following is responsible for deep and prolonged inspiration
- A.
Medulla oblongata
- B.
Pons
- C.
Carotid bodies
- D.
Aortic bodies
Correct Answer
B. PonsExplanation
The pons is responsible for deep and prolonged inspiration. Located in the brainstem, it plays a crucial role in regulating breathing. The pons contains the pneumotaxic center, which helps control the rate and depth of breathing. It works in coordination with the medulla oblongata to send signals to the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, enabling deep and prolonged inspiration. The carotid bodies and aortic bodies, on the other hand, are responsible for monitoring blood oxygen levels and do not directly control the process of inspiration.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which of the following is responsible for the rhythm and quality of breathing?
- A.
Medulla oblongata
- B.
Pons
- C.
Carotid bodies
- D.
Aortic bodies
Correct Answer
B. PonsExplanation
The pons is responsible for the rhythm and quality of breathing. It is a region in the brainstem that contains respiratory centers that regulate the rate and depth of breathing. The pons receives information from the medulla oblongata, carotid bodies, and aortic bodies, but it is the pons that ultimately controls the breathing process.Rate this question:
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- 50.
The primary respiratory center
- A.
Medulla oblongata
- B.
Pons
- C.
Carotid bodies
- D.
Aortic bodies
Correct Answer
A. Medulla oblongataExplanation
The medulla oblongata is the correct answer because it is the primary respiratory center in the brain. It controls the basic rhythm and rate of breathing by sending signals to the muscles involved in respiration. The medulla oblongata also regulates the levels of carbon dioxide and oxygen in the blood, ensuring that the body receives an adequate supply of oxygen and removes excess carbon dioxide.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Aug 18, 2010Quiz Created by
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