Trivia Quiz On Molecular Biology Exam!

49 Questions | Total Attempts: 145

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Trivia Quiz On Molecular Biology Exam!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning homologous recombination?
    • A. 

      It is a reciprocal event.

    • B. 

      It can be DNA- biomolecular.

    • C. 

      It can be intra DNA recombination.

    • D. 

      Only one cross over event can occur.

    • E. 

      It results in genetic variation.

  • 2. 
    Which of the following techniques was the key in demonstrating the presynaptic and synapsis steps of homologous recombination?
    • A. 

      Southern Blot

    • B. 

      Exonuclease digestion

    • C. 

      Electron microscopy

    • D. 

      S1 nuclease mapping

    • E. 

      DNA footprinting

  • 3. 
    Which of the following enzymes cannot catalyze the formation of a phosphodiester bond?
    • A. 

      Endonuclease

    • B. 

      Ligase

    • C. 

      None of the choices are correct

    • D. 

      DNA polymerase

    • E. 

      RNA polymerase

  • 4. 
    Which of the following repair mechanisms is a damage bypass mechanism, not an actual repair mechanism?
    • A. 

      DNA photolyase

    • B. 

      Mismatch repair

    • C. 

      Recombination repair

    • D. 

      Base excision repair

    • E. 

      Nonhomologous end joining

  • 5. 
    Experiments conducted by Frederick Griffiths laid the foundation for
    • A. 

      Elucidation of tRNA structure.

    • B. 

      The virulence of S. pnuemoniae.

    • C. 

      DNA as the genetic material.

    • D. 

      Elucidation of mRNA structure.

    • E. 

      Discovery of the capsule on S. pneumonia.

  • 6. 
    Which of the following is not part of the E. coli primosome?
    • A. 

      DnaB

    • B. 

      DnaA

    • C. 

      TerE

    • D. 

      DnaG

    • E. 

      OriC

  • 7. 
    Which of the following techniques is not used to quantify the level of gene expression?
    • A. 

      Northern blotting

    • B. 

      S1 mapping

    • C. 

      RNase protection

    • D. 

      Southern blotting

    • E. 

      Nuclear run-off

  • 8. 
    Rapid purification of proteins based on size can best be done by using 
    • A. 

      Gel filtration

    • B. 

      Cation-exchange chromotography

    • C. 

      Ion-exchange chromotography

    • D. 

      Native gel electrophoresis

    • E. 

      2-D gel electrophoresis

  • 9. 
    A primose can be defined as 
    • A. 

      A collection of RNA primers.

    • B. 

      An area of DNA near the replication fork waiting to be replicated.

    • C. 

      A collection of proteins needed for synthesis of primers for replicating DNA.

    • D. 

      The enzyme that synthesizes primers for M13 phage replication.

    • E. 

      A DNA molecule that is primed and ready for replication.

  • 10. 
    West and colleagues used gel mobility shift assays to demonstrate that    could bind to and resolve Holliday junctions
    • A. 

      RecA

    • B. 

      RecB

    • C. 

      RuvC

    • D. 

      RuvA

    • E. 

      RuvB

  • 11. 
    Rapid cooling of DNA following heating at high temperature will cause
    • A. 

      The strands to remain separated.

    • B. 

      The strands to break.

    • C. 

      The double helix to form rapidly.

    • D. 

      Mismatching between the strands.

    • E. 

      Rapid renaturation of the strands.

  • 12. 
    Which of the following has no reverse transcriptase gene associated  with it?
    • A. 

      Tn3

    • B. 

      L1

    • C. 

      Ty

    • D. 

      Copia

    • E. 

      HIV

  • 13. 
    Which of the following is likely yo contribute to a shift in the reading frame in an mRNA molecule?
    • A. 

      Removal of six bases

    • B. 

      Removal of triplet code

    • C. 

      Removal of a single base

    • D. 

      None of the choices below are correct

    • E. 

      Removal of nine bases

  • 14. 
    Thea early notion of one-gene/one enzyme was not true because of which of the following?
    • A. 

      An enzyme can be composed of more than one polypeptide, many genes contain the information for making polypeptides that are not enzymes and the end products of some genes are not polypeptides.

    • B. 

      The end products of some genes are not polypeptides

    • C. 

      An enzyme can be more than one polypeptide

    • D. 

      Many genes contain information for making polypeptides that are not enzymes

  • 15. 
    Select the component that is mmost critical to the function of a plasmid
    • A. 

      Ligase

    • B. 

      Origin of replication

    • C. 

      EcoRI site

    • D. 

      Ampicillian resistance

    • E. 

      Tetracycline resistance

  • 16. 
    One approach to prevent religation of the ends of a restricted plasmid DNA is to 
    • A. 

      Treat the plasmid with Bam HI to create gaps

    • B. 

      Treat the plasmid with alkaline phosphatase ti remove phosphate for the sticky ends

    • C. 

      Cut the plasmid with RNase

    • D. 

      Cleave the plasmid with DNase

  • 17. 
    A major function of reporter gene assays is to 
    • A. 

      Measure transcriptional levels

    • B. 

      Monitor CAT activity

    • C. 

      Measure replication

    • D. 

      Measure mutation rates of a gene

  • 18. 
    A new insulin gene was isolated and a study was planned to look at the function of the promoter region which is the BEST choice for this study
    • A. 

      Immunoblotting

    • B. 

      PCR

    • C. 

      Report gene assay

    • D. 

      All best

  • 19. 
    Which of the following would probably would not be a characteristic of the Tn3 transposon?
    • A. 

      OriT site

    • B. 

      Resolvase gene

    • C. 

      Inverted repeat sequences

    • D. 

      Transposase gene

  • 20. 
    Which of the following is true about wild type organisms?
    • A. 

      They are always found in the wild

    • B. 

      They carry no recessive genes

    • C. 

      They are referred to as standard types

    • D. 

      None of the choices are correct

  • 21. 
    Which of the statements is not true concerning DNA replication in prokaryotes?
    • A. 

      There is one active origin of replication

    • B. 

      DNA replication is RNA dependent

    • C. 

      DNA replication is semiconservative

    • D. 

      DNA replication requires only one enzyme

  • 22. 
    The ability of two polynucleotide strands to hybridize is based on which of the following principles?
    • A. 

      Presence of 3' and 5' ends

    • B. 

      Complementary base pairing

    • C. 

      Double helical nature of DNA

    • D. 

      Presence of covalent bonds

  • 23. 
    Disadvantage of using a prokaryotic expression system for eukaryotic proteins ts that the proteins are 
    • A. 

      Improperly folded

    • B. 

      Over expressed

    • C. 

      Highly soluble

    • D. 

      Heavily glycosylated

  • 24. 
    Construction of an expression vector, which of the following would you include in order to stimulate a high level of RNA synthesis 
    • A. 

      His region

    • B. 

      GFP

    • C. 

      Amp gene

    • D. 

      T7 phage promoter

    • E. 

      Origin of replication

  • 25. 
    The messenger hypothesis states that 
    • A. 

      New ribosome are made to transmit new genetic information

    • B. 

      Messenger RNAs carry genetic information to ribosomes

    • C. 

      Ribosomal RNAs carry information for making proteins

    • D. 

      None of the choices are correct

  • 26. 
    Which of the following is not necessary for retroviral insertion into the host genome?
    • A. 

      Reverse transciptase

    • B. 

      RNA polymerase II

    • C. 

      RNase H

    • D. 

      Viral protease

  • 27. 
    The following would be the substance of choice to destroy the DNA in a solution
    • A. 

      Deoxyribonuclease

    • B. 

      Trypson

    • C. 

      Ribonuclease

    • D. 

      None of the choices are correct

  • 28. 
    Construction a cDNA library which of the following would you use to generate rare restriction sites on the cDNA strands?
    • A. 

      Ligating cDNA to specific linkers

    • B. 

      Restriction enzymes

    • C. 

      PCR with multiple cycles

    • D. 

      All likely

  • 29. 
    Which of the following is not used in a Sanger chain termination reaction?
    • A. 

      DdATP

    • B. 

      DdUTP

    • C. 

      DdCTP

    • D. 

      DdDP

    • E. 

      DdGTP

  • 30. 
    Which of the following subunits of DNA polymerase III holoenzyme is referred to as the sliding clamp?
    • A. 

      Theta

    • B. 

      Sigma

    • C. 

      Delta

    • D. 

      Alpha

    • E. 

      Beta

  • 31. 
    Which of the following techniques should be used to confirm suspicion of novel histone protein
    • A. 

      EMSA

    • B. 

      Filter binding

    • C. 

      Gel mobility shift assay

    • D. 

      All the choices are correct

    • E. 

      DNase footprinting

  • 32. 
    Which is not true of genetic mapping
    • A. 

      Mapping is used to determine the composition of a gene

    • B. 

      Recombination occurs between chromosomes

    • C. 

      Mapping is used to establish the location of genes relative to each other

    • D. 

      Genes are arranged in a linear order on chromosomes

  • 33. 
    Drosophila conclusion is based on what observations
    • A. 

      The gene for eye color is located on the X chromosome

    • B. 

      The gene for eye color is located on an autosome

    • C. 

      Choices of the gene for eye color is located on the X chromosome and the eye color phonotype is sex linked are both correct

    • D. 

      Eye color phonotype is sex linked

  • 34. 
    Which not true concerning immunoglobulin
    • A. 

      There is a conserved heptamer

    • B. 

      There is a conserved nonamer

    • C. 

      Recombination only occurs between two heptamers

    • D. 

      Recombination occurs between a 12 bp signal and a 23 bp signal

  • 35. 
    Which of the followin vectors is the best choice for the expression of eukaryotic proteins
    • A. 

      PUC19

    • B. 

      PUC118

    • C. 

      Baculovirus

    • D. 

      Phagemid

    • E. 

      M13

  • 36. 
    Put following steps of E. coli primosome assembly in order1Primase binds 2DnaA binds to oriC at dnaA boxes3DnaB binds to the open complex4DnaA, RNA polymerase and HU protein melt the DNA
    • A. 

      2431

    • B. 

      2413

    • C. 

      3412

    • D. 

      4123

    • E. 

      4213

  • 37. 
    • A. 

      To remove large segments of DNA sequence

    • B. 

      To make changes to specific bases in DNA

    • C. 

      Both to induce site specific recombination and to make changes to specific bases in DNA

    • D. 

      To insert fragments of more that 100 pairs into a specific DNA site

  • 38. 
    During SDS PAGE, which of the following does not directly affect the migration of the polypeptides through the gel
    • A. 

      The size of the polypeptide

    • B. 

      The native charge on the polypeptides

    • C. 

      The SDS

    • D. 

      The strength of the electric field

    • E. 

      Molecular mass of the protein

  • 39. 
    A bacterial sample was contaminated with an unkown preparation of vector DNA. to identify the vector, the bacteria was streaked and incubated. what could be a conclusion to finding 120 clear plaques?
    • A. 

      The vector is a cosmid

    • B. 

      The vector is pUC18

    • C. 

      The vector could be a plasmid

    • D. 

      The vector is a Ti

    • E. 

      The vector could be a phage

  • 40. 
    Somebody is able to select recombinant colonies from a bacterial culture plate based on the color of the colonies. which is correct?
    • A. 

      Colonies that contain recombinant plasmids are blue due to the disruption of the lacZ gene by the insert

    • B. 

      Colonies that contain recombinant plasmids are red

    • C. 

      Colonies that contain recombinants are clear due to the disruption of the lacZ gene by the insert.

    • D. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 41. 
    Which of the following agents causes DNA damage by forming pyrimidine dimmers?
    • A. 

      X-Rays

    • B. 

      Gamma radiation

    • C. 

      Ethidium bromide

    • D. 

      UV radiation

    • E. 

      Alkylating agents

  • 42. 
    The analytic tools used to show that DNA was the transforming substance include all of the following except
    • A. 

      Heat activation

    • B. 

      Electrophoresis

    • C. 

      Chemical analysis

    • D. 

      Ultracentrifuge

    • E. 

      UV absorption spectrophotometry

  • 43. 
    A new mutant cell line was accidentally created in the lab. mutant was found to be deficient in the enzyme aminacyl-tRNA synthetase. which would most likely be observed in this cell line 
    • A. 

      TRNA molecules would contain no anticodons

    • B. 

      Protein synthesis would increase

    • C. 

      Most tRNA molecules would not be able to attach to amino acids

    • D. 

      Non of the choices are correct

  • 44. 
    Which statements that messenger RNA carries the genetic information 35S was used instead of 32P. What is one possible outcome of this experiment?
    • A. 

      The DNA of the host bacteria would be labeled

    • B. 

      The ribosomal RNA would be labeled

    • C. 

      No label would be found in the RNA

    • D. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 45. 
    An experiment was conducted to dtermine the base content of DNA. Results are shown in the table below. Determine which sample of DNA is the most stable
    • A. 

      DNA5

    • B. 

      DNA3

    • C. 

      DNA2

    • D. 

      DNA4

    • E. 

      DNA1

  • 46. 
    In E. coli Rec BCD pathway, in order for homologous recombination to occur, which of the following proteins coats the single stranded DNA tail produced by exonuclease activity?
    • A. 

      RecC

    • B. 

      RecB

    • C. 

      RecD

    • D. 

      RecA

    • E. 

      RuvB

  • 47. 
    The chromosomal theory of inheritance holds that 
    • A. 

      Genes are arranged in a linear order on chromosomes

    • B. 

      Chromosomes condense during mitosis

    • C. 

      Chromosomes contain histone proteins

    • D. 

      Chromosomes vary in size

    • E. 

      Number of chromosomes varies in individuals

  • 48. 
    Molecular modeling of RuvA and a Holliday junction showed that they form a     that favors rapid branch migration
    • A. 

      Clover leaf conformation

    • B. 

      Square planar conformation

    • C. 

      Supercoiled conformation

    • D. 

      D loop conformation

    • E. 

      Y- shape conformation

  • 49. 
    One mechanism by which gene conversion can occur in N. crassa during meiosis is
    • A. 

      Mismatch repair

    • B. 

      SOS repair

    • C. 

      Excision repair

    • D. 

      RecBCD

    • E. 

      Double stranded break synthesis