Final Exam #15

85 Questions

Settings
Please wait...
Bacteria Quizzes & Trivia

.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Another name for nonpathogenic bacteria is:
    • A. 

      Parasite

    • B. 

      Bacilli

    • C. 

      Saprophyte

    • D. 

      Spirilla

  • 2. 
    The group of bacteria most likely to result in pus formation are 
    • A. 

      Cocci

    • B. 

      Fungi

    • C. 

      Spirilla

    • D. 

      Bacilli

  • 3. 
    The bacteria LEAST likely to move by themselves are:
    • A. 

      Spirilla

    • B. 

      Cocci

    • C. 

      Bacilli

    • D. 

      Flagella

  • 4. 
    When bacteria is in an inactive stage, it is called a:
    • A. 

      Protoplasm

    • B. 

      Spore

    • C. 

      Waste product

    • D. 

      Parasite

  • 5. 
    Pediculosis is considered a:
    • A. 

      Generalized infection

    • B. 

      Viral infection

    • C. 

      Bacterial infection

    • D. 

      Localized infection

  • 6. 
    Immunity that is partly inherited and partly developed by a healthy lifestyle is:
    • A. 

      Acquired immunity

    • B. 

      Communicable immunity

    • C. 

      Natural immunity

    • D. 

      Human immunity

  • 7. 
    Scabies is caused by :
    • A. 

      A vegetable parasite

    • B. 

      A bacteria

    • C. 

      An animal parasite

    • D. 

      A fungus

  • 8. 
    HIV can be transmitted by:
    • A. 

      Casual contact with an infected person

    • B. 

      Use of un sanitized implements in a salon

    • C. 

      Sneezing and coughing by an infected person

    • D. 

      Kissing an infected person

  • 9. 
    The lowest level of decontamination is:
    • A. 

      Sterilization

    • B. 

      Disinfection

    • C. 

      Sanitization

    • D. 

      Pathogenesis

  • 10. 
    The only way to kill bacterial spores is to:
    • A. 

      Sanitize

    • B. 

      Sterilize

    • C. 

      Disinfect

    • D. 

      Pulverize

  • 11. 
    Antiseptics are used on the skin to :
    • A. 

      Disinfect it

    • B. 

      Wash it

    • C. 

      Sanitize it

    • D. 

      Remove spores

  • 12. 
    A substance that can damage the skin is:
    • A. 

      Alcohol

    • B. 

      Lysol

    • C. 

      Allum

    • D. 

      Hydrogen peroxide

  • 13. 
    Salon implements that have come in contact with blood or body fluids should be disinfected with :
    • A. 

      Sanitizers

    • B. 

      Soap and water

    • C. 

      Hospital level disinfectants

    • D. 

      Hospital level/tuberculocidal disinfectants

  • 14. 
    The disinfectant in your wet sanitizer should be changed :
    • A. 

      Twice a day

    • B. 

      Every week

    • C. 

      Between clients

    • D. 

      Daily or according to the manufacturer

  • 15. 
    A disinfectant that should never be used on professional tools is:
    • A. 

      Quats

    • B. 

      Alcohol

    • C. 

      Pine-Sol

    • D. 

      Bleach

  • 16. 
    Isopropyl alcohol is ineffective if its strength is below
    • A. 

      70%

    • B. 

      99%

    • C. 

      50%

    • D. 

      75%

  • 17. 
    There is no sense of feeling in hair because it lacks
    • A. 

      Blood

    • B. 

      Oil

    • C. 

      Nerves

    • D. 

      Lymph

  • 18. 
    Growth and regeneration of the hair is primarily dependent on a healthy 
    • A. 

      Follicle

    • B. 

      Hair shaft

    • C. 

      Papilla

    • D. 

      Hair bulb

  • 19. 
    Straight hair usually has this shape :
    • A. 

      Oval

    • B. 

      Flat

    • C. 

      Square

    • D. 

      Round

  • 20. 
    Heat causes the hair to
    • A. 

      Expand

    • B. 

      Contract

    • C. 

      Straighten

    • D. 

      Dry out

  • 21. 
    It is normal to loose this number of hair strands daily :
    • A. 

      50-75

    • B. 

      25-50

    • C. 

      35-40

    • D. 

      150-175

  • 22. 
    The absence of melanin in the cortical layer of a hair strand results in
    • A. 

      Blonde hair

    • B. 

      Lanugo

    • C. 

      Gray hair

    • D. 

      Thin hair

  • 23. 
    The hair type which contains only the cuticle and the cortex is 
    • A. 

      Coarse hair

    • B. 

      Medium hair

    • C. 

      Porous hair

    • D. 

      Fine hair

  • 24. 
    A person with abnormal hair growth in areas that are not usually hairy has 
    • A. 

      Trichoptilosis

    • B. 

      Hirsuties

    • C. 

      Canities

    • D. 

      Fragilitas crinium

  • 25. 
    In scalp massage, a relaxing movement involves 
    • A. 

      Pushing on the forehead

    • B. 

      Gently rotating the head

    • C. 

      Massaging around the hairline

    • D. 

      Massaging from right ear to left ear

  • 26. 
    Scalp condition that is NOT contagious is
    • A. 

      Pityriasis

    • B. 

      Pediculosis

    • C. 

      Tinea favosa

    • D. 

      Alopecia

  • 27. 
    An example of an animal parasitic scalp infection is 
    • A. 

      Tinea capitis

    • B. 

      Scabies

    • C. 

      Boils

    • D. 

      Alopecia

  • 28. 
    The proper draping when preparing to do a haircut is 
    • A. 

      Remove towel & apply neck strip

    • B. 

      Apply neck strip over towel

    • C. 

      Fold towel over cape

    • D. 

      Apply towel over neck strip

  • 29. 
    The color of tinted or lightened hair can be affected by
    • A. 

      Acid-balanced shampoos

    • B. 

      Medicated shampoos

    • C. 

      Natural shampoos

    • D. 

      Conditioning shampoos

  • 30. 
    A way to prevent fading of a tint or toner on hair is to use a/an
    • A. 

      Color rinse

    • B. 

      Acid-balanced rinse

    • C. 

      Medicated rinse

    • D. 

      Conditioning rinse

  • 31. 
    When handling hair cutting scissors, the ring finger is inserted into the 
    • A. 

      Ring of the still blade

    • B. 

      Pivot of the scissors

    • C. 

      Ring of the moveable blade

    • D. 

      Thumb grip

  • 32. 
    Fine hair should be thinned how far from the scalp?
    • A. 

      1 to 1.1/2 inches

    • B. 

      1.1/2 to 2 inches

    • C. 

      1/2 to 1 inch

    • D. 

      2.1/2 to 3 inches

  • 33. 
    It is advisable to thin hair in which of the following areas:
    • A. 

      Nape of the neck

    • B. 

      In the hair part

    • C. 

      Above the ears

    • D. 

      Center of hair shaft

  • 34. 
    When using regular hair cutting scissors to thin hair, the process is known as:
    • A. 

      Tapering

    • B. 

      Layering

    • C. 

      Effilating

    • D. 

      Shingling

  • 35. 
    Cutting hair straight without slithering is called:
    • A. 

      Tapering

    • B. 

      Effilating

    • C. 

      Blunt cutting

    • D. 

      Shingling

  • 36. 
    The immovable part of a pin curl is called the 
    • A. 

      Stem

    • B. 

      Base

    • C. 

      Circle

    • D. 

      Center

  • 37. 
    The curl with the weakest wave pattern and the greatest mobility is the 
    • A. 

      No-stem curl

    • B. 

      Open center curl

    • C. 

      Half stem curl

    • D. 

      Full-stem curl

  • 38. 
    Triangular base pin curls are recommended for the 
    • A. 

      Sides of the head

    • B. 

      Back of the head

    • C. 

      Facial hairline and front

    • D. 

      Nape of the neck

  • 39. 
    Skip waves are not suitable for which types of hair?
    • A. 

      Coarse, thick hair

    • B. 

      Medium-textured hair

    • C. 

      Straight, coarse hair

    • D. 

      Curly or fine hair

  • 40. 
    If there is not enough room to place a roller, what kind of curl should you make ? 
    • A. 

      Barrel curl

    • B. 

      Pin curl

    • C. 

      Stand-up curl

    • D. 

      Off-base curl

  • 41. 
    The purpose of back combing and back brushing is to 
    • A. 

      Stimulate the scalp

    • B. 

      Detangle the hair

    • C. 

      Add lift by forming a cushion

    • D. 

      Add curl and wave

  • 42. 
    If a person has a round face, you should create a hairstyle that
    • A. 

      Is flat

    • B. 

      Is away from the face

    • C. 

      Has height

    • D. 

      Is symmetrical

  • 43. 
    A person with a diamond-shaped face would have 
    • A. 

      A wide forehead

    • B. 

      A large chin

    • C. 

      Wide cheekbones

    • D. 

      Narrow cheekbones

  • 44. 
    In designing any hairstyle for any shape of face, you want to create the illusion of 
    • A. 

      A square

    • B. 

      A circle

    • C. 

      A diamond

    • D. 

      An oval

  • 45. 
    Hair that has been lightened or tinted should be curled with
    • A. 

      A lukewarm iron

    • B. 

      A cold iron

    • C. 

       a hot iron 

    • D. 

      Temperature doesn't matter

  • 46. 
    What type of comb should NOT be used in thermal curling?
    • A. 

      Rubber

    • B. 

      Celluloid or metal 

    • C. 

      Nonflammable

    • D. 

      Plastic

  • 47. 
    It is not a good idea to use thermal irons on 
    • A. 

      Lightened hair

    • B. 

      Chemically straightened hair

    • C. 

      Tinted hair

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 48. 
    When blow drying chemically treated hair, it is best to do what first ?
    • A. 

      Wash it

    • B. 

      Condition it

    • C. 

      Towel dry it

    • D. 

      B and c (condition it and towel dry it)

  • 49. 
    The pH of acid balanced perms generally falls into which range?
    • A. 

      8.2-9.6

    • B. 

      2.5-7.0

    • C. 

      4.5-6.5

    • D. 

      9.6-11.0

  • 50. 
    To reduce the processing time for acid-balanced perms, use
    • A. 

      Conditioner

    • B. 

      Cool air

    • C. 

      Heat

    • D. 

      More lotion

  • 51. 
    For resistant hair, you should use which type of waving lotion?
    • A. 

      Acid-balanced

    • B. 

      Neutral

    • C. 

      Conditioning

    • D. 

      Alkaline

  • 52. 
    A person can have healthy hair that does NOT contain the following structure 
    • A. 

      Medulla

    • B. 

      Cortex

    • C. 

      Keratin

    • D. 

      Cuticle

  • 53. 
    The bonds that are broken during the perming process are called 
    • A. 

      Hydrogen bonds

    • B. 

      Disulfide bonds

    • C. 

      Sulfur bonds

    • D. 

      Keratin bonds

  • 54. 
    The following are signs of porous hair EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Tangles easily

    • B. 

      Very oily

    • C. 

      Tinted or bleached

    • D. 

      Fine, thin

  • 55. 
    If hair is overly porous at the ends but has normal porosity near the scalp, what should you apply before perming it to even out the porosity ?
    • A. 

      Conditioner

    • B. 

      Pre-wrap lotion

    • C. 

      Gel

    • D. 

      Neutralizer

  • 56. 
    Weak curl can be the result of all of the following EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Waving lotion left in hair after rinsing

    • B. 

      Too much hair on the perm rod

    • C. 

      Tightly wrapped hair

    • D. 

      Hair kept moist while wrapping

  • 57. 
    The dropped crown method of wrapping perm rods is best for people with 
    • A. 

      Short hair

    • B. 

      Large heads

    • C. 

      Long hair

    • D. 

      Fine hair

  • 58. 
    Improper rinsing of waving lotion from hair can result in
    • A. 

      Over processed curl

    • B. 

      Lightening of the hair

    • C. 

      Darkening of the hair

    • D. 

      Pleasant odor

  • 59. 
    How long should your client wait to shampoo her hair after a perm?
    • A. 

      24 hours

    • B. 

      2 hours

    • C. 

      1 week

    • D. 

      48 hours

  • 60. 
    A feature of body waves that is different from perm is
    • A. 

      Large rods are used

    • B. 

      Stronger curl results

    • C. 

      Concave rods are used

    • D. 

      Processing time is reduced

  • 61. 
    Of the following choices, the hair that will have the MOST resistance to perming is 
    • A. 

      Tinted hair

    • B. 

      Hair treated with semipermanent color

    • C. 

      Relaxed hair

    • D. 

      Porous hair

  • 62. 
    The following hair MUST NEVER be permed:
    • A. 

      Tinted hair

    • B. 

      Naturally curly hair

    • C. 

      Hair treated with semipermanent color

    • D. 

      Hair treated with metallic salt dyes

  • 63. 
    Decolorizing the natural or artificial pigment only in selected areas is called 
    • A. 

      Bleaching

    • B. 

      Tinting

    • C. 

      Highlighting

    • D. 

      Touch-up

  • 64. 
    When mixing a primary color with another primary color, you will create a 
    • A. 

      Tertiary color

    • B. 

      Darker color

    • C. 

      Secondary color

    • D. 

      A third primary color

  • 65. 
    One of the disadvantages of temporary hair color is that it
    • A. 

      Can remove yellow from graying hair

    • B. 

      Cannot lift color

    • C. 

      Lasts only 4 to 6 shampoos

    • D. 

      Adds tone to faded hair

  • 66. 
    An example of a temporary color is 
    • A. 

      Mascara

    • B. 

      Henna

    • C. 

      Aniline derivative tint

    • D. 

      Toner

  • 67. 
    Deposit-only color is also known as:
    • A. 

      Temporary color

    • B. 

      Permanent color

    • C. 

      Semi-permanent color

    • D. 

      In-between semi-permanent & permanent color

  • 68. 
    Choosing a semi-permanent color that is the same as the client's natural hair color will produce :
    • A. 

      No change in color

    • B. 

      A darker color

    • C. 

      A lighter color

    • D. 

      A warmer color

  • 69. 
    A patch test is required when using semi-permanent colors if they contain:
    • A. 

      Conditioners

    • B. 

      Oxidizers

    • C. 

      Aniline-derivatives

    • D. 

      Activators

  • 70. 
    Deposit-only hair colors usually require use of
    • A. 

      A conditioner

    • B. 

      A neutralizer

    • C. 

      A developer

    • D. 

      A lightener

  • 71. 
    Bleaching followed by toner application is considered 
    • A. 

      Double process coloring

    • B. 

      Single-process coloring

    • C. 

      Semi-permanent coloring

    • D. 

      Peroxide coloring

  • 72. 
    A coloring product containing 40 volume hydrogen peroxide is more likely to 
    • A. 

      Allow more deposit than lift

    • B. 

      Produce a lighter color

    • C. 

      Be less damaging to the hair

    • D. 

      Reduce breakdown of melanin

  • 73. 
    The lightener that has the LEAST amount of lightening action is
    • A. 

      A cream lightener

    • B. 

      An oil bleach

    • C. 

      A drabber

    • D. 

      Powder bleach

  • 74. 
    The lightener that must NEVER have contact with the scalp is 
    • A. 

      Powder bleach

    • B. 

      Cream lightener

    • C. 

      Oil bleach

    • D. 

      Aniline derivative tint

  • 75. 
    You perform a strand test on a client who wants her hair lightened. It shows that the hair is not light enough. You should 
    • A. 

      Decrease the strength of the mixture

    • B. 

      Decrease processing time

    • C. 

      Recondition and repeat test

    • D. 

      Increase strength &/or processing time

  • 76. 
    The best form of lightener to use for a retouch is
    • A. 

      Powder

    • B. 

      Cream bleach

    • C. 

      Oil

    • D. 

      Toner

  • 77. 
    Toners always require 
    • A. 

      A patch test

    • B. 

      A double-process application

    • C. 

      A patch test and a double-process application (a and b)

    • D. 

      Neither a nor b

  • 78. 
    All of the following are methods of highlighting EXCEPT 
    • A. 

      The cap technique

    • B. 

      The foil technique

    • C. 

      The strand technique

    • D. 

      The freehand technique

  • 79. 
    An oxidative tint that has a high ability to lift color will 
    • A. 

      Have more deposit ability

    • B. 

      Have less deposit ability

    • C. 

      Use low-volume developer

    • D. 

      Result in cooler tones

  • 80. 
    When using oxidative tint, you should perform the following test(s):
    • A. 

      Patch test

    • B. 

      Strand test

    • C. 

      Skin test

    • D. 

      Path test and strand test (a & b)

  • 81. 
    When tinting the hair, first apply tint to the area that is:
    • A. 

      Most resistant (strongest)

    • B. 

      Least resistant

    • C. 

      Closest to the scalp

    • D. 

      At the ends of the hair shaft

  • 82. 
    Highlighting shampoos usually contain 
    • A. 

      Ammonium

    • B. 

      Hydrogen peroxide

    • C. 

      Certified colors

    • D. 

      Henna

  • 83. 
    Double-process tints are used when the client desires 
    • A. 

      Only a slight color change

    • B. 

      A much lighter color

    • C. 

      A darker color

    • D. 

      A warm color

  • 84. 
    Prior to tinting resistant gray hair, it should be 
    • A. 

      Conditioned

    • B. 

      Pre softened

    • C. 

      Relaxed

    • D. 

      Permed

  • 85. 
    When you anchor a pin curl, it is very important not to disturb the:
    • A. 

      Stem

    • B. 

      Circle

    • C. 

      Base

    • D. 

      Open end