Test Your Knowledge About Antibiotic Drugs! Pharmacology Quiz

66 Questions | Total Attempts: 533

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Test Your Knowledge About Antibiotic Drugs! Pharmacology Quiz

Test your knowledge about antibiotic drugs by taking this pharmacology quiz, which entails all the topics we have covered so far through the quiz below. The test is set up to see if you can explain which drugs are prescribed in a given situation, and the correct amounts a patient should take. Give it a try and keep revising for the exams.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which types of antibiotics work by interfering with the bacterial cell wall synthesis?
    • A. 

      Penicillins and cephalosporins

    • B. 

      PCNs, cephalosporins, clindamycin

    • C. 

      PCNs and clindamycin

    • D. 

      Cephalosporins and clindamycin

  • 2. 
    Which types of antibiotics work by inhibiting bacterial ribosomal protein synthesis?
    • A. 

      Tetracyclines, clindamycin

    • B. 

      Macrolides, cephalosporins, clindamycin

    • C. 

      Clindamycin, macrolides, tetracyclines

    • D. 

      Fluorquinolones, macrolides

  • 3. 
    Which types of antibiotics work by inhibiting the replication of bacteria by interfering with two enzymes?
    • A. 

      Fluroquinolones

    • B. 

      Nitrofurantoin

    • C. 

      Clindamycin, fluroquinolones

    • D. 

      Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim

  • 4. 
    If someone had an anaphylactic reaction to amoxicillin/clavulanate, which antibiotic is safe to take?
    • A. 

      Cefibuten

    • B. 

      PCN V

    • C. 

      Cefaclor

    • D. 

      Clarithromycin

  • 5. 
    Which drug is least likely to interfere with an antifungal?
    • A. 

      Erythromycin

    • B. 

      Clarithromycin

    • C. 

      Azithromycin

  • 6. 
    Which drug will not have a chelation interaction?
    • A. 

      Demeclocycline

    • B. 

      Levofloxacin

    • C. 

      Ciprofloxacin

    • D. 

      Clindamycin

  • 7. 
    How do you avoid chelation interactions?
    • A. 

      Take antibiotic 1 hour before milk, antacids, multivitamins, etc.

    • B. 

      Take antibiotic before breakfast.

    • C. 

      Separate drug from milk, antacids, multivitamins, etc by at least 2 hours.

    • D. 

      Take antibiotic with something acidic, like orange juice.

  • 8. 
    What patient instructions would you give when prescribing minocycline?
    • A. 

      Wear sunscreen daily and avoid prolonged sun exposure.

    • B. 

      Adequate hydration will reduce the risk of nephrotoxicity.

    • C. 

      Take in the evening before bed.

  • 9. 
    Sulfonamides are contraindicated in newborns because it displaces bilirubin from protein binding sites.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 10. 
    Select the true statement regarding the use of quinolones in children.
    • A. 

      Quinolones are contraindicated in pregnancy, breast-feeding, and children.

    • B. 

      Ciprofloxacin can be used in children over 1 year of age for anthrax.

    • C. 

      The American Academy of Pediatrics restricts off label use of quinolones in children to second-line treatment.

    • D. 

      All of the above are true.

  • 11. 
    Macrolides carry the possibility of tendon rupture, especially with long-term use.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 12. 
    Which drug can you use for pseudomembranous colitis?
    • A. 

      Ciprofloxacin

    • B. 

      Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim

    • C. 

      Metronidazole

    • D. 

      Clindmycin

  • 13. 
    What should you tell a patient when you prescribe metronidazole?
    • A. 

      All alcohol should be avoided during therapy and 24 hours after the last dose.

    • B. 

      All alcohol should be avoided during therapy and 48 hours after the last dose.

    • C. 

      All alcohol should be avoided during therapy and 72 hours after the last dose.

  • 14. 
    Which drugs have cytochrome p450 interactions? (select all)
    • A. 

      Ketoconazole

    • B. 

      Metronidazole

    • C. 

      Itraconazole

    • D. 

      Ofloxacin

    • E. 

      Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim

    • F. 

      Doxycycline

    • G. 

      Clindamycin

    • H. 

      Clarithromycin

    • I. 

      Oxacillin

    • J. 

      Ceftriaxone

  • 15. 
    Which antifungal has a black box warning so AST/ALT have to be periodically monitored?
    • A. 

      Fluconazole

    • B. 

      Griseofulvin

    • C. 

      Itraconazole

    • D. 

      Ketoconazole

  • 16. 
    What will you use to treat a tinea infection of the scalp?
    • A. 

      Griseofulvin

    • B. 

      Ketoconazole

    • C. 

      Terbinafine

    • D. 

      Miconazole

  • 17. 
    What is commonly used and available as a suppository or cream intravaginally for yeast infections?
    • A. 

      Miconazole

    • B. 

      Butoconazole

    • C. 

      Nystatin

  • 18. 
    Which drug can be used prophylactically to treat outbreaks of Influenza A?
    • A. 

      Acyclovir

    • B. 

      Zidovudine

    • C. 

      Valacyclovir

    • D. 

      Oseltamivir

  • 19. 
    Which drug could be used for suppresive therapy for genital herpes?
    • A. 

      Zanamivir

    • B. 

      Amantidine

    • C. 

      Famciclovir

    • D. 

      Zidovudine

  • 20. 
    Choose the correct statements about HIV antivirals. (select multiple if applicable)
    • A. 

      Zidovudine therapy can be used during delivery to reduce exposure to the baby.

    • B. 

      Antiviral therapy after a needle stick is 80% effective if started within 4 hours.

    • C. 

      The infant will receive zidovudine therapy for the first 6 weeks if born to an HIV/AIDS positive mother.

    • D. 

      Two reverse transcriptase inhibitors are required for post-exposure prophylaxis after a needle stick.

  • 21. 
    Which drug would you choose to treat a gonorrhea infection?
    • A. 

      Levofloxacin

    • B. 

      Ceftriaxone

    • C. 

      Erythromycin

    • D. 

      Benzathine PCN G IM

  • 22. 
    Which drug would you choose to treat a sexually transmitted chlamydia infection?
    • A. 

      Ceftriaxone

    • B. 

      Benzathine PCN G IM

    • C. 

      Azithromycin

    • D. 

      Erythromycin

  • 23. 
    Common pathogens in community-acquired pneumonia and lower respiratory tract infections? (choose the correct pathogens or all of the above)
    • A. 

      Streptococcus pneumoniae

    • B. 

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae

    • C. 

      Haemophilus influenzae

    • D. 

      Moraxella catarrhalis

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 24. 
    Common pathogens in pelvic inflammatory disease?
    • A. 

      Anaerobes, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, gram-neg rods

    • B. 

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Trichomonas vaginalis, Chlamydia trachomatis

    • C. 

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Trichomonas vaginalis, Chlamydia trachomatis, anaerobes

  • 25. 
    First-line treatment for acute bronchitis is amoxicillin.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False