Eoc1 Aircraft
.
- 1.
What estimated percent of accidents are caused by nature?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
Correct Answer
A. 2 -
- 2.
In the operational risk management process, the responsibility for identifying and controlling hazards rest with?
- A.
Trainers
- B.
Everyone
- C.
Supervisors
- D.
Commanders
Correct Answer
B. Everyone -
- 3.
Which safety-training phase is an effective tool that cretes a lasting impression for new airman?
- A.
Initial
- B.
General
- C.
Supervisor's
- D.
Sustained job safety
Correct Answer
A. Initial -
- 4.
Responisbility for initiating a lost tool report rests with the
- A.
Expediter or production supervisor
- B.
Flight chief or flight commander
- C.
Person that was issued the tool
- D.
CTK support section
Correct Answer
C. Person that was issued the tool -
- 5.
The lowest person authorized to clear a red X when a lost tool cannot be located is
- A.
The crew chief
- B.
The aircraft engineer
- C.
The wing commander
- D.
An individual assigned to maintenance supervision
Correct Answer
D. An individual assigned to maintenance supervision -
- 6.
The pressure in a fire extinquisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the
- A.
Red markings
- B.
Black markings
- C.
Green markings
- D.
Orange markings
Correct Answer
C. Green markings -
- 7.
Minimum requirements for positioning of fire extinguishers is listed in
- A.
TO 00-5-1
- B.
TO 00-25-172
- C.
AFHOSHTD 91 series
- D.
AFOSHSTD 127 series
Correct Answer
B. TO 00-25-172 -
- 8.
Wearing dog tags, wristwatches, or other jewelry is expressly forbidden
- A.
During fuel servicing operations
- B.
During inspection of engine inlets
- C.
When you're servicing high pressure air
- D.
When you're working on electrical equipment
Correct Answer
D. When you're working on electrical equipment -
- 9.
Fall protection is required when it becomes necessary to perform required tasks where a worker can fall
- A.
5 feet or more
- B.
10 feet or more
- C.
20 feet or more
- D.
25 feet or more
Correct Answer
B. 10 feet or more -
- 10.
Radiation hazards are affected by
- A.
Strength of emissions, time of exposure, and weather
- B.
Strength of emissions, time of day and the input power
- C.
Input power, weather ad number of personnel in the area
- D.
Time of exposure, amount of trainings and number of operating units
Correct Answer
A. Strength of emissions, time of exposure, and weather -
- 11.
The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location, then
- A.
Spray with cold water
- B.
Cool with forced air from a blower
- C.
Cool with high pressure compressed air
- D.
Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air
Correct Answer
D. Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air -
- 12.
Normally, the safe distance behind an operating jet engine exhaust is
- A.
125 feet
- B.
150 feet
- C.
175 feet
- D.
200 feet
Correct Answer
D. 200 feet -
- 13.
How is a maintenance stand secured when placed near an operating propeller
- A.
Remove stand tow bar
- B.
Place sand bags on top of stand
- C.
Use chains to secure handrails to stand
- D.
Wrap chains around each wheel individually
Correct Answer
D. Wrap chains around each wheel individually -
- 14.
Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue
- A.
Dizziness
- B.
Emotional irribility
- C.
A feeling of emptiness
- D.
Impairment of mental concentration
Correct Answer
C. A feeling of emptiness -
- 15.
Any fuel spill not over 50 square feet and not continuous is classfied as a
- A.
Class I
- B.
Class II
- C.
Class III
- D.
Class IV
Correct Answer
B. Class II -
- 16.
Individuals who are not directly involved in a nitrogen servicing operation should be outside a
- A.
15 foot radius
- B.
20 foot radius
- C.
25 foot radius
- D.
50 foot radius
Correct Answer
B. 20 foot radius -
- 17.
To ensure equipment is ready and available at the time of need, the Air Force uses
- A.
Preventive maintenance
- B.
Corrective maintenance
- C.
Protective maintenance
- D.
Unscheduled maintenance
Correct Answer
A. Preventive maintenance -
- 18.
Responsibility for establishing a climate that promotes maintenance discipline rest with
- A.
First sergeant
- B.
Subordinate personnel
- C.
Immediate supervisors
- D.
Squadron commander
Correct Answer
C. Immediate supervisors -
- 19.
Prime contributors to dropped objects are
- A.
Chaff/flare discharges
- B.
Latches and fasteners
- C.
Jettisoned fuel tanks
- D.
Hung weapons
Correct Answer
B. Latches and fasteners -
- 20.
The objectives of the maintenance data documentation systems include
- A.
Calling, saving, and reviewing base-level data
- B.
Calling, storing, and retrieving base level data
- C.
Collecting, saving, and reviewing base level data
- D.
Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data
Correct Answer
D. Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data -
- 21.
The basic rules for the maintenance data doocumentation system are contained in TO
- A.
00-5-1
- B.
00-20-1
- C.
00-20-2
- D.
00-20-5
Correct Answer
C. 00-20-2 -
- 22.
The three phases of the operational events subsystem of the IMDS CDB are
- A.
Input, output, and archive
- B.
Online, offline, and update
- C.
Data recording, tracking, and retrieval
- D.
Mission recording, mission accomplishment, and analysis
Correct Answer
D. Mission recording, mission accomplishment, and analysis -
- 23.
You can use the IMDS CDB training management subsystem to monitor
- A.
Upgrade training
- B.
Optional training
- C.
Specialty training
- D.
Qualitative training
Correct Answer
A. Upgrade training -
- 24.
After student graduation, how many days later is the technical school graduate assessment survey normally sent out to organizations
- A.
45
- B.
60
- C.
90
- D.
120
Correct Answer
C. 90 -
- 25.
Unsatisfactory comments on the graduate assessment survey are answered by
- A.
The instructor of the student using an AETC form 156
- B.
A telephone call from the instructor of the student
- C.
Electronic mail from the instructor of the student
- D.
A letter from the instructor of the student
Correct Answer
B. A telephone call from the instructor of the student -
- 26.
Tasks that a person is expected to perfom in a duty position or workcenter but are not included in the CFETP part II or AFJQS are listed
- A.
In the JQS
- B.
In the CFETP part I
- C.
On an AF form 797
- D.
In the AF form 623
Correct Answer
C. On an AF form 797 -
- 27.
Who may standardize the arrangements of the forms binder
- A.
Flight chief
- B.
Section chief
- C.
MAJCOMs
- D.
Wing commander
Correct Answer
C. MAJCOMs -
- 28.
To obtain billing information for fuel and oil on an aircraft, you would check the AFTO form
- A.
781A
- B.
781F
- C.
781H
- D.
781J
Correct Answer
B. 781F -
- 29.
When must the AFTO form 781 be removed from the forms binder
- A.
Before each thruflight
- B.
Before the first flight of the day
- C.
After each maintenance action with an assigned job control number
- D.
After the IMDS CDB event numberis entered
Correct Answer
C. After each maintenance action with an assigned job control number -
- 30.
Engine over-temperature conditions are ecorded on the AFTO form
- A.
781G
- B.
781J
- C.
781M
- D.
781I
Correct Answer
B. 781J -
- 31.
You would use the AFTO form 781K to document
- A.
Engine data
- B.
Daily flying time
- C.
Replacement items
- D.
Support general work
Correct Answer
A. Engine data -
- 32.
The standards for the entries to be made in the AFTO 781 series forms are specified in the
- A.
00-20 series of technical orders
- B.
00-25 series of technical orders
- C.
00-35 series of technical orders
- D.
00-110 series of technical orders
Correct Answer
A. 00-20 series of technical orders -
- 33.
Which is the proper way to manually record a date in the 781 series forms
- A.
Decemeber 12, 2009
- B.
12 dec 09
- C.
20091212
- D.
12/12/09
Correct Answer
C. 20091212 -
- 34.
What action is necessary to clear an erroneous red diagonal symbol
- A.
Erase incorrect symbol and replace with correct symbol
- B.
An authorized individual will sign the INSPECTED BY block and initial over symbol
- C.
Pleace the statement "Symbol entered in error" in the discrepamcy block and sign the INSPECTED BY block
- D.
Place the statement "Symbol entered in error" in the discrepancy block and sign the " CORRECTED BY" block
Correct Answer
D. Place the statement "Symbol entered in error" in the discrepancy block and sign the " CORRECTED BY" block -
- 35.
During an aircraft inspection, you find a deteiorated insignia decal. what symbol would you use in the aircraft forms?
- A.
Red X
- B.
Red dash
- C.
Red diagonal
- D.
None
Correct Answer
D. None -
- 36.
How many Air Force TO catalogs are there
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
A. One -
- 37.
Inspection workcards are known as
- A.
Abbreviated TO
- B.
Technical manuals
- C.
Methods and procedures TOs
- D.
Scheduled inspection and maintenance requirements manuals
Correct Answer
A. Abbreviated TO -
- 38.
Which TCTO is identified by a series of red diagnoals alternately spaced with red Xs (/ X / X / X) around the border of the first page
- A.
Record
- B.
Urgent action
- C.
Routine action
- D.
Immediate action
Correct Answer
B. Urgent action -
- 39.
As a general rule, ITCTO are replaced by formals TOs within
- A.
48 hours
- B.
70 hours
- C.
10 days
- D.
15 days
Correct Answer
C. 10 days -
- 40.
The procedures for the entries on an AFTO form 22 are outlined in
- A.
TO 00-5-1
- B.
TO 00-1-01
- C.
The 00-20 series TO
- D.
The 00-25 series TO
Correct Answer
A. TO 00-5-1 -
- 41.
What type of TO improvement is issued for TCTO deficiencies
- A.
Emergency
- B.
Urgent
- C.
Routine
- D.
Record
Correct Answer
B. Urgent -
- 42.
Which type of directive publication is an extension of an instruction
- A.
Direction
- B.
Pamphlet
- C.
Maunal
- D.
Policy
Correct Answer
C. Maunal -
- 43.
An example of something that should not be published in an OI would be
- A.
Selection procedures for NCO of the quarter
- B.
CTK control procedure
- C.
Cold weather procedure
- D.
Installation traffic rules
Correct Answer
D. Installation traffic rules -
- 44.
Publications are listed in AFIND2 in a
- A.
Logical sequence
- B.
Numerical sequence
- C.
Alphabetical sequence
- D.
Alphanumerical sequence
Correct Answer
B. Numerical sequence -
- 45.
A sequence chart used in aircraft maintenance best serves as
- A.
A ready referernce for determining the progress of the inspections
- B.
An outline of the minimum requirements for controlling work assignments
- C.
A control of work assignments for determing the type of equipment needed
- D.
An outline of the minimum requirements for determining the type of personnel needed
Correct Answer
A. A ready referernce for determining the progress of the inspections -
- 46.
Which inspection is basically a flight preparedness check
- A.
Preflight
- B.
Postflight
- C.
Thruflight
- D.
End-of-runway
Correct Answer
A. Preflight -
- 47.
What inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems
- A.
Preflight
- B.
Thruflight
- C.
In progress
- D.
End-of-runway
Correct Answer
D. End-of-runway -
- 48.
If a basic postflight inspection is not required, the thru-flight inpsection is normally performed
- A.
Prior to an aircraft going on alert and again before a flight after completion of the alert period
- B.
After flights when a turn-aroud sortie or a continuation flight is scheduled
- C.
Immediately prior to a basic post flight insepction
- D.
After the last flight of a specified flying period
Correct Answer
B. After flights when a turn-aroud sortie or a continuation flight is scheduled -
- 49.
The basic postflight inspection is performed to
- A.
Prepare the aircraft for another flight
- B.
Determine the flight status of the aircraft
- C.
Prepare the aircraft for the first flight of the day
- D.
Determine if the aircraft is suitable for another flight
Correct Answer
D. Determine if the aircraft is suitable for another flight -
- 50.
Which is the most extensive inspection
- A.
Periodic
- B.
Thruflight
- C.
Basic postflight
- D.
Hourly postlfight
Correct Answer
A. Periodic -
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Jan 19, 2017Quiz Edited by
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Nov 29, 2010Quiz Created by
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