EMT Quiz #3

113 Questions | Attempts: 179
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EMT Quizzes & Trivia

Quiz testing basic knowledge of our EMTs.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    When lifting, the EMT should:

    • A.

      Keep the back loose and the knees locked.

    • B.

      Twist or attempt to make moves other than the lift.

    • C.

      Use the leg muscles to do the lift

    • D.

      Try not to talk to his partner

    Correct Answer
    C. Use the leg muscles to do the lift
  • 2. 

    When carrying a conscious patient on the stairs, the EMT should:

    • A.

      Keep the stretcher as level as possible.

    • B.

      Use a long backboard at all times.

    • C.

      Use a stair chair whenever possible.

    • D.

      Do all of the above.

    Correct Answer
    C. Use a stair chair whenever possible.
  • 3. 

    Ways an EMT can avoid a potential back injury include all of the following except:

    • A.

      Push, rather than pull, a load.

    • B.

      Keep back locked while lifting.

    • C.

      Keep arms straight when pulling

    • D.

      Push or pull from a kneeling position if the weight is below the waist level.

    Correct Answer
    C. Keep arms straight when pulling
  • 4. 

    When moving a patient from the ambulance stretcher to the hospital stretcher, you will probably use the:

    • A.

      Cradle carry.

    • B.

      Modified draw-sheet method.

    • C.

      Direct ground lift.

    • D.

      Extremity lift.

    Correct Answer
    B. Modified draw-sheet method.
  • 5. 

    During an EMS call, a lethal threat is recognized. The EMT should first:

    • A.

      Retreat to a safe area.

    • B.

      Radio for assistance.

    • C.

      Reevaluate the situation.

    • D.

      Remedy the situation.

    Correct Answer
    B. Radio for assistance.
  • 6. 

    When responding to a violent situation, observation begins when you:

    • A.

      Enter the scene.

    • B.

      Exit the ambulance.

    • C.

      Enter the neighborhood.

    • D.

      Arrive at the patient’s side.

    Correct Answer
    C. Enter the neighborhood.
  • 7. 

    The superior portion of the sternum is called the:

    • A.

      Xiphoid process.

    • B.

      Sternal body.

    • C.

      Manubrium.

    • D.

      Clavicle.

    Correct Answer
    C. Manubrium.
  • 8. 

    A division of the peripheral nervous system that controls the involuntary motor functions is called the ­________ nervous system.

    • A.

      Autonomic

    • B.

      Central

    • C.

      Sensory

    • D.

      Motor

    Correct Answer
    A. Autonomic
  • 9. 

    In the anatomical position, the person’s palms will be facing:

    • A.

      Forward

    • B.

      Backward

    • C.

      Upward

    • D.

      Downward

    Correct Answer
    A. Forward
  • 10. 

    When comparing body structure positions, the knees are said to be ­_________ to the toes, and the toes are _______ to the knees.

    • A.

      Inferior, superior

    • B.

      Proximal, distal

    • C.

      Distal, dorsal

    • D.

      Anterior, posterior

    Correct Answer
    B. Proximal, distal
  • 11. 

    The torso of the body is composed of the abdomen, pelvis, and:

    • A.

      Thorax

    • B.

      Upper arms and legs

    • C.

      Extremities

    • D.

      Head

    Correct Answer
    A. Thorax
  • 12. 

    The heart is located in the center of the ______ cavity.

    • A.

      Thoracic

    • B.

      Cranial

    • C.

      Pelvic

    • D.

      Cardiac

    Correct Answer
    A. Thoracic
  • 13. 

    A disease that is spread by exposure to an open wound or sore of an infected individual is caused by a(n) ______ pathogen.

    • A.

      Universal

    • B.

      Airborne

    • C.

      Bloodborne

    • D.

      Infectious

    Correct Answer
    C. Bloodborne
  • 14. 

    An infection that causes inflammation of the liver is called:

    • A.

      Meningitis

    • B.

      Tuberculosis

    • C.

      Typhoid

    • D.

      Hepatitis

    Correct Answer
    D. Hepatitis
  • 15. 

    When alone, instead of providing mouth-to-mouth ventilations on the nonbreathing patient, the EMT should use a(n):

    • A.

      Pocket mask with a one way valve

    • B.

      One-way valve

    • C.

      Bag-valve mask

    • D.

      Endotracheal tube

    Correct Answer
    A. Pocket mask with a one way valve
  • 16. 

    As you near an emergency scene, you should:

    • A.

      Sound your siren to broadcast your arrival.

    • B.

      Go straight to the front door.

    • C.

      Secure the scene as quickly as possible.

    • D.

      Turn off your lights and sirens

    Correct Answer
    D. Turn off your lights and sirens
  • 17. 

    The reduction of breathing to the point where oxygen intake is not sufficient to support life is called:

    • A.

      Respiratory failure.

    • B.

      Anoxic metabolism

    • C.

      Respiratory arrest

    • D.

      Respiratory support

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory failure.
  • 18. 

    The widening of the nostrils of the nose with respirations is called:

    • A.

      Hyperventilating

    • B.

      Nasal flaring

    • C.

      Nasal gurgling

    • D.

      Wheezing

    Correct Answer
    B. Nasal flaring
  • 19. 

    If a patient is unable to speak in full sentences, this could be a sign of:

    • A.

      Complete airway blockage

    • B.

      Snoring

    • C.

      Shortness of breath

    • D.

      Respiratory arrest

    Correct Answer
    C. Shortness of breath
  • 20. 

    Which maneuver is most appropriate for an unconscious patient found lying at the bottom of the stairwell?

    • A.

      Head-tilt, chin lift

    • B.

      Head-tilt, neck lift

    • C.

      Jaw-pull thrust

    • D.

      Jaw-thrust

    Correct Answer
    D. Jaw-thrust
  • 21. 

    The proper oxygen flow rate when ventilating a patient with a BVM is ______ liter per minute. 

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      15

    • D.

      20

    Correct Answer
    C. 15
  • 22. 

    The two most common airway adjuncts for the EMT to use the oropharyngeal airway and the:

    • A.

      Nasal cannula

    • B.

      Nasopharyngeal airway

    • C.

      Endotracheal tube

    • D.

      Yankauer

    Correct Answer
    B. Nasopharyngeal airway
  • 23. 

    An oropharyngeal airway should be inserted in:

    • A.

      All patients with inadequate breathing

    • B.

      Trauma patients with gag reflex

    • C.

      Medical patients with gag reflex

    • D.

      All unconscious patients with no gag reflex

    Correct Answer
    D. All unconscious patients with no gag reflex
  • 24. 

    When suctioning a patient, the EMT should:

    • A.

      Suction on the way in and way out

    • B.

      Avoid using eyewear or a mask

    • C.

      Never suction for longer than 15 seconds

    • D.

      Hypoventilate prior to suctioning

    Correct Answer
    C. Never suction for longer than 15 seconds
  • 25. 

    The emergency situation in which there is a failure of the cardiovascular system to provide sufficient blood to all the vital tissues is called:

    • A.

      Respiratory arrest

    • B.

      Respiratory failure

    • C.

      Shock

    • D.

      Cardiac arrest

    Correct Answer
    C. Shock
  • 26. 

    The best way to deliver high-concentration oxygen to a breathing patient is to use

    • A.

      Nonrebreather mask

    • B.

      Partial rebreather mask

    • C.

      Bag-valve mask

    • D.

      Nasal cannula

    Correct Answer
    A. Nonrebreather mask
  • 27. 

    If the patient has dentures, during airway procedures the EMT should:

    • A.

      Remove them right away

    • B.

      Leave them in unless they are loose

    • C.

      Remove the teeth one at a time

    • D.

      Hold them in place with a free hand

    Correct Answer
    B. Leave them in unless they are loose
  • 28. 

    When breathing stops completely, the patient is in:

    • A.

      Respiratory arrest

    • B.

      Ventilatory reduction

    • C.

      Artificial ventilation

    • D.

      Respiratory failure

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory arrest
  • 29. 

    What is COPD?

    • A.

      Type of shock

    • B.

      Type of ventilation

    • C.

      Mechanism of breathing

    • D.

      Chronic pulmonary disease

    Correct Answer
    D. Chronic pulmonary disease
  • 30. 

    The body system that is responsible for the breakdown of into absorbable forms is called the ­______ system.

    • A.

      Urinary

    • B.

      Nervous

    • C.

      Digestive

    • D.

      Digestive

    Correct Answer
    C. Digestive
  • 31. 

    During the initial assessment, all of the following are assessed except:

    • A.

      Airway

    • B.

      Mental Status

    • C.

      Circulation

    • D.

      Blood pressure

    Correct Answer
    D. Blood pressure
  • 32. 

    If the patient is not alert and her breathing rate is slower than 8 breaths per minute, the EMT should:

    • A.

      Insert an oral airway

    • B.

      Place the patient in a prone position

    • C.

      Assist ventilations with a bag valve mask

    • D.

      Apply the PASG

    Correct Answer
    C. Assist ventilations with a bag valve mask
  • 33. 

    The normal pulse rate for an adult at rest is between ______ beats per minute:

    • A.

      50 and 70

    • B.

      60 and 100

    • C.

      65 and 95

    • D.

      80 and 100

    Correct Answer
    B. 60 and 100
  • 34. 

    The technique of measuring blood pressure with a sphygmomanometer and a stethoscope is called:

    • A.

      Palpation

    • B.

      Auscultation

    • C.

      Oscillation

    • D.

      Priapism

    Correct Answer
    B. Auscultation
  • 35. 

    Why should the stethoscope not be placed under the cuff and then inflated when evaluating the blood pressure?

    • A.

      It may give a false reading

    • B.

      It can dent the stethoscope

    • C.

      The patient will not like the feeling

    • D.

      It will prevent pumping the cuff to the proper pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. It may give a false reading
  • 36. 

    When taking a patient’s blood pressure, the stethoscope is placed over the ______ artery.

    • A.

      Carotid

    • B.

      Radial

    • C.

      Brachia

    • D.

      FemoraL

    Correct Answer
    C. Brachia
  • 37. 

    The “A” in DCAP-BTLS stands for:

    • A.

      Allergies

    • B.

      Alert

    • C.

      Abrasions

    • D.

      Arrhythmia

    Correct Answer
    C. Abrasions
  • 38. 

    Cool, clammy skin most likely indicates:

    • A.

      High fever

    • B.

      Exposure to cold

    • C.

      Mild fever

    • D.

      Hypoperfusion (shock)

    Correct Answer
    D. Hypoperfusion (shock)
  • 39. 

    As an EMT, your overriding concern at all times is:

    • A.

      The patient’s safety

    • B.

      The safety of patients and bystanders

    • C.

      The patient’s life

    • D.

      Your own safety

    Correct Answer
    D. Your own safety
  • 40. 

    Infants and young children under the age of ______ are abdominal breathers.

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      8

    • D.

      16

    Correct Answer
    C. 8
  • 41. 

    Most heart attacks are caused by the narrowing or occlusion of a _____ artery.

    • A.

      Cephalic

    • B.

      Brachial

    • C.

      Coronary

    • D.

      Carotid

    Correct Answer
    C. Coronary
  • 42. 

    Which of the following is the condition in which a portion of the myocardium dies because of oxygen starvation?

    • A.

      Angina pectoris

    • B.

      Mechanical pump failure

    • C.

      Cardiogenic shock

    • D.

      Acute myocardial infarction

    Correct Answer
    D. Acute myocardial infarction
  • 43. 

    An irregular heart rhythm is called:

    • A.

      Mechanical pump failure

    • B.

      Arrhythmia

    • C.

      Cardiogenic shock

    • D.

      Congestive heart failure

    Correct Answer
    B. Arrhythmia
  • 44. 

    Which terms applies to a pulse slower than 60 beats per minute?

    • A.

      Bradycardia

    • B.

      Ventricular fibrillation

    • C.

      Tachycardia

    • D.

      Atrial fibrillation

    Correct Answer
    A. Bradycardia
  • 45. 

    An at rest heart beating faster than 100 beats per minute is referred to as:

    • A.

      Bradycardia

    • B.

      Ventricular fibrillation

    • C.

      Tachycardia

    • D.

      Atrial Fibrillation

    Correct Answer
    C. Tachycardia
  • 46. 

    Which of the following is the condition caused by the excessive fluid buildup in the lungs because of the inadequate pumping of the heart?

    • A.

      Congestive heart failure

    • B.

      Acute heart failure

    • C.

      Acute myocardial infarction

    • D.

      Chronic myocardial infarction

    Correct Answer
    A. Congestive heart failure
  • 47. 

    A diabetic found with a weak, rapid pulse and cold, clammy skin who complains of hunger pangs suffers from:

    • A.

      Hypoglycemia

    • B.

      Cardiogenic shock

    • C.

      Hyperglycemia

    • D.

      Ulcers

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypoglycemia
  • 48. 

    Which of the following conditions frequently results in acetone smell on the patient’s breath?

    • A.

      Stroke

    • B.

      Hyperglycemia

    • C.

      Ulcers

    • D.

      Hypoglycemia

    Correct Answer
    B. Hyperglycemia
  • 49. 

    A conscious hypoglycemic patient who is able to swallow is frequently administered:

    • A.

      Oral glucose

    • B.

      Insulin

    • C.

      Nitroglycerin

    • D.

      Epinephrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Oral glucose
  • 50. 

    If you cannot administer glucose to the diabetic patient because she is not alert enough to swallow, you should:

    • A.

      Wait until her mental status improves

    • B.

      Contact medical direction immediately

    • C.

      Treat her like any other patient with altered mental status

    • D.

      Place her in the position of comfort

    Correct Answer
    C. Treat her like any other patient with altered mental status

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jul 30, 2011
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 22, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Areamgt
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