Emrapproved University Proficiency Certificate Final Exam

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Emrapproved University Proficiency Certificate Final Exam - Quiz


If you have completed and passed all of the EMR Univesity Proficiency quizzes, you are now ready to take the Final Examination


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    All EMR's are similar and can be used for any size practice or specialty.

    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because not all EMRs are similar and suitable for any size practice or specialty. Different EMRs have different features and functionalities that cater to specific needs and requirements of different practices and specialties. Some EMRs may be more suitable for small practices with limited resources, while others may be designed to handle the complex workflows and large patient volumes of specialty practices. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to carefully evaluate and choose an EMR that aligns with their specific practice size and specialty.

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  • 2. 

    Due to an increase in the accuracy of coding when using an EMR, there is a corresponding decrease in what?

    • A. 

      Use of paper

    • B. 

      Number of patients seen

    • C. 

      Lost revenue

    Correct Answer
    C. Lost revenue
    Explanation
    When using an EMR (Electronic Medical Record), the accuracy of coding increases. This means that the coding for medical procedures and services is more precise and less prone to errors. As a result, there is a decrease in lost revenue. This is because accurate coding ensures that all the services provided to patients are properly documented and billed, reducing the chances of missed or undercharged payments. Therefore, with improved coding accuracy, healthcare providers can minimize the loss of revenue due to billing errors or omissions.

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  • 3. 

    When an EMR is created in hospitals and ambulatory environments it can be considered as a legal patient record.

    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    When an EMR (Electronic Medical Record) is created in hospitals and ambulatory environments, it can be considered a legal patient record. This means that the EMR holds legal significance and can be used as evidence in legal proceedings. It is a digital version of a patient's medical history, treatments, and diagnoses, and is subject to legal regulations and requirements for maintaining patient confidentiality and privacy. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to ensure the accuracy and integrity of EMRs to maintain their legal validity.

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  • 4. 

    In order to encourage the use of EMR technology, the government has provided what incentive?

    • A. 

      A 19.2 billion dollar stimulus package

    • B. 

      Nothing

    • C. 

      Unlimited free consulting to practices and hospitals

    Correct Answer
    A. A 19.2 billion dollar stimulus package
    Explanation
    The government has provided a 19.2 billion dollar stimulus package as an incentive to encourage the use of EMR technology. This financial support aims to assist practices and hospitals in adopting and implementing electronic medical records, which can improve efficiency, accuracy, and patient care. The stimulus package serves as a financial boost to offset the costs associated with transitioning to EMR systems, making it more feasible for healthcare providers to embrace this technology.

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  • 5. 

    EMR is a record in this format, capable of being shared across different health care settings?

    • A. 

      Manual

    • B. 

      Manageable

    • C. 

      Digital

    Correct Answer
    C. Digital
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "digital" because it implies that the EMR (Electronic Medical Record) is in a digital format, which means it can be easily accessed and shared across different healthcare settings. This format allows for efficient communication and collaboration between healthcare providers, leading to better patient care and outcomes.

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  • 6. 

    Most of the EMR vendors combine EMR software with Practice Management software.

    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Most of the EMR vendors combine EMR software with Practice Management software. This means that the majority of electronic medical record (EMR) vendors offer a combined software solution that includes both EMR functionality for medical record management and practice management features for administrative tasks such as scheduling, billing, and claims processing. This integration allows healthcare providers to streamline their operations and have a more comprehensive software solution for managing their practice. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 7. 

    EMR Vendors typically offer similar features and funtionality in their software.

    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    EMR vendors typically offer similar features and functionality in their software. This statement is false. While there may be some overlap in features and functionality among EMR vendors, each vendor typically offers a unique set of features and customization options in their software. This allows healthcare organizations to choose the EMR vendor that best aligns with their specific needs and workflows. Additionally, different EMR vendors may have varying levels of integration with other healthcare systems and technologies, further differentiating their offerings.

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  • 8. 

    The significance of drug to drug allergy contraindication checking is a critical feature of quality healthcare and patient safety. Is this a feature which defines a "Complete EMR"?

    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that the significance of drug to drug allergy contraindication checking is an important feature of quality healthcare and patient safety. The question asks if this feature defines a "Complete EMR". Based on the given information, it can be inferred that a "Complete EMR" should include this feature, making the answer true.

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  • 9. 

    This EMR feature enables a user to electronically store, retrieve and modify medications, labs and radiology/imaging?

    • A. 

      E-Prescribing

    • B. 

      Demographics

    • C. 

      CPOE (Computerized provider order entry)

    Correct Answer
    C. CPOE (Computerized provider order entry)
    Explanation
    CPOE (Computerized provider order entry) is the correct answer because it allows users to electronically store, retrieve, and modify medications, labs, and radiology/imaging. This feature eliminates the need for paper-based systems and enables healthcare providers to enter orders directly into the computer system, improving accuracy and efficiency in managing patient information and treatment plans.

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  • 10. 

    In order to be classified as a "Complete EHR", AMR products must meet the mandatory requirements as defined in what?

    • A. 

      AMA Standards

    • B. 

      U.S. Department of Health and Human Services Standards

    • C. 

      Standards and Certification Criteria Final Rule

    Correct Answer
    C. Standards and Certification Criteria Final Rule
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Standards and Certification Criteria Final Rule." In order for AMR products to be classified as a "Complete EHR," they must meet the mandatory requirements outlined in the Standards and Certification Criteria Final Rule. This rule defines the standards and criteria that must be met for electronic health record systems to be considered complete and compliant. The AMA Standards and U.S. Department of Health and Human Services Standards may also be important in the healthcare industry, but they do not specifically define the requirements for a "Complete EHR."

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  • 11. 

    An AMR is a patient record that includes all surgeries and care that do not involve what?

    • A. 

      Admission to a hospital

    • B. 

      Visit to a doctor's office

    • C. 

      Long Term Care

    Correct Answer
    A. Admission to a hospital
    Explanation
    An AMR, or Ambulatory Medical Record, is a patient record that includes all surgeries and care that do not involve admission to a hospital. This means that any medical procedures or treatments that require a patient to stay overnight in a hospital are not included in an AMR. Instead, an AMR focuses on surgeries and care that can be provided on an outpatient basis, such as visits to a doctor's office or long-term care facilities.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following features is not a mandatory requirement in order to be classified as a "Complete EHR"? 

    • A. 

      Record Demographics

    • B. 

      Clinical Summaries

    • C. 

      Patient Portal

    Correct Answer
    C. Patient Portal
    Explanation
    A Patient Portal is not a mandatory requirement in order to be classified as a "Complete EHR". While a Patient Portal can be a useful feature for patients to access their own health information and communicate with healthcare providers, it is not essential for an EHR system to be considered complete. The other two options, Record Demographics and Clinical Summaries, are typically considered mandatory requirements for a complete EHR as they involve capturing and documenting important patient information and clinical data.

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  • 13. 

    What feature of workgroup scanners do most EMR's require?

    • A. 

      Twain compliance

    • B. 

      Flat Bed

    • C. 

      Color option

    Correct Answer
    A. Twain compliance
    Explanation
    Most EMR's require workgroup scanners to have Twain compliance. Twain is a standard protocol that allows communication between software applications and imaging devices, such as scanners. EMR's (Electronic Medical Records) often require the ability to scan and import documents directly into the system, and Twain compliance ensures that the scanner can seamlessly integrate with the EMR software. This allows for efficient and accurate document management within the EMR system.

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  • 14. 

    Signatures of patients or physicians for legal purposes can be captured using an electronic signature pad.

    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Electronic signature pads are devices that allow individuals to sign documents digitally. These signatures are legally binding and can be used for various purposes, including legal documentation. Therefore, it is true that signatures of patients or physicians for legal purposes can be captured using an electronic signature pad.

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  • 15. 

    What integration tool/device is incorporated into many EMR's to avoid printing paper copies?

    • A. 

      Faxing

    • B. 

      Printer

    • C. 

      High Speed Editing

    Correct Answer
    A. Faxing
    Explanation
    Many EMR systems incorporate faxing as an integration tool/device to avoid printing paper copies. This allows healthcare professionals to securely and quickly send patient information and documents to other healthcare providers or organizations electronically, reducing the need for physical copies and saving time and resources. Faxing also ensures that sensitive patient information remains confidential during transmission.

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  • 16. 

    What efficient alternative is available to process all of the paper records for a practice into an EMR system at one time?

    • A. 

      High Speed Copying

    • B. 

      Individual Chart Transcription

    • C. 

      High Speed Scanning

    Correct Answer
    C. High Speed Scanning
    Explanation
    High Speed Scanning is the efficient alternative available to process all of the paper records for a practice into an EMR system at one time. This method involves using a high-speed scanner to convert the paper records into digital format, allowing for easy storage, retrieval, and analysis of the data. It eliminates the need for manual transcription or copying, saving time and reducing the risk of errors.

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  • 17. 

    What is the name of the act that requires all healthcare providers to adopt Electronic Health Records (EHR)? 

    • A. 

      HHS Act

    • B. 

      HITECH Act

    • C. 

      AMA Act

    Correct Answer
    B. HITECH Act
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the HITECH Act. This act requires all healthcare providers to adopt Electronic Health Records (EHR). The HITECH Act was enacted in 2009 as part of the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act (ARRA) and provides incentives for healthcare providers to implement EHR systems. It aims to improve the quality, safety, and efficiency of healthcare delivery by promoting the use of electronic records.

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  • 18. 

    What ability does the PM software have to extract detailed data?

    • A. 

      Standard Reporting

    • B. 

      Customized reporting specific to the practice

    • C. 

      Both standard and customized reporting

    Correct Answer
    C. Both standard and customized reporting
    Explanation
    The PM software has the ability to extract detailed data through both standard and customized reporting. This means that users can generate standard reports that provide pre-defined information and insights. Additionally, they can also create customized reports tailored to their specific needs and requirements, allowing them to extract detailed data that is relevant to their practice. This flexibility in reporting options enables users to analyze and utilize data in a way that best suits their needs.

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  • 19. 

    Once charges have been entered into the PM software using industry standard CPT and ICD9 codes, what takes place next if the patient has provided insurance information?

    • A. 

      The patient gets a receipt

    • B. 

      The claim is submitted electronically

    • C. 

      The office needs to gather more information from the patient

    Correct Answer
    B. The claim is submitted electronically
    Explanation
    After entering charges into the PM software using industry standard codes, if the patient has provided insurance information, the next step is to submit the claim electronically. This means that the office will send the claim to the insurance company electronically, rather than through traditional mail or fax. This allows for faster processing and reduces the chances of errors or lost claims.

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  • 20. 

    Following a patient visit, the PM software is used to enter what information?

    • A. 

      Vitals

    • B. 

      Charges

    • C. 

      Appointments

    Correct Answer
    B. Charges
    Explanation
    The PM software is used to enter charges following a patient visit. This means that the software is used to record and document the fees or costs associated with the services provided during the visit. This information is important for billing and financial purposes, as it helps in generating invoices and tracking the financial transactions related to patient visits.

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  • 21. 

    What does the acronym PMS stand for?

    • A. 

      Physician Management Software

    • B. 

      Preferred Medical Software

    • C. 

      Practice Management Software

    Correct Answer
    C. Practice Management Software
    Explanation
    The acronym PMS stands for Practice Management Software. This software is used in healthcare settings to manage various aspects of a medical practice, including scheduling appointments, billing, electronic health records, and other administrative tasks. It helps streamline operations, improve efficiency, and enhance patient care. Physician Management Software and Preferred Medical Software are not the correct answers as they do not accurately represent the commonly used acronym PMS in the healthcare industry.

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  • 22. 

    What are the greatest benefits to a practice as a result of having a PM system in place?

    • A. 

      Increase in number of patients

    • B. 

      Reduced coding errors and increased ROI

    • C. 

      More time on the phone with insurance companies

    Correct Answer
    B. Reduced coding errors and increased ROI
    Explanation
    Having a PM system in place can lead to reduced coding errors and increased ROI for a practice. The system can streamline the coding process, minimizing the chances of errors and ensuring accurate billing. This can result in improved revenue generation and financial performance for the practice. Additionally, the system can automate various administrative tasks, freeing up time for staff to focus on patient care rather than spending excessive time on the phone with insurance companies.

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  • 23. 

    When customizing a template, the meaning of chart "by exception"  refers to what?

    • A. 

      All fields are blank and the clinician must fill in all that are applicable

    • B. 

      All fields are auto-filled with common data at the start of the encounter and changes are made only to those fields that need modifying

    • C. 

      All fields require modification by the clinician

    Correct Answer
    B. All fields are auto-filled with common data at the start of the encounter and changes are made only to those fields that need modifying
    Explanation
    The meaning of "by exception" in customizing a template refers to the scenario where all fields in the template are automatically filled with common data at the beginning of the encounter. The clinician only needs to make changes to those fields that require modification, rather than filling in all fields from scratch.

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  • 24. 

    Pre-built templates can often satisfy the needs of most practices and specialties.

    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Pre-built templates may not always satisfy the needs of all practices and specialties. Each practice or specialty may have unique requirements and workflows that cannot be fully met by pre-built templates. Therefore, it is not always true that pre-built templates can satisfy the needs of most practices and specialties.

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  • 25. 

    Most EMR solutions are packaged with a good number of pre-built templates tailored to what?

    • A. 

      Different specialties

    • B. 

      Size of practice

    • C. 

      Software platform

    Correct Answer
    A. Different specialties
    Explanation
    EMR solutions are packaged with pre-built templates tailored to different specialties. This means that the templates are designed specifically for the needs and requirements of various medical specialties such as cardiology, dermatology, pediatrics, etc. These templates include relevant fields, forms, and workflows that are specific to each specialty, making it easier for healthcare providers to document patient information accurately and efficiently. By having templates tailored to different specialties, EMR solutions can cater to the diverse needs of healthcare professionals across various medical fields.

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  • 26. 

    The majority of EMR's do not allow for customized templates.

    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    EMR stands for Electronic Medical Record, which is a digital version of a patient's paper chart. The given statement suggests that most EMR systems do not allow for customized templates. However, this statement is incorrect. In reality, many EMR systems offer the ability to create and customize templates based on the specific needs of healthcare providers. These templates can be designed to capture and organize patient information in a way that is most efficient and relevant to the healthcare facility. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 27. 

    What process within an EMR allows a practice to target their unique workflow needs?  

    • A. 

      Data Conversion

    • B. 

      Synchronization

    • C. 

      Template customization

    Correct Answer
    C. Template customization
    Explanation
    Template customization within an EMR allows a practice to target their unique workflow needs. This means that the practice can modify the pre-existing templates or create new ones to match their specific requirements. By customizing templates, the practice can ensure that the EMR system aligns with their workflow processes, making it more efficient and tailored to their needs.

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  • 28. 

    In addtion to a monthly subscription fee, another possible financial investment for the practice when adopting patient kiosk technology is what?

    • A. 

      Pay-per-capture charge

    • B. 

      Hardware purchase

    • C. 

      Additional network capabilities

    Correct Answer
    A. Pay-per-capture charge
    Explanation
    When adopting patient kiosk technology, in addition to the monthly subscription fee, the practice may also incur a pay-per-capture charge. This charge refers to the cost associated with capturing and storing patient data through the kiosk system. It is likely that the practice will be charged for each instance of data capture, which can include patient registration, medical history, and other relevant information. This additional financial investment is necessary to cover the expenses of maintaining and managing the patient kiosk technology.

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  • 29. 

    There is a variety of information that can be imported into a medical record via a kiosk tool. Which of the following cannot be captured and imported using a patient kiosk?

    • A. 

      Demographic information

    • B. 

      Family and social history

    • C. 

      Prescription Refill Requests

    Correct Answer
    C. Prescription Refill Requests
    Explanation
    Prescription Refill Requests cannot be captured and imported using a patient kiosk. The kiosk tool is primarily used for capturing and importing demographic information and family and social history. Prescription refill requests typically require direct communication between the patient and the healthcare provider or pharmacy, as it involves specific medication details, dosage adjustments, and potential interactions. Therefore, this type of information cannot be effectively captured and imported through a kiosk tool.

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  • 30. 

    One of the primary functions of a patient kiosk is ______________. 

    • A. 

      Scheduling

    • B. 

      Patient Check-In/Registration

    • C. 

      Providing billing detail information

    Correct Answer
    B. Patient Check-In/Registration
    Explanation
    A patient kiosk is primarily used for patient check-in and registration. It allows patients to input their personal information, such as name, address, and insurance details, into the system. This helps streamline the registration process and reduces the need for manual paperwork. Additionally, the kiosk may also provide patients with relevant information, such as privacy policies and consent forms, that they need to review and sign before their appointment. Overall, the patient kiosk improves efficiency and accuracy in the check-in and registration process.

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  • 31. 

    What is one advantage for the patient who choses to register using a patient kiosk? 

    • A. 

      The abilty to make co-payments using a credit or debit card

    • B. 

      More time to spend with the provider

    • C. 

      The need for less information to be provided

    Correct Answer
    A. The abilty to make co-payments using a credit or debit card
    Explanation
    One advantage for the patient who chooses to register using a patient kiosk is the ability to make co-payments using a credit or debit card. This allows for a convenient and efficient way for patients to make their co-payments without the need for cash or checks. It eliminates the hassle of carrying physical currency and provides a secure payment method.

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  • 32. 

    The maximum ROI for a practice using a patient kiosk is a result of what process?

    • A. 

      Reduction in staff

    • B. 

      Reduction in paperwork

    • C. 

      Real time insurance verification

    Correct Answer
    C. Real time insurance verification
    Explanation
    Real-time insurance verification allows a practice to quickly and efficiently verify a patient's insurance coverage, reducing the risk of denied claims and ensuring accurate billing. This process eliminates the need for manual paperwork and reduces the reliance on staff to perform insurance verification tasks, ultimately leading to cost savings and increased revenue for the practice.

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  • 33. 

    The data that is transmitted across the web using patient portals meets HIPAA compliance standards due to what?

    • A. 

      Encryption

    • B. 

      Password Protection

    • C. 

      Both of the Above

    • D. 

      None of the Above

    Correct Answer
    C. Both of the Above
    Explanation
    The data transmitted across the web using patient portals meets HIPAA compliance standards due to both encryption and password protection. Encryption ensures that the data is converted into a secure code that can only be accessed with the correct decryption key, while password protection ensures that only authorized individuals with the correct credentials can access the data. By combining these two security measures, patient portals can ensure that patient information remains confidential and protected from unauthorized access.

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  • 34. 

    Every practice has the ability to customize the features available on the Patient Portal .

    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Every practice has the ability to customize the features available on the Patient Portal. This means that each practice can tailor the portal to meet their specific needs and preferences. They can choose which features to include and customize them according to their requirements. This allows practices to provide a personalized and efficient experience for their patients, enhancing communication and engagement between the practice and patients.

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  • 35. 

    A Patient Portal does not allow secure access to which of the following? 

    • A. 

      Requesting a prescription refill

    • B. 

      The physician's records

    • C. 

      Checking lab results

    Correct Answer
    B. The physician's records
    Explanation
    A Patient Portal allows secure access to various medical information and services, such as requesting a prescription refill and checking lab results. However, it does not provide access to the physician's records. The physician's records may contain sensitive and confidential information that is not accessible to patients through the portal.

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  • 36. 

    A PHR is maintained primarily by whom?

    • A. 

      The physician

    • B. 

      The patient

    • C. 

      A 3rd party vendor

    Correct Answer
    B. The patient
    Explanation
    A Personal Health Record (PHR) is a record of an individual's health information that is maintained primarily by the patient themselves. This allows the patient to have control over their own health information and access it whenever needed. The PHR can include medical history, medications, allergies, test results, and other relevant health information. By maintaining their own PHR, patients can actively participate in their healthcare decisions and share information with healthcare providers as needed.

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  • 37. 

    The acronymn PHR stands for what?

    • A. 

      Private Health Record

    • B. 

      Portable Health Record

    • C. 

      Personal Health Record

    Correct Answer
    C. Personal Health Record
    Explanation
    The acronym PHR stands for Personal Health Record. This refers to a digital or paper-based record that contains an individual's health information, including medical history, medications, allergies, and test results. The term "personal" emphasizes that the record belongs to the individual and can be accessed and managed by them. This record allows individuals to have more control over their health information and enables healthcare providers to have a comprehensive view of the patient's medical history, leading to better coordinated and personalized care.

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  • 38. 

    Digital Storage results in a significant cost reduction for the imaging center due to which of the following?.

    • A. 

      Elimination of films and paper

    • B. 

      Increase in available space at the facility.

    • C. 

      Increased efficiency for the staff

    • D. 

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Digital storage results in a significant cost reduction for the imaging center because it eliminates the need for films and paper, which can be expensive to purchase and maintain. Additionally, digital storage allows for more available space at the facility since physical storage for films and paper is no longer necessary. Furthermore, digital storage increases efficiency for the staff as they can easily access and share digital images, reducing the time and effort required for manual handling and processing of physical films and paper.

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  • 39. 

    Adopting an EMR streamlines the ability to access, save and share lab results through the use of an HL7 interface between the laboratory and the EMR. This type of interface is considered to be _____________. 

    • A. 

      Uni-directional

    • B. 

      Bi-directional

    • C. 

      Static

    Correct Answer
    B. Bi-directional
    Explanation
    Adopting an EMR streamlines the ability to access, save and share lab results through the use of an HL7 interface between the laboratory and the EMR. A bi-directional interface allows for communication and data exchange in both directions, meaning that lab results can be sent from the laboratory to the EMR, and vice versa. This ensures that both systems are updated with the latest information and allows for seamless integration of lab results into the patient's electronic medical record.

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  • 40. 

    PACS image storage and transfer is contained in a universal format known as _______ and is typically stored on a _________

    • A. 

      JPG, Server

    • B. 

      PNG, Workstation

    • C. 

      DICOM, Server

    Correct Answer
    C. DICOM, Server
    Explanation
    PACS image storage and transfer is contained in a universal format known as DICOM (Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine) and is typically stored on a server. DICOM is a standard format for medical images that allows for easy sharing and compatibility between different medical imaging systems. Storing the images on a server allows for centralized access and management of the images.

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  • 41. 

    PACS stands for ________________________.

    • A. 

      Picture Archiving Communication Systems

    • B. 

      Patient Access Communication Software

    • C. 

      Personal Archiving Computer Systems

    Correct Answer
    A. Picture Archiving Communication Systems
    Explanation
    PACS stands for Picture Archiving Communication Systems. This refers to a medical imaging technology that allows healthcare professionals to store, retrieve, and share digital images and reports. It is used to manage and distribute medical images such as X-rays, CT scans, and MRIs, improving efficiency and accessibility of patient information.

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  • 42. 

    PACS are intended to eliminate film.

    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    PACS stands for Picture Archiving and Communication System, which is a digital medical imaging technology used to store, retrieve, and distribute medical images. By using PACS, healthcare facilities can eliminate the need for traditional film-based imaging, as all images are stored digitally. This not only saves space and reduces costs associated with film processing and storage but also allows for easier access to patient images and the ability to share them electronically with other healthcare providers. Therefore, the statement "PACS are intended to eliminate film" is true.

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  • 43. 

    Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, a patient has the right to receive what information about their health record as it relates to access.

    • A. 

      When the record was created

    • B. 

      Any changes that were made to the record by a physician

    • C. 

      A list of times that their health information was given out for certain purposes

    Correct Answer
    C. A list of times that their health information was given out for certain purposes
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "A list of times that their health information was given out for certain purposes" because under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, patients have the right to receive an accounting of disclosures, which is a list of times that their health information was shared with others for certain purposes. This allows patients to have transparency and control over who has accessed their health records and for what reasons.

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  • 44. 

    Special protections to certain notes are provided to what specialty? These notes may not be shared for any purpose unless the patient voluntarily provides written permission to do so.

    • A. 

      Neurology

    • B. 

      Mental Health

    • C. 

      Infectious Disease

    Correct Answer
    B. Mental Health
    Explanation
    Special protections are provided to mental health notes. These notes cannot be shared without the patient's written permission. This is because mental health information is highly sensitive and confidential. The privacy and confidentiality of mental health patients are crucial to ensure trust and encourage open communication between patients and healthcare providers.

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  • 45. 

    What privacy act describes how protected health information is to be collected, used, and sent.

    • A. 

      HISPC

    • B. 

      HITECH

    • C. 

      HIPAA

    Correct Answer
    C. HIPAA
    Explanation
    HIPAA, or the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, is a privacy act that outlines the rules and regulations regarding the collection, use, and transmission of protected health information (PHI). It sets standards for safeguarding PHI and ensures that healthcare providers, insurers, and other entities handle this information securely and responsibly. HIPAA also grants individuals certain rights and control over their own health information. Therefore, HIPAA is the correct answer to the question.

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  • 46. 

    Health care providers and health plans can share patient health information to employers at their request.

    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Health care providers and health plans cannot share patient health information with employers at their request. The sharing of patient health information is governed by strict privacy laws, such as the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), which protect the confidentiality of patient health information. Employers do not have the right to access this information without the patient's consent or a legal requirement. Therefore, the statement is false.

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  • 47. 

    Who has the final say over the adjustment of information within a patient's medical record?

    • A. 

      The patient

    • B. 

      The insurance company

    • C. 

      The physician

    Correct Answer
    C. The physician
    Explanation
    The physician has the final say over the adjustment of information within a patient's medical record. As the primary healthcare provider, the physician is responsible for accurately documenting and updating the patient's medical information. They have the authority and expertise to make adjustments or corrections to the medical record based on their professional judgment and assessment of the patient's condition. The physician's role in managing and maintaining the accuracy of the medical record is crucial for ensuring quality patient care and effective communication among healthcare providers.

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  • 48. 

    IT spending is expected to increase exponentially in the next 5 years .What  factor(s) is/are driving this increase. (Choose  all that apply)

    • A. 

      Mobile Health Apps

    • B. 

      Spending for EHR solutions

    • C. 

      Compliance with new government requirements

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Mobile Health Apps
    B. Spending for EHR solutions
    C. Compliance with new government requirements
    Explanation
    The increase in IT spending can be attributed to three factors: Mobile Health Apps, Spending for EHR solutions, and Compliance with new government requirements. Mobile Health Apps have gained popularity in recent years, leading to increased investment in IT infrastructure to support these apps. Additionally, healthcare organizations are investing in Electronic Health Record (EHR) solutions to improve patient care and streamline operations. Lastly, new government requirements and regulations necessitate healthcare organizations to invest in IT systems to ensure compliance. These factors collectively contribute to the expected exponential increase in IT spending over the next 5 years.

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  • 49. 

    In what year will full adoption of EHR systems become mandatory?

    • A. 

      2013

    • B. 

      2015

    • C. 

      2017

    Correct Answer
    B. 2015
    Explanation
    The full adoption of EHR (Electronic Health Record) systems becoming mandatory in 2015 suggests that by that year, all healthcare providers will be required to implement and use EHR systems for their patient records. This requirement could be due to government regulations or industry standards aimed at improving healthcare efficiency and patient care through the use of electronic records.

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  • 50. 

    Medicaid will not be participating in the EHR incentive program in 2012.

    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Medicaid will be participating in the EHR incentive program in 2012.

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