Software Quiz

93 Questions | Total Attempts: 73

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Software Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?
    • A. 

      Fault management server

    • B. 

      Security management server

    • C. 

      Network management server

    • D. 

      Performance management server

  • 2. 
    What are the three most common network management architectures?
    • A. 

      Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed

    • B. 

      Centralized, hierarchical, and hybrid

    • C. 

      Hybrid, hierarchical, and distributed

    • D. 

      Centralized, hybrid and distributed

  • 3. 
    What network management architecture has an NM platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all NM duties?
    • A. 

      Centralized

    • B. 

      Distributed

    • C. 

      Hierarchical

    • D. 

      Hybrid

  • 4. 
    What network management architecture uses multiple systems, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients?
    • A. 

      Centralized

    • B. 

      Distributed

    • C. 

      Hierarchical

    • D. 

      Hybrid

  • 5. 
    At what level of network management activity are you working when you, as the network manager, are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?
    • A. 

      Inactive

    • B. 

      Reactive

    • C. 

      Proactive

    • D. 

      Interactive

  • 6. 
    At what level of network management activity are you working when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at hand?
    • A. 

      Inactive

    • B. 

      Reactive

    • C. 

      Proactive

    • D. 

      Interactive

  • 7. 
    Gathering information about current network device settings is a step of what functional network management area?
    • A. 

      Configuration management

    • B. 

      Performance management

    • C. 

      Accounting management

    • D. 

      Security management

  • 8. 
    What are the two functional categories of performance management?
    • A. 

      Monitoring and analyzing

    • B. 

      Monitoring and replacing

    • C. 

      Monitoring and tuning

    • D. 

      Analyzing and tuning

  • 9. 
    Which functional category of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network?
    • A. 

      Tuning

    • B. 

      Analyzing

    • C. 

      Gathering

    • D. 

      Monitoring

  • 10. 
    What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?
    • A. 

      Configuration management

    • B. 

      Performance management

    • C. 

      Accounting management

    • D. 

      Security management

  • 11. 
    What is established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?
    • A. 

      Fault parameters

    • B. 

      Tolerance parameters

    • C. 

      Low-level software alarms

    • D. 

      Low-level hardware alarms

  • 12. 
    Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of the open systems interconnections model?
    • A. 

      Session

    • B. 

      Transport

    • C. 

      Presentation

    • D. 

      Application

  • 13. 
    What is a hierarchical, structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices?
    • A. 

      Network device map

    • B. 

      Network protocol list

    • C. 

      Object identifier

    • D. 

      Management information base

  • 14. 
    Which category of simple network management protocol node is responsible for monitoring, collecting and reporting management data to the management system?
    • A. 

      Primary domain controller

    • B. 

      Backup domain controller

    • C. 

      Manager

    • D. 

      Agent

  • 15. 
    What simple network management prototocol operational message retrieves the value of one instance of management information?
    • A. 

      Get

    • B. 

      Set

    • C. 

      Trap

    • D. 

      GetNext

  • 16. 
    What type of simple network management protocol node is responsible to authenticate logons for clients by validating the supplied user name and password against the account in the database?
    • A. 

      Network management controllers

    • B. 

      Stand-alone servers

    • C. 

      Domain controllers

    • D. 

      Member servers

  • 17. 
    In the event that a domain controller is no longer functioning, what action is taken to make another DC take over the responsibility?
    • A. 

      No action is required

    • B. 

      The spare is promoted to the DC position

    • C. 

      The logical name of the backup DC is changed to the logical name of the primary DC

    • D. 

      The Internet protocol address of the backup DC is changed to the IP address of the primary DC

  • 18. 
    What type of network server is dedicated to an intensive application or database?
    • A. 

      Network management controller

    • B. 

      Domain controller

    • C. 

      Stand-alone server

    • D. 

      Member server

  • 19. 
    What protocol is used primarily to obtain connectivity to the large base of Novell NetWare clients?
    • A. 

      Data link control protocol

    • B. 

      Network basic input/output system extended user interface (NetBEUI)

    • C. 

      Transfer control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP)

    • D. 

      Internetwork packet exchange/sequenced packet exchange (IPX/SPX)

  • 20. 
    What network protocol is used for network connection to Hewlett Packard network printers?
    • A. 

      Data link control protocol

    • B. 

      Network basic input/output system extended user interface (NetBEUI)

    • C. 

      Transfer control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP)

    • D. 

      Internetwork packet exchange/sequenced packet exchange (IPX/SPX)

  • 21. 
    Why are users required to change their passwords upon logging onto the network for the first time?
    • A. 

      To ensure users don't create vulnerability by leaving the default password in place

    • B. 

      To ensure users understand how to create a password

    • C. 

      To ensure the integrity of each user's unique password

    • D. 

      To ensure users remember their unique password

  • 22. 
    For user accounts with elevated privileges, such as a client support administrator, what are the correct number and type of characters needed for the account password?
    • A. 

      Minimum of nine characters consisting of at least two upper and lowercase letters and numbers

    • B. 

      Minimum of nine characters consisting of at least two upper and lower case letters, numbers, and special characters

    • C. 

      Minimum of fifteen characters consisting of at least two upper and lowercase letters and two special characters

    • D. 

      Minimum of fifteen characters consisting of at least two upper and lowercase letters, two numbers, and two special characters

  • 23. 
    Which group scope allows member permissions to be assigned in any domain or forest?
    • A. 

      Local

    • B. 

      Global

    • C. 

      Universal

    • D. 

      Domain Local

  • 24. 
    What defines the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource?
    • A. 

      Rights

    • B. 

      Permissions

    • C. 

      Access control lists

    • D. 

      Hardware configuration

  • 25. 
    What is used to verify the level of availability an individual has to the resource?
    • A. 

      Rights

    • B. 

      Permissions

    • C. 

      Access control lists

    • D. 

      Hardware configuration

  • 26. 
    What file permission provides a user with the ability to change file permissions and take ownership of files on new technology file system volumes?
    • A. 

      Full control

    • B. 

      Change

    • C. 

      Write

    • D. 

      Read

  • 27. 
    What permission always overrides all other permissions assigned to a user or group to which the user belongs?
    • A. 

      Full control

    • B. 

      No access

    • C. 

      Change

    • D. 

      Write

  • 28. 
    When a volume is formatted with new technology file system, what group is automatically assigned full control permission to the volume?
    • A. 

      Local group

    • B. 

      Global group

    • C. 

      Built-in group

    • D. 

      Everyone group

  • 29. 
    When a new folder or file is created on a new technology file system partition, what permissions are automatically assigned?
    • A. 

      Global group permissions

    • B. 

      Everyone group permissions

    • C. 

      No permissions are automatically assigned

    • D. 

      Inherited permissions of the folder it is contained in

  • 30. 
    An administrator would normally allocate more file space to users maintaining what type of files?
    • A. 

      Databases

    • B. 

      Spreadsheets

    • C. 

      Word processing templates

    • D. 

      PowerPoint slideshow files

  • 31. 
    What is one way to increase file server efficiency?
    • A. 

      Reducing the file space per user

    • B. 

      Reducing the available hours of use

    • C. 

      Limiting the access time of typical users

    • D. 

      Routinely running defragmentation software

  • 32. 
    What usually has the most significance when determining the amount of space and access time users are given on a file server?
    • A. 

      Rank

    • B. 

      Duty hours

    • C. 

      Job position

    • D. 

      Time on station

  • 33. 
    What two files are required for Windows operating systems to run on most client systems?
    • A. 

      NTBOOTDD.SYS and BOOTSCT.DOS

    • B. 

      BOOTSECT.DOS and NTDETECT.COM

    • C. 

      BOOT.INI and NTDETECT.COM

    • D. 

      BOOT.INI and NTBOOTDD.SYS

  • 34. 
    What is the name for the core set of software instructions contained in operating systems (OS) on which the higher-level functions are based?
    • A. 

      BOOT.IOS

    • B. 

      ROOT.SYS

    • C. 

      Boot kernel

    • D. 

      System kernel

  • 35. 
    What is the first question "network experts" ask when beginning to troubleshoot a serious network problem?
    • A. 

      What is the size of the network?

    • B. 

      Where is the network map?

    • C. 

      Who are the critical users?

    • D. 

      What services are down?

  • 36. 
    What is the first of seven logical steps used to troubleshoot a network problem?
    • A. 

      Consider all possible causes

    • B. 

      Define the main problems

    • C. 

      Create a plan of action

    • D. 

      Gather facts

  • 37. 
    What should you do after gathering all the facts about a network problem?
    • A. 

      Create a plan of action

    • B. 

      Define the main problems

    • C. 

      Consider all possible causes

    • D. 

      Implement the plan of action

  • 38. 
    Why should only one possibility of a network problem be troubleshot at a time?
    • A. 

      For better documentation development

    • B. 

      To effectively eliminate ideas not the problem

    • C. 

      To ensure all personnel are informed of the results

    • D. 

      Isolate a definite cause if the action fixes the problem

  • 39. 
    What is one of the greatest downfalls of personnel who must work together to troubleshoot a network problem?
    • A. 

      Failure to accurately observe and thoroughly document the results of their individual efforts

    • B. 

      Lack of communication during the troubleshooting process

    • C. 

      Troubleshooting multiple possibilities at one time

    • D. 

      Failure to interview the users

  • 40. 
    What are the two basic ways network faults can be detected?
    • A. 

      Automatically and proactively

    • B. 

      Manually and automatically

    • C. 

      Reactively and proactively

    • D. 

      Reactively and manually

  • 41. 
    What are the most common, immediate, and service-affecting types of faults?
    • A. 

      Devices that have broken network connections and used up bandwidth

    • B. 

      Devices that have lost power and have broken network connections

    • C. 

      Devices with failed services and have broken network connections

    • D. 

      Devices that have lost power and used up bandwidth

  • 42. 
    What function of fault management identifies options for minimizing the effects of detected or predicted faults?
    • A. 

      Fault diagnosis

    • B. 

      Fault correction

    • C. 

      Documentation

    • D. 

      Fault detection

  • 43. 
    What is an indication that a noteworthy event has occurred on the network?
    • A. 

      Poll

    • B. 

      Push

    • C. 

      Alarm

    • D. 

      Notification

  • 44. 
    What network management system alarm browser information item indicates if an alarm is related to other alarms?
    • A. 

      Ack

    • B. 

      Cor

    • C. 

      Source

    • D. 

      Severity

  • 45. 
    When bits are missing in one or more octets in a frame, what type of error occurs?
    • A. 

      Frame check sequence

    • B. 

      Retransmission

    • C. 

      Collisions

    • D. 

      Alignment

  • 46. 
    What function checks for damaged frames by recalculating the 32-bit cyclic redundancy check value of the received frame and comparing it to the received 32-bit CRC value in the frame check sequence field?
    • A. 

      Network interface card

    • B. 

      Media Access Control frame

    • C. 

      Session layer of the open systems interconnect reference model

    • D. 

      Transport layer of the OSI reference model

  • 47. 
    Within how many bytes of transmission should a network interface card sense a collision and stop transmitting?
    • A. 

      24

    • B. 

      48

    • C. 

      64

    • D. 

      128

  • 48. 
    What are frames called that consist of garbled bits of data that are transmitted continuously on the network?
    • A. 

      Jabbers

    • B. 

      Dribbles

    • C. 

      Collisions

    • D. 

      Network storm

  • 49. 
    What is the maximum packet size (in bytes) for the Internet protocol?
    • A. 

      42,293

    • B. 

      48,800

    • C. 

      56,498

    • D. 

      65,535

  • 50. 
    What is the minimum packet size (in bytes) for the Internet protocol?
    • A. 

      28

    • B. 

      64

    • C. 

      128

    • D. 

      256

  • 51. 
    Over 60 percent of all network problems occur at what layers of the open systems interconnect reference model?
    • A. 

      Data link and session

    • B. 

      Data link and physical

    • C. 

      Physical and transport

    • D. 

      Session and media access control

  • 52. 
    What type of network problem(s) is caused by collisions on the domain?
    • A. 

      Jabbers only

    • B. 

      Inability to transmit

    • C. 

      Hight utilization only

    • D. 

      Hight utilization or jabbers

  • 53. 
    Ideally the average network utilization value should be less than
    • A. 

      20 percent

    • B. 

      25 percent

    • C. 

      30 percent

    • D. 

      40 percent

  • 54. 
    What type of network errors do jabbers usually cause?
    • A. 

      High utilization and collisions

    • B. 

      Collisions and inability to transmit

    • C. 

      Hight utilization and inability to transmit

    • D. 

      Repeat transmission and inability to transmit

  • 55. 
    What utilities are used to find the round-trip delay between a source and target node?
    • A. 

      Send and Echo

    • B. 

      PING and Echo

    • C. 

      Tracert

    • D. 

      PING and Tracert

  • 56. 
    What diagnostics test is usually run on a network interface card (NIC) to ensure it is functional?
    • A. 

      Loopback

    • B. 

      CTS/RTS

    • C. 

      Transmission trace

    • D. 

      Self-test diagnostic

  • 57. 
    What diagnostics command is run exclusively on Windows based machines?
    • A. 

      TCPCONFIG

    • B. 

      WINIPCFG

    • C. 

      IPCONFIG

    • D. 

      TRACERT

  • 58. 
    What Internet protocol address is used to packet internetwork groper a computer's own network interface card?
    • A. 

      126.0.0.1

    • B. 

      127.0.0.1

    • C. 

      128.0.0.1

    • D. 

      129.0.0.1

  • 59. 
    What is one of the most common types of hardware devices used for network troubleshooting?
    • A. 

      Loopback plug

    • B. 

      Network sniffer

    • C. 

      Protocol analyzer

    • D. 

      Bit error rate tester

  • 60. 
    What are the three main components of the system management automated report tracking system?
    • A. 

      Domain managers, consoles, and clients

    • B. 

      Domain managers, consoles, and probes

    • C. 

      Domain managers, broker, and probes

    • D. 

      Domain managers, broker, and clients

  • 61. 
    What is the centerpiece of the SMARTS application?
    • A. 

      Broker

    • B. 

      Clients

    • C. 

      Map consoles

    • D. 

      Domain manager

  • 62. 
    What component of the system management automated report tracking system application contains knowledge of available domain managers?
    • A. 

      Broker

    • B. 

      Client

    • C. 

      Probe

    • D. 

      Console

  • 63. 
    What color on the system management automated report tracking system alarm log indicates one or more events?
    • A. 

      Blue

    • B. 

      Purple

    • C. 

      Orange

    • D. 

      Yellow

  • 64. 
    How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide you about your network?
    • A. 

      7

    • B. 

      17

    • C. 

      19

    • D. 

      21

  • 65. 
    What menu in the protocol analyzer provides information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol?
    • A. 

      Connection statistics

    • B. 

      Media access control node statistics

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics

    • D. 

      Node discovery

  • 66. 
    What automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?
    • A. 

      Connection statistics

    • B. 

      Media access control node statistics

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics

    • D. 

      Node discovery

  • 67. 
    What menu on the protocol analyzer provides information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes?
    • A. 

      Connection statistics

    • B. 

      Media access control node statistics

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics

    • D. 

      Node discovery

  • 68. 
    What is the process of analyzing threats against and the vulnerabilities of an information system?
    • A. 

      Authentication

    • B. 

      Accreditation

    • C. 

      Risk analysis

    • D. 

      Certification

  • 69. 
    In which phrase of the Department of Defense information technology security certification and accreditation process is data gathered for system analysis?
    • A. 

      Phase 1: Definition

    • B. 

      Phase 2: Verification

    • C. 

      Phase 3: Validation

    • D. 

      Phase 4: Post accreditation

  • 70. 
    What is the maximum number of years an automated information system with no changes to the baseline must be recertified or accredited?
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Three

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Five

  • 71. 
    What is a measure used to verify the eligibilty of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain information?
    • A. 

      Authentication

    • B. 

      Recertification

    • C. 

      Accreditation

    • D. 

      Identification

  • 72. 
    How is a personal identification number categorized?
    • A. 

      Something you know

    • B. 

      Something you have

    • C. 

      Something you need

    • D. 

      Something you read

  • 73. 
    What is a physical device that users carry to authenticate themselves over the Internet?
    • A. 

      Token

    • B. 

      Public key

    • C. 

      Private key

    • D. 

      Session key

  • 74. 
    What is a plastic/magnetic device that contains a microprocessor used to authenticate users over the Internet?
    • A. 

      Token

    • B. 

      Smart card

    • C. 

      Private key

    • D. 

      Session key

  • 75. 
    What is uniquely generated to encrypt a specific message by the user?
    • A. 

      Token

    • B. 

      Smart card

    • C. 

      Private key

    • D. 

      Session key

  • 76. 
    What is at the very core of the Barrier Reef process?
    • A. 

      Access control lists

    • B. 

      Firewall configurations

    • C. 

      Base network security policy

    • D. 

      Network security training and education

  • 77. 
    In what step of the Barrier Reef process do you map both the physical and logical topology of your network?
    • A. 

      Step 1: Know thyself

    • B. 

      Step 2: Determine requirements

    • C. 

      Step 3: Policy formation

    • D. 

      Step 5: Network monitoring

  • 78. 
    In what step of the Barrier Reef process do you start a base network steering group to address base-wide network management and security issues?
    • A. 

      Step 1: Know thyself

    • B. 

      Step 2: Determine requirements

    • C. 

      Step 3: Policy formation

    • D. 

      Step 5: Network monitoring

  • 79. 
    What are network attacks that bypass the firewall?
    • A. 

      Identification spoofing and tunneling

    • B. 

      Tunneling and application-based attacks

    • C. 

      Second message encryption and identification spoofing

    • D. 

      Application-based attacks and second message encryption

  • 80. 
    What is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message (that would be rejected by the firewall) inside a second message that will pass through the firewall?
    • A. 

      Tunneling

    • B. 

      Identification spoofing

    • C. 

      Application-based attacks

    • D. 

      Second message encryption

  • 81. 
    What is the simplest and least expensive type of firewall to stop messages with inappropriate network addresses?
    • A. 

      Proxy

    • B. 

      Bastion host

    • C. 

      Packet filtering

    • D. 

      Intrusion detection

  • 82. 
    What type of firewall is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas?
    • A. 

      Proxy

    • B. 

      Bastion host

    • C. 

      Packet filtering

    • D. 

      Intrusion detection

  • 83. 
    What type of firewall generates audit trails of all network-related activity for monitoring and intrusion detection purposes?
    • A. 

      Intrusion detection

    • B. 

      Packet filtering

    • C. 

      Bastion host

    • D. 

      Proxy

  • 84. 
    What network device performs rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations?
    • A. 

      Network management software

    • B. 

      Intrusion detection devices

    • C. 

      Vulnerability scanners

    • D. 

      Proxy firewalls

  • 85. 
    What software program protects classified data by erasing it from the disk so that it is unrecoverable?
    • A. 

      Deletedata

    • B. 

      Deleteinfo

    • C. 

      Formatting

    • D. 

      Wipeinfo

  • 86. 
    What is the preferred method of clearing magnetic tapes?
    • A. 

      Degaussing

    • B. 

      Overwriting

    • C. 

      Formatting

    • D. 

      Deleting

  • 87. 
    What web-based process incorporates identification and evaluation of new vulnerabilities, disseminates technical responses, and tracks compliance within the Department of Defense community?
    • A. 

      DOD CERT

    • B. 

      AFCERT

    • C. 

      IAVA

    • D. 

      TCNO

  • 88. 
    Who is the IAVA process manager?
    • A. 

      DOD CERT

    • B. 

      AFCERT

    • C. 

      HQ AIA

    • D. 

      DISA

  • 89. 
    Within the Department of Defense computer emergency response team three-tiered "vulnerability hierarchy" for notifications, what tier documents a new vulnerability that poses an immediate, potentially severe threat to DOD systems?
    • A. 

      Department of Defense computer emergency response team technical advisory

    • B. 

      Time compliance network order

    • C. 

      Information assurance vulnerability alert

    • D. 

      Information assurance vulnerability bulletin

  • 90. 
    Within the Department of Defense computer emergency response team three-tiered "vulnerability hierarchy" for notifications, what tier addresses new vulnerabilities that do not pose an immediate threat to DOD systems but are significant enough that noncompliance with the corrective action could escalate the threat?
    • A. 

      Department of Defense computer emergency response team technical advisory

    • B. 

      Time compliance network order

    • C. 

      Information assurance vulnerability alert

    • D. 

      Information assurance vulnerability bulletin

  • 91. 
    What standard is utilized by the defense messaging system for messaging services?
    • A. 

      Transmission control protocol/internet protocol

    • B. 

      Simple mail transfer protocol

    • C. 

      X.400

    • D. 

      X.500

  • 92. 
    What standard is utilized by the Defense Messaging System for directory services?
    • A. 

      Transmission control protocol/internet protocol

    • B. 

      Simple mail transfer protocol

    • C. 

      X.400

    • D. 

      X.500

  • 93. 
    What is one of the most important parts of security in the defense messaging system (DMS)?
    • A. 

      Private keys

    • B. 

      Fortezza cards

    • C. 

      User-ID and passwords

    • D. 

      Specific Algorithm encryption