Programming Test 1

160 Questions | Total Attempts: 548

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Programming Quizzes & Trivia

Knowledge check questions from the Developer course (401) - September 2011


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Force.com is multi-tenant.  What does this statement mean?
    • A. 

      • It can share hardware and other infrastructure

    • B. 

      • Multiple resources can work on it at the same time

    • C. 

      • It can be deployed at multiple locations

    • D. 

      • There are multiple features to protect your data

  • 2. 
    Ability to extend beyond standard functionality
    • A. 

      Enhanced Security

    • B. 

      Ease of upgrades

    • C. 

      Ease of maintenance

    • D. 

      No requirement for programming knowledge

    • E. 

      Ability to extend beyond standard functionality

  • 3. 
    Which of the Following are the 3 layers of an application?
    • A. 

      • User Interface

    • B. 

      • Business Logic

    • C. 

      • Business Data

    • D. 

      • Data Model

    • E. 

      • Objects

  • 4. 
    Data and process-centric applications are best suited for Force.com
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 5. 
    Which of the following statements are true about custom objects?
    • A. 

      SF provides a set of custom objects that you can use to store data

    • B. 

      After you create a custom object, you need to add the user interface

    • C. 

      Custom objects come with an infrastructure including reporting, auditing, and access control

    • D. 

      When you create a custom object, you get a direct access to the database

    • E. 

      Custom objects are reportable and searchable

  • 6. 
    Identify the correct statements about dependent picklists (select all that apply)
    • A. 

      Standard picklists can be controlling fields but not dependent fields

    • B. 

      The max number of values allowed in a controlling field is 400

    • C. 

      Before defining a dependency, you should ensure that your picklist has at least one value

    • D. 

      A custom mutli-select picklist can be set as the controlling field for a dependent field

    • E. 

      If a field represents both a controlling field and a dependent field, it cannot contain more than 300 values

  • 7. 
    Security, access, and deletion of child records are independent of the parent
    • A. 

      Lookup

    • B. 

      Many-to-Many

    • C. 

      Master-Detail

  • 8. 
    A junction object is used to connect the two objects
    • A. 

      Lookup

    • B. 

      Many-to-Many

    • C. 

      Master-Detail

  • 9. 
    Relationship can only be one layer deep
    • A. 

      Lookup

    • B. 

      Many-to-Many

    • C. 

      Master-Detail

  • 10. 
    Which of the following statements are true about a lookup relationship?
    • A. 

      A max of 2 relationships is allowed per object

    • B. 

      A lookup relationship can span to multiple layers

    • C. 

      A parent record is required for each child

    • D. 

      A lookup field is not a required field

    • E. 

      Access to parent determines access to children

  • 11. 
    In a custom application, you can only include a landing page
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 12. 
    Which of the following statements is true about custom tabs:
    • A. 

      A user interface component you create to display custom object data or other web content embedded in the application

    • B. 

      There are three types of custom tabs

    • C. 

      Custom object tabs display any external web-based application or web page in a user interface tab

    • D. 

      Web Tabs display the data of your custom object in a user interface tab

  • 13. 
    When customizing a page layout, you can change the field locations, page setting customizations, and related list customizations
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 14. 
    Stays available as you scroll and scrolls automatically to expose valid drop targets
    • A. 

      Pallette

    • B. 

      Collapse

    • C. 

      Quick Find

    • D. 

      Properties

  • 15. 
    Helps collapse the palette if you want more room to drag and drop within the canvas
    • A. 

      Pallette

    • B. 

      Collapse

    • C. 

      Quick Find

    • D. 

      Properties

  • 16. 
    Filters the set of elements
    • A. 

      Pallette

    • B. 

      Collapse

    • C. 

      Quick Find

    • D. 

      Properties

  • 17. 
    Helps edit the related list properties
    • A. 

      Pallette

    • B. 

      Collapse

    • C. 

      Quick Find

    • D. 

      Properties

  • 18. 
    Custom Formula fields are smart custom fields that can be used to build business-specific calculations using simple wizards and Excel-like formulas
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 19. 
    Which of these statements are true for cross-object formula fields:
    • A. 

      You can reference cross-object formulas in roll-up summary fields

    • B. 

      You cannot reference merge fields for objects related to activities

    • C. 

      You can use cross-object formula fields to reference record owner merge fields for any object

    • D. 

      The limit for cross-object formulas is fix unique relationships per object across all formulas and rules

  • 20. 
    Which statements about roll-up summary formulas are correct?
    • A. 

      They calculate values from a set of related records

    • B. 

      They are read/write formula fields

    • C. 

      They can be created to display a value on a master record based on the values of records in a detail record

    • D. 

      They can be added for all lookup relationships

  • 21. 
    If all error conditions are false, the corresponding error message is displayed and the save is aborted
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 22. 
    A change set can be used to deploy metadata between ____ orgs
  • 23. 
    What happens if one component of a change set fails to deploy?
    • A. 

      The entire change set fails to deploy

    • B. 

      The entire change set gets deployed

    • C. 

      Except the failed comp, all other comps of change sets get deployed

    • D. 

      The deployment time increases

  • 24. 
    Change sets can be used to move data and metadata from one org to another
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 25. 
    Which are the permissions that allow a system administrator to manage an application?
    • A. 

      View All Data

    • B. 

      Read

    • C. 

      Create

    • D. 

      Modify all Data

    • E. 

      Edit All Data

  • 26. 
    System Administrators can customize the permission of both standard and custom profiles
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 27. 
    Identify all True Statements:
    • A. 

      If you remove access to an app from a profile, the users in that profile will still be able to see the tabs in that application

    • B. 

      If you hide a tab from a profile, the users in that profile will not be able to see records for that object

    • C. 

      If you have two records types for an object, you need to have two page layouts for that object

    • D. 

      If a user does not have access to a specific record type, they will still be able to see the records with the record type

  • 28. 
    A field hidden by FLS is still visible through the API
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 29. 
    How can you set the OWD defaults for child records in master-detail relationships?
  • 30. 
    Will child records in look relationships inherit the OWD defaults from their parents?
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No

  • 31. 
    Can you change the OWD defaults after initial implementations?
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No

  • 32. 
    If you change the OWD setting, will it affect manual sharing?
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No

  • 33. 
    If a developer wants to set up access in such a way that managers always see records owned by their subordinates, which feature should the developer use?
    • A. 

      OWD

    • B. 

      Role Hierarchy

    • C. 

      Manual Sharing

    • D. 

      Profiles

  • 34. 
    If a user needs to give access to just one record, which feature should that record choose?
    • A. 

      Roles

    • B. 

      Role hierarchy

    • C. 

      Profile Setting

    • D. 

      Manual Sharing

  • 35. 
    What is the most restrictive OWD Setting?
  • 36. 
    Which statement is true?
    • A. 

      Child records in master-detail relationships have their own OWD

    • B. 

      Org-wide defaults can be set for both standard and custom objects

    • C. 

      Only R/W access can be granted through sharing rules

    • D. 

      Sharing rules are used to restrict access to records

  • 37. 
    Which users can grant sharing privileges on a given record?
    • A. 

      Sys Admins

    • B. 

      Manager

    • C. 

      Owner

    • D. 

      Users above the owner of the records in the role hierarchy

    • E. 

      Users below the owner in the role hierarchy

  • 38. 
    Which function works only in validations rules?
    • A. 

      CASE

    • B. 

      ISNEW

    • C. 

      VLOOKUP

    • D. 

      IF

  • 39. 
    Which of the following statements are true?
    • A. 

      The ISCHANGED function compares the value of a field with its previous value and returned TRUE if the values are different. If the values are the same, this function returns FALSE

    • B. 

      The ISNUMBER function determines if a text value is a number and returns TRUE if it is; otherwise, it returns FALSE

    • C. 

      The ISNEW function compares a text field to a regular expression and returns TRUE if there is a match; otherwise it returns FALSE

    • D. 

      The REGEX function checks if a formula is running during the creation of a new record and returns TURE if it is; if an existing record is being updated, this function returns FALSE

  • 40. 
    What is the max number of debug logs retained for an org?
  • 41. 
    Which of the following actions are tracked in debug logs?
    • A. 

      Database changes

    • B. 

      Manual workflow processes

    • C. 

      Request-response HTML

    • D. 

      Resources used by an APEX script

  • 42. 
    When are validations rules applied?
    • A. 

      When a user saves a record

    • B. 

      When a user views a record

    • C. 

      When a user exports a record

    • D. 

      When a user reports on a record

  • 43. 
    When setting up a validation rule, you must write the error condition formula and the ____
  • 44. 
    Identify the features of a workflow rule
    • A. 

      It triggers an action when a records meets the criteria for the rule

    • B. 

      It can trigger only immediate actions

    • C. 

      It is evaluated before the rule is created

    • D. 

      It can be triggered on import of data

  • 45. 
    Time-dependent workflow can be used when a workflow rule is set to evaluate Every time a record is created or updated
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 46. 
    Select the actions that can be associated with a workflow rule:
    • A. 

      Send an email

    • B. 

      Send an outbound message

    • C. 

      Create a record

    • D. 

      Update a field

    • E. 

      Create a task

    • F. 

      Send an inbound message

  • 47. 
    The only way to test whether a time-dependent workflow rule is executing as expected is to wait.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 48. 
    Sequence the steps in an approval process in the correct order by dragging the steps to their correct position.
    • Define step definition
    • Create a process definition
    • Set final rejection actions
    • Define initial submission actions
    • Define recall actions
    • Set final approval actions
  • 49. 
    The option to skip to the next step is available only if a step has subsequent steps
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 50. 
    In a multi-step process, when do you decide the decision criteria and approval assignment?  NEED ANSWSER HERE
    • A. 

      Creating initial submission actions

    • B. 

      Defining recall actions

    • C. 

      Deciding step definition

    • D. 

      Setting final approval actions

  • 51. 
    Temporary positions can’t be entered unless the contract number follows proper format. Which tool should you use?
    • A. 

      Field history tracking

    • B. 

      Data Validation

    • C. 

      Workflow – outbound message

    • D. 

      Approval process

    • E. 

      Setup Audit Trail

  • 52. 
    Which of the following statements about setup audit trail are true?
    • A. 

      Tracks setup changes made by developers and administrators

    • B. 

      Displays 20 most recent changes

    • C. 

      Tracks only the date of change

    • D. 

      Tracks changes to data in custom object records

  • 53. 
    Which of the following statements are true about field history tracking?
    • A. 

      It allows developers to choose only custom fields for tracking changes

    • B. 

      It allows developers to choose up to 20 fields per object for tracking changes

    • C. 

      It does not track old and new values for long text area fields and mutli-select picklists

    • D. 

      It replaces an old entry in the History related list, any time a user modifies any of the standard or custom fields whose history is set to be tracked.

  • 54. 
    The Created Date can be updated for a record via the API as long as the Inserting System Fields feature is on
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 55. 
    What are the ways in which you can obtain a record’s ID?
    • A. 

      URL

    • B. 

      Reports

    • C. 

      API

    • D. 

      On each record

    • E. 

      Import Wizard

  • 56. 
    What is the advantage of performing upserts while migrating data?
    • A. 

      Data migration to the Salesforce application is faster

    • B. 

      It gives an error if there is a missing data record

    • C. 

      It can use the Salesforce ID or an external ID to prevent data duplication and create missing records

    • D. 

      It duplicates a record using the external ID in SFDC.

  • 57. 
    Developers need to know the record IDs in SFDC to use upsert with relationships
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 58. 
    The upsert function allows developers to use relationships defined in legacy systems when exporting data into Force.com
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 59. 
    For which ONE of the following activity can developers use import wizards
    • A. 

      Load up to 50K records

    • B. 

      Load any object supported by the API

    • C. 

      Schedule regular data loads such as nightly feeds

    • D. 

      Mass delete supported objects

  • 60. 
    The objects that developers want to load and the operations they want to perform are key factors in determining the right data management tool
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 61. 
    The Data Loader supports importing of data from CSV and exporting data to CSV
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 62. 
    The ___ operation uses a SOQL string to export a set of records from Salesforce:
    • A. 

      Extract

    • B. 

      Insert

    • C. 

      Upsert

    • D. 

      Update

  • 63. 
    To transfer a record that a user does not own, the user needs to have the required user permissions and read sharing access on the record
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 64. 
    The mass transfer tool can be used to transfer only accounts and custom objects from one user to another
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 65. 
    What does Development Mode enable?
    • A. 

      Split screen page editor

    • B. 

      File check in and out

    • C. 

      URL/apex/pagename page creator

    • D. 

      Development sandbox

  • 66. 
    What type of content can you include in Visualforce pages
    • A. 

      Text

    • B. 

      HTML

    • C. 

      JavaScript

    • D. 

      Flash

  • 67. 
    Which of the following are ways you can incorporate VF pages into the UI?
    • A. 

      Creating links to reference the unique page URL

    • B. 

      Creating custom tabs for the new page

    • C. 

      Embedding pages into the page layouts

    • D. 

      Overriding standard buttons to route to the new page

  • 68. 
    Which of the following defines Controllers?
    • A. 

      These are where the business logic is encapsulated. They can either be standard, which expose the basic out-of-thebox business logic the application already had, or custom, developed in Apex which created entirely new business logic

    • B. 

      These contain the code for displaying a custom user interface, and are typically a combination of standard web technologies such as HTML, JavaScript (including AJAX) and Flex. They can be designed to automatically detect the access device and deliver content or styles appropriate with that device

    • C. 

      These can be either standard or Custom UI constructs available in a library to be used in developing a VF page. They represent standard SFDC elements and greatly increase the speed and ease in which a developer can build a FV page. They are referenced via a tag library model.

  • 69. 
    Which of the following best defines Pages?
    • A. 

      These are where the business logic is encapsulated. They can either be standard, which expose the basic out-of-thebox business logic the application already had, or custom, developed in Apex which created entirely new business logic

    • B. 

      These contain the code for displaying a custom user interface, and are typically a combination of standard web technologies such as HTML, JavaScript (including AJAX) and Flex. They can be designed to automatically detect the access device and deliver content or styles appropriate with that device

    • C. 

      These can be either standard or Custom UI constructs available in a library to be used in developing a VF page. They represent standard SFDC elements and greatly increase the speed and ease in which a developer can build a FV page. They are referenced via a tag library model.

  • 70. 
    Which of the following best defines components?
    • A. 

      These are where the business logic is encapsulated. They can either be standard, which expose the basic out-of-thebox business logic the application already had, or custom, developed in Apex which created entirely new business logic

    • B. 

      These contain the code for displaying a custom user interface, and are typically a combination of standard web technologies such as HTML, JavaScript (including AJAX) and Flex. They can be designed to automatically detect the access device and deliver content or styles appropriate with that device

    • C. 

      These can be either standard or Custom UI constructs available in a library to be used in developing a VF page. They represent standard SFDC elements and greatly increase the speed and ease in which a developer can build a FV page. They are referenced via a tag library model.

  • 71. 
    How can you tell a Visualforce component from another type of tag?
    • A. 

      The apex prefix to the tag name

    • B. 

      They are always enclosed in start and end tags

    • C. 

      They are always preceded by a JavaScript event

    • D. 

      The component=”componentvalue” attribute

  • 72. 
    Where do attributes to VF tags appear?
    • A. 

      On the line following the start tag

    • B. 

      In brackets, directly after the tag

    • C. 

      After the tag name in the start tag

    • D. 

      With the JavaScript event for the tag

  • 73. 
    Which is the correct format for an attribute?  NEED ANSWER HERE!
    • A. 

      AttributeName=”attributeValue”

    • B. 

      (attributeName=”attributeValue”)

    • C. 

      AttributeName={!attributeValue};

    • D. 

      $!attributeName=”attributeValue”

  • 74. 
    Visualforce tags are hierarchical and can include plain text
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 75. 
    Action bindings refer to other FV components
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 76. 
    Data bindings refer to the data set in the controller
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 77. 
    Where is the controller for a page assigned?
    • A. 

      In the tag

    • B. 

      Before the tag

    • C. 

      In the tag

    • D. 

      After the tag

  • 78. 
    Which of the following are coarse metadata tags?
    • A. 

      Detail

    • B. 

      Relatedlist

    • C. 

      Listviews

    • D. 

      Tabstyle

  • 79. 
    Which of the following tags should be used to automatically bring in the SFDC label and default widget for a field?
    • A. 

      InputField

    • B. 

      InputWidget

    • C. 

      OutputField

    • D. 

      OutputLabel

  • 80. 
    Where can you use the tag?
    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 81. 
    What does the tag do?
    • A. 

      It is a tag that can be used to create your own custom, reusable components

    • B. 

      It is a tag used to embed flash widgets into VF pages

    • C. 

      It is a tag that creates an HTML table by iterating over a set of data

  • 82. 
    What does the Page includes tag do?
    • A. 

      They allow you to embed content within an iFrame in a web page

    • B. 

      They are used within a component tag to define custom attributes

    • C. 

      They allow you to define reusable components for baseline pages

  • 83. 
    Which of the following is NOT an example of a JavaScript Event?
    • A. 

      Onclick

    • B. 

      Onload

    • C. 

      Onfill

    • D. 

      Onsubmit

  • 84. 
    Ajax is primarily used for partial page updates in VF
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 85. 
    Why would you need to use the global URLFOR variable?
    • A. 

      To access actions available via the API on an object that are not currently exposed via the standard controllers

    • B. 

      To access a URL that is b behind a corp firewall, or which is otherwise through the standard method

    • C. 

      To enable more than one controller on a single Visualforce Page

    • D. 

      To access actions available via the AIP on an object tha are exposed via the standard controllers.

  • 86. 
    Script tags allow you to create JavaScript (or other types of) functions tha can be used within your pages
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 87. 
    The actionSupport tag provides support for invoking a controller action from JavaScript code using an Ajax request by defining new JavaScript function
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 88. 
    Force.com Sites (check all that apply)
    • A. 

      Enables developers to build public or non-authenticated web sites

    • B. 

      Are built entirely with JavaScript

    • C. 

      Enables developers to access Websites from any domain name

    • D. 

      Can leverage the data and content residing in your SFDC application

  • 89. 
    Identify the Force.com sites use cases
    • A. 

      Build and run new Web applications with Force.com sites

    • B. 

      Transform non-business applications into Websites

    • C. 

      Limit your SFDC CRM applications

    • D. 

      Run your corp websites on SFDC service

  • 90. 
    On the iPhone, the full-featured Safari browser has very limited JavaScript support
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 91. 
    Identify the methods that you can use to create pages to support multiple mobile platforms
    • A. 

      Separation and redirection

    • B. 

      Greatest common denominator

    • C. 

      Lowest common denominator

    • D. 

      Conditional code

    • E. 

      Common code

  • 92. 
    What are the situations where VF might be required for certain functionality on a mobile device?
    • A. 

      Overriding custom button actions

    • B. 

      Mobilizing an unsupported standard object

    • C. 

      Integrating with other Web APIs

    • D. 

      Reproducing functionality not available declaratively

    • E. 

      Integrating with a hardware device, such as a mouse or keyboard

  • 93. 
    Automatically displays message next to fields
    • A. 

      Apex: commandButton

    • B. 

      Apex:inputField

    • C. 

      Apex: actionPoller

    • D. 

      Apex: messages

  • 94. 
    Attaches an action to a button
    • A. 

      Apex: commandButton

    • B. 

      Apex:inputField

    • C. 

      Apex: actionPoller

    • D. 

      Apex: messages

  • 95. 
    Displays messages at the top of the page
    • A. 

      Apex: commandButton

    • B. 

      Apex:inputField

    • C. 

      Apex: actionPoller

    • D. 

      Apex: messages

  • 96. 
    Calls actions periodically
    • A. 

      Apex: commandButton

    • B. 

      Apex:inputField

    • C. 

      Apex: actionPoller

    • D. 

      Apex: messages

  • 97. 
    ID all the true statements about controllers
    • A. 

      Action methods execute before setter methods

    • B. 

      Custom controllers execute in the system mode by default

    • C. 

      Standard controllers execute in the system mode by default

    • D. 

      Override data sharing functionality by using “With sharing” keywords in the controller definition.

  • 98. 
    ID the true statements about data methods:
    • A. 

      Data methods perform logic

    • B. 

      Data methods include navigation actions

    • C. 

      Data methods are used to interact with data stored in a DB

  • 99. 
    Which type of controller requires the developer to define all action methods?
    • A. 

      Standard controllers

    • B. 

      Custom controllers

    • C. 

      Controller extensions

    • D. 

      Both standard and custom controllers

  • 100. 
    ID the true statement about controllers
    • A. 

      Only standard objects have an associated standard controller

    • B. 

      Custom controllers provide access to standard SFDC data and behavior

    • C. 

      You cannot use both standard and custom controllers on the same page

    • D. 

      Controller extensions have a no-argument constructor

  • 101. 
    ID the common feature in custom controller and controller extension
    • A. 

      Both leverage existing data and actions

    • B. 

      Both allow custom code to be used

    • C. 

      Both require a no-argument constructor

    • D. 

      Both executive in user mode by default

  • 102. 
    User A has permission to run class X.  Class X calls class y and class Z.  ID the true statement about permissions
    • A. 

      User A can run class X. However User A will need additional permissions on classes y and z.

    • B. 

      User A will get an insufficient privileges error when class x calls class y

    • C. 

      User A will be able to execute the code completely

    • D. 

      User A will not be able to execute any class.

  • 103. 
    All users who access the same report at the same time will see the same data
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 104. 
    Access to a report is determined by the folder in which a report is stored
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 105. 
    Which of the following tasks can an Admin User perform?
    • A. 

      Run a report on Monday, then schedule the same report to run every Monday for the next 4 weeks

    • B. 

      Schedule reports to run in the time zone of the report recipient

    • C. 

      Email a report in a Public folder to SFDC users in diff time zones

    • D. 

      Sched a report to run only once, a week from today.

  • 106. 
    Where would you click to export data to Excel while keeping the report format?
  • 107. 
    The current report shows summary rows.  Where to click to show all rows?
  • 108. 
    Saving a custom report will save a snapshot of that data at that moment in time
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 109. 
    You can use filter options with AND or OR relationships
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 110. 
    Which of the following statements about reports is accurate?
    • A. 

      Reports show only the data and fields that are visible to the user running the report

    • B. 

      New objects and fields dare immediately available for reporting

    • C. 

      Running a saved report shows the data in real-time based on the saved parameters

    • D. 

      Reports can include standard objects and/or custom objects.

  • 111. 
    To email a report to other users, the report must be in a public folder
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 112. 
    To export the data to Excel but still keep the report formatting, click Export Details
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 113. 
    You can select the columns you want to appear on your report, and their orders as well. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 114. 
    To list your data including sorting and subtotaling of the data, select a Tabular Report
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 115. 
    What is the first step when creating a custom report?
    • A. 

      Choose the fields by which to group and subtotal

    • B. 

      Select the objects to include in the report

    • C. 

      Select the columns to include and order them

    • D. 

      Select the type of report (Tabular, Summary, or Matrix)

  • 116. 
    A dashboard can have up to how many components?
  • 117. 
    Which of these are types of dashboard components?
    • A. 

      Visualforce page

    • B. 

      Graph

    • C. 

      Metric

    • D. 

      Table

    • E. 

      Gauge

    • F. 

      Chart

  • 118. 
    Which component type is best in each case?  Show the top five records
    • A. 

      Visualforce page

    • B. 

      Gauge

    • C. 

      Metric

    • D. 

      Table

    • E. 

      Chart

  • 119. 
    Which component type is best in each case?     Pull in data from another source
    • A. 

      Visualforce page

    • B. 

      Gauge

    • C. 

      Metric

    • D. 

      Table

    • E. 

      Chart

  • 120. 
    Which component type is best in each case?     Show progress toward a goal
    • A. 

      Visualforce page

    • B. 

      Gauge

    • C. 

      Metric

    • D. 

      Table

    • E. 

      Chart

  • 121. 
    Which component type is best in each case?     Compare data
    • A. 

      Visualforce page

    • B. 

      Gauge

    • C. 

      Metric

    • D. 

      Table

    • E. 

      Chart

  • 122. 
    Which component type is best in each case?     Show a grand total
    • A. 

      Visualforce page

    • B. 

      Gauge

    • C. 

      Metric

    • D. 

      Table

    • E. 

      Chart

  • 123. 
    What does a running user determine?
    • A. 

      The data displayed on a dashboard

    • B. 

      The users who can see a dashboard

    • C. 

      The frequency of dashboard auto-refresh

    • D. 

      The users who receive email notifications of dashboard refreshes

  • 124. 
    Once you create a dashboard, the first component is added by default
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 125. 
    Where would you click to display the most recent data on a dashboard?
  • 126. 
    Which of the following dashboard layout styles are available?
    • A. 

      One column

    • B. 

      Two column

    • C. 

      Three column

    • D. 

      Four column

  • 127. 
    You can specific the column under which to add a new component
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 128. 
    Components can be moved around after they are created
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 129. 
    Which report types are NOT created automatically?
    • A. 

      Positions with offers

    • B. 

      Candidates with Reviews

    • C. 

      Positions

    • D. 

      Candidates with Interviewers

  • 130. 
    Report types define the objects that are included in the report
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 131. 
    Which statements about report types are true?
    • A. 

      Standard report types are predefined

    • B. 

      Reports based off a standard report type cannot be customized

    • C. 

      A standard report type is created upon creation of a custom object

    • D. 

      A standard report type is similar to an outer join

  • 132. 
    To incorporate fields from other objects in a CRT, you can include the object relationship or include fields related via lookup
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 133. 
    “With or without” reports show all “A” records that have a related “B” record
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 134. 
    CRTs allow you to remove fields from the report builder and choose which fields should be selected by default. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 135. 
    How many objects can you choose when defining which related records from different objects are returned in the report results?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      10

  • 136. 
    Sys Admins and users with the “Manage Custom Report Types” permissions can create CRTs
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 137. 
    Once you create a report that utilizes a field for counting, you can use that field in additional calculations
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 138. 
    When creating a formula field to allow you to count unique records in a report, what formula should you use?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      X+1

    • C. 

      X.1

    • D. 

      2

  • 139. 
    Once you create a new formula field to group information, what else do you need to do to show the grouping on a dashboard?
    • A. 

      Create a formula field for each of the groups

    • B. 

      Run a report using the grouping formula field

    • C. 

      Create/update a dashboard component using the updated report

    • D. 

      Create a dashboard components for the non-grouped information

  • 140. 
    You need to create a formula field when you want to do which of the following?
    • A. 

      Group scores into categories

    • B. 

      Create a custom report

    • C. 

      Count the number of records

    • D. 

      Schedule to run a report at a later date

  • 141. 
    You want to count the number of interviews conducted for each position.  Once you create a formula field to count the number of interviews, what is your next step?
    • A. 

      Run a report using the new field

    • B. 

      Create a “Number of Interviews” component on the dashboard

    • C. 

      Create a report to group interview by positions

    • D. 

      Calculate the ratio between positions and interviews.

  • 142. 
    You want to add a customer summary formula to this report.  Where would you click to do that?
  • 143. 
    You want to create a custom summary formula that shows the ration between the number of positions and the number of offers, and you want to display the number on a dashboard.  Put the steps in the right order?  
    • Create a formula field to count the number of offers and another one to count the number of positions.
    • Create a custom summary field to calculate the average number of positions per offers
    • Create a dashboard component based off of the ratio that you calculate
  • 144. 
    A formula field can be used to “bucket” or group together similar values to make a report or dashboard easier to read
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 145. 
    Analytic snapshots map the fields in the source report to fields on a custom object.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 146. 
    Analytic snapshots always run weekly.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 147. 
    Analytic snapshots allow you to view historical data and analyze trends.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 148. 
    Setting up the analytic snapshot includes which of these steps?
    • A. 

      Selecting the source report

    • B. 

      Selecting the target object

    • C. 

      Mapping the fields on the report to the target object

    • D. 

      Running the report to analyze historical data

    • E. 

      Scheduling the frequency for taking the snapshot

  • 149. 
    Analytic snapshots can be scheduled weekly, daily, or monthly
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 150. 
    You are running a report that utilizes data captured in an Analytic Snapshot to analyze historical trends.  What should you include in the report?
    • A. 

      The source report

    • B. 

      The target object

    • C. 

      Both the source report and the target object

  • 151. 
    The more time exists between the Start and End Dates, the more snapshots will be listed in the report
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 152. 
    How do analytic snapshots facilitate analyzing trends?
    • A. 

      They automatically run reports at regular intervals so users can compare the reports side by side

    • B. 

      They allow users to capture the highest and lowest points of data on a given time so that users can analyze the range of performance

    • C. 

      They automatically store data at regular intervals so that users can report on and analyze that data later

    • D. 

      They provide a comprehensive analysis of past performance compared to current performance.

  • 153. 
    To set up the analytic snapshot you must map____
    • A. 

      Fields on the resource report to the snapshots

    • B. 

      Fields on the source report to the custom object

    • C. 

      Fields on the custom object to fields on the source report

    • D. 

      Fields on the custom objects to the scheduled snapshots

  • 154. 
    Put the steps to set up an analytic snapshot in the right order:
    • Select the target object
    • Schedule the frequency for taking the snapshot
    • Map the fields on the report to the custom objects
    • Select the source report
  • 155. 
    Which path would you follow to create a custom object as the target object for an analytic snapshot?
    • A. 

      Your Name | Setup | Customize | Objects

    • B. 

      Your Name | Setup | Create | Objects

    • C. 

      Your Name | Setup | Data Management | Analytic Snapshots

    • D. 

      Your Name | Setup | Data Management | Objects

  • 156. 
    You have created a source report and a target object, and now you are ready to set up the analytic snapshot.  Where would you click to set up the analytic Snapshot?
  • 157. 
    In which of these reporting scenarios would you need a partner’s help?
    • A. 

      You want to show who are the employees who interviewed each candidate

    • B. 

      You want to create a report that lists all contacts that have no cases associated with them

    • C. 

      You want to use different colors to highlight certain text values on a report

    • D. 

      You want the names of highly qualified candidates to feed into a job offer form, which you’ll mail to these candidates

    • E. 

      You want to create a Candidate Competency report that will tell how qualified are the candidates that your teams are reviewing.

  • 158. 
    Most reporting needs should be addressed by our partners.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 159. 
    Some challenges are best solved using a RaaS application; others are best solved using a BlaaS applcication; and yet others – using a Data Warehousing application
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 160. 
    To find partner applications that extend reporting capabilities, go to www.saleseforce.com/appexchange
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False