CST Practice Test #2

175 Questions | Total Attempts: 36

SettingsSettingsSettings
CST Quizzes & Trivia

.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The needs or activities related to one's identification or interaction with another individual or group forms which component of the human being?
    • A. 

      Social

    • B. 

      Psychological

    • C. 

      Physical

    • D. 

      Physiological

  • 2. 
    If adult response is the norm, pediatric patients must be observed for which response?
    • A. 

      No variants in response

    • B. 

      Paradoxical responses to some drugs

    • C. 

      Increased crying

    • D. 

      Decreased consciousness

  • 3. 
    Which term describes the following coping mechanism: "A patient tries to give excuses as to why he or she has a particular illness"?
    • A. 

      Regression

    • B. 

      Rationalization

    • C. 

      Denial

    • D. 

      Repression

  • 4. 
    The critical parameters for monitoring pediatric patients include all of the following EXCEPT__________.
    • A. 

      Temperature

    • B. 

      Urine output

    • C. 

      Oxygenation

    • D. 

      Turgor

  • 5. 
    Bleeding in a pediatric trauma patient must be controlled to prevent _________.
    • A. 

      Brachial plexus injury

    • B. 

      Infiltration

    • C. 

      Distension

    • D. 

      Severe hypovolemia

  • 6. 
    During abdominal procedures on patients who are obese, what procedure might additionally be performed due to newly identified pathology?
    • A. 

      Pancreatectomy

    • B. 

      Whipple

    • C. 

      Cholecystectomy

    • D. 

      Splenectomy

  • 7. 
    What disease is NOT an autoimmune disease?
    • A. 

      Multiple sclerosis

    • B. 

      AIDS

    • C. 

      Lupus erythematosus

    • D. 

      Rheumatoid arthritis

  • 8. 
    When placing the pregnant surgical patient in the supine position, the circulating surgical technologist should place a small rolled pad or sheet under the right hip. This will help __________.
    • A. 

      Take weight off of the vena cave

    • B. 

      Make the patient more comfortable

    • C. 

      Shift the uterus to gain better access to the abdominal contents

    • D. 

      Prevent preterm labor

  • 9. 
    Emergency procedures on geriatric patients are associated with __________.
    • A. 

      Better preoperative planning

    • B. 

      Higher mortality

    • C. 

      Trauma

    • D. 

      Failure to minimize postoperative stress of hypothermia and hypoxemia

  • 10. 
    The ___________ is the number one organ injured in a motor vehicle accident.
    • A. 

      Heart

    • B. 

      Liver

    • C. 

      Spleen

    • D. 

      Abdominal aorta

  • 11. 
    Why should cabinets and doors within the operating room be recessed into the wall?
    • A. 

      Prevent injuries

    • B. 

      Easy opening

    • C. 

      Prevent dust accumulation

    • D. 

      Cleaning purposes

  • 12. 
    When an electrical charge is in motion, it is referred to as a(n) _________.
    • A. 

      Electrical current

    • B. 

      Active current

    • C. 

      Open current

    • D. 

      Closed current

  • 13. 
    What is used to create a pathway for electrical current to be returned from the patinet back to the ESU?
    • A. 

      Bovie cord

    • B. 

      Grounding pad

    • C. 

      Ground wire

    • D. 

      Conducting gel

  • 14. 
    Which machine found in the decontamination room uses cavitation?
    • A. 

      Ultrasonic washer

    • B. 

      Washer sterilizer

    • C. 

      Dry heat

    • D. 

      Flash sterilizer

  • 15. 
    A unidirectional positive -pressure flow of air that captures microbes to be filtered in known as _________.
    • A. 

      Negative airflow

    • B. 

      Pressurized air

    • C. 

      Laminar airflow

    • D. 

      Sterile airflow

  • 16. 
    ____________ means microbes and infection are absent.
    • A. 

      Sterile

    • B. 

      Surgically clean

    • C. 

      Decontaminated

    • D. 

      Disinfected

  • 17. 
    Fluid bottles may be recapped and reused under what  conditions?
    • A. 

      The fluid is to be warmed

    • B. 

      The bottle is sterile

    • C. 

      The pourer is wearing gloves

    • D. 

      None: the bottle may not be recapped

  • 18. 
    The ___________ is used to remove small organic particles and soil from areas of instruments that are difficult to clean manually.
    • A. 

      Ultrasonic washer

    • B. 

      CUSA

    • C. 

      Wire brush

    • D. 

      Gas sterilizer

  • 19. 
    Which classification is given to bacteria that can survive in an environment with or without oxygen?
    • A. 

      Facultative anaerobes

    • B. 

      Microaerophiles

    • C. 

      Capnophiles

    • D. 

      Obligate anaerobes

  • 20. 
    Which is the most commonly transmitted bacteria in the operating room?
    • A. 

      Candida albicans

    • B. 

      Cornebacterium jeikeium

    • C. 

      Staphlococcus aureus

    • D. 

      Streptococcus pneumoniae

  • 21. 
    Which microorganisms is capable of causing an UTI?
    • A. 

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • B. 

      Staphylococcus epidermidis

    • C. 

      Streptococcus pyogenes

    • D. 

      Streptococcus agalactiae

  • 22. 
    Gas gangrene and cellulitis is caused by which microorganism?
    • A. 

      Klebsiella pneumoniae

    • B. 

      Pasteurella multocida

    • C. 

      Clostridium perfringens

    • D. 

      E. coli

  • 23. 
    The scope used for visualization of a fetus in utero is called a(n) _____________.
    • A. 

      Laryngoscope

    • B. 

      Fetoscope

    • C. 

      Hysteroscope

    • D. 

      Colonoscope

  • 24. 
    Sponges used for procedures requiring smaller incisions are called _______.
    • A. 

      Laparotomy

    • B. 

      Neurosurgical

    • C. 

      Raytec

    • D. 

      Tonsil

  • 25. 
    A Tru-Cut needle is used _____.
    • A. 

      To obtain a biopsy

    • B. 

      During cardiovascular procedures

    • C. 

      To introduce angioplasty-guiding catheters

    • D. 

      To irrigate open arteries

  • 26. 
    Small, clear, plastic drapes with openings that are surrounded by an adhesive backing are called __________ drapes.
    • A. 

      Incise

    • B. 

      Isolation

    • C. 

      Reusable

    • D. 

      Aperture

  • 27. 
    Postoperative instrument handling involves all of the following steps EXCEPT __________.
    • A. 

      Cleaning and decontamination

    • B. 

      Reassembly

    • C. 

      Preparation

    • D. 

      Distribution

  • 28. 
    Curved needle holders are generally used during ____________ procedures.
    • A. 

      Orthopedic

    • B. 

      Cardiovascular procedures

    • C. 

      Gynecological

    • D. 

      Plastic and reconstructive

  • 29. 
    While the STSR is passing instruments, the surgeon is focused on the
    • A. 

      Exchange

    • B. 

      Procedure

    • C. 

      Operating room setup

    • D. 

      Anesthesia delivery

  • 30. 
    Items are counted in which order for every procedure?
    • A. 

      Sharps, sponges, instruments

    • B. 

      Instruments, sharps, sponges

    • C. 

      Sponges, instruments, sharps

    • D. 

      Sponges, sharps, instruments

  • 31. 
    Which term means loss of heat from the patient's body to the environment?
    • A. 

      Convection

    • B. 

      Rediation

    • C. 

      Conduction

    • D. 

      Evaporation

  • 32. 
    Which diagnostic imaging procedure allows the surgeon to view anatomic strutures during the surgical procedures?
    • A. 

      Conventional X-ray

    • B. 

      Ultrasound

    • C. 

      Fluoroscopy

    • D. 

      MRI

  • 33. 
    The display and recording of the electrical activity of skeletal muscle is called a (n)
    • A. 

      EEG

    • B. 

      ECG

    • C. 

      EMG

    • D. 

      PET scan

  • 34. 
    Arterial saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen is measured with the use of ___________.
    • A. 

      Pulse oximetry

    • B. 

      Capnography

    • C. 

      Spirometry

    • D. 

      Plethysmography

  • 35. 
    Correct placement of indwelling catheters, tubes, and drains may be varified by ________________.
    • A. 

      Radiography

    • B. 

      Pulse oximetry

    • C. 

      Ausculation

    • D. 

      Endoscopy

  • 36. 
    Which diagnostic procedure uses high-frequency sound waves?
    • A. 

      MRI

    • B. 

      PET

    • C. 

      Ultrasound

    • D. 

      CT

  • 37. 
    The beta cells of the islets of Langerhans are responsible for the production of ________________.
    • A. 

      Vitamin K

    • B. 

      Glucagon

    • C. 

      Insulin

    • D. 

      Somatostatin

  • 38. 
    Nissen fundoplication is the procedure performed to correct a (n)_______________.
    • A. 

      Gastric ulcer

    • B. 

      Inguinal hernia

    • C. 

      Hiatal hernia

    • D. 

      Ruptured tubal pregnancy

  • 39. 
    An end ileostomy is created from the ___________.
    • A. 

      Transverse colon

    • B. 

      Descending colon

    • C. 

      Terminal ileum

    • D. 

      Sigmoid colon

  • 40. 
    Modified radical mastectomy involves removal of _____________.
    • A. 

      The breast, acillary lymph nodes, and pectoral muscles

    • B. 

      The breast and axillary lymph nodes

    • C. 

      A wedge of breast tissue

    • D. 

      The breast

  • 41. 
    Which of the following describes the anatomic area that will be prepped for a laparotomy?
    • A. 

      Midchest to midthighs and bilaterally

    • B. 

      Chin to knees and bilaterally

    • C. 

      Shoulders to hips and bilaterally

    • D. 

      Midchest to iliac crests and bilaterally

  • 42. 
    Mastectomy is the removal of the ____________.
    • A. 

      Entire mammary breast

    • B. 

      Entire breast and pectoral muscles

    • C. 

      Entire breast, pectoral muscles, and axillary lymph nodes

    • D. 

      Tumor only, preserving subcutaneous tissue for reconstruction

  • 43. 
    Roux-en-Y technique is most commonly used to repair a(n) ____________.
    • A. 

      Total gastrectomy

    • B. 

      Colon resection

    • C. 

      Cholecystectomy

    • D. 

      End-loop ileostomy

  • 44. 
    The pH of vaginal fluid is _________.
    • A. 

      Acidic

    • B. 

      Alkaline

    • C. 

      Neutral

    • D. 

      Base

  • 45. 
    The term D and C represents ______.
    • A. 

      Disinfection and culture

    • B. 

      Dilation and culture

    • C. 

      Dilation and curettage

    • D. 

      Desensitization and curettage

  • 46. 
    Cystocele is prolapse of the ________.
    • A. 

      Bladder into the vaginal vault

    • B. 

      Rectum into the vaginal vault

    • C. 

      Uterus through the vagina

    • D. 

      Intestine into the vaginal vault

  • 47. 
     A currette is a surgical instrument used to __________.
    • A. 

      Dilate an opening

    • B. 

      Marsupialize a cyst

    • C. 

      Remove tissue by scraping

    • D. 

      Provide traction

  • 48. 
    Which female gland secretes a lubricating mucoid substance?
    • A. 

      Cowper's gland

    • B. 

      Pineal gland

    • C. 

      Bartholin's gland

    • D. 

      Sudoriferous gland

  • 49. 
    What is the function of the iris?
    • A. 

      To alter the shape of the crystalline lens during accommodation

    • B. 

      To regulate the amount of light entering the eye through the pupil

    • C. 

      To produce tears

    • D. 

      To allow the optic nerve to carry visual impulses to the brain

  • 50. 
    Where are the lacrimal glands located?
    • A. 

      On the surface of the conjunctiva

    • B. 

      Within the upper eyelids

    • C. 

      Within the lower eyelids

    • D. 

      In the lateral corners of the eye

  • 51. 
    Why is Gelfoam used in ENT surgical procedures?
    • A. 

      Achieve hemostasis

    • B. 

      Reduce edema

    • C. 

      Reduce high blood pressure

    • D. 

      Increase body temperature

  • 52. 
    What does the term apnea mean?
    • A. 

      Not breathing

    • B. 

      Cardiac arrest

    • C. 

      Deaf

    • D. 

      Deviated septum

  • 53. 
    Panendoscopy may involve viewing of the __________.
    • A. 

      Lungs

    • B. 

      Stomach

    • C. 

      Esophagus

    • D. 

      Bronchi

  • 54. 
    What structures are removed during UPPP?
    • A. 

      Tonsils, adenoids, uvula, portion of the soft palate

    • B. 

      Adenoids, tongue, lingual tonsils, portion of the soft palate

    • C. 

      Tonsils, adenoids, nasal cartilage, all of the soft palate

    • D. 

      Adenoids, tonsils, tonsillar fossa, nasal cartilage

  • 55. 
    What is a major concern when operating on the parotid gland?
    • A. 

      Inability to produce saliva post-op

    • B. 

      Damange to the ossicles

    • C. 

      Carotid artery

    • D. 

      Facial nerve

  • 56. 
    During a tonsillectomy, which instrument can be used to put tension on the tonsil during dissection?
    • A. 

      Jensen Middleton

    • B. 

      Long Allis

    • C. 

      Rosen knife

    • D. 

      Aufricht retractor

  • 57. 
    Crescent-shaped cartilage found in the TMJ and knee joints is the _________.
    • A. 

      Sagittal

    • B. 

      Symphysis

    • C. 

      Ramus

    • D. 

      Meniscus

  • 58. 
    Which of the following is an action of epinephrine?
    • A. 

      Bronchodilation

    • B. 

      Vasoconstriction

    • C. 

      Analgesia

    • D. 

      Anticoagulant

  • 59. 
    Which radiographic view shows the hard palate, nasal septum, orbital floor, and zygoma?
    • A. 

      Water's view

    • B. 

      Caldwell view

    • C. 

      Panoramic view

    • D. 

      Lateral facial view

  • 60. 
    All are true regarding throat packs EXCEPT that ___________.
    • A. 

      Throat packs consist of rolled gauze that contains a radiopaque marker

    • B. 

      Throat packs are kept dry and used to prevent oral secretions, irrigation fluid, blood, and bone or tooth fragments from becoming lodged in the pharaynx

    • C. 

      The throat pack should be removed prior to extubation

    • D. 

      The throat pack should included in the formal count

  • 61. 
    Which muscle is responsible for flexing the hand at the wrist?
    • A. 

      Abductor pollicis brevis

    • B. 

      Extensor digitorum

    • C. 

      Palmaris longus

    • D. 

      Adductor pollicis

  • 62. 
    A cosmetic procedure performed on the eyelid is a (n) ___________.
    • A. 

      Blepharoplasty

    • B. 

      Suction lipectomy

    • C. 

      Rhinoplasty

    • D. 

      Augmentation

  • 63. 
    Which of the following best describes the area of the skin preparation for a reduction mammoplasty?
    • A. 

      Chest and breast, shoulders to xiphoid process

    • B. 

      Chest and breast, chin to xiphoid process including axilla

    • C. 

      Chest and breast, chin to hips including axilla

    • D. 

      Chest and breast, shoulders to hips

  • 64. 
    How many phalanges are in a normal hand?
    • A. 

      12

    • B. 

      14

    • C. 

      16

    • D. 

      18

  • 65. 
    Which of the following is a topical anesthetic inserted into the nose prior to a plastic nasal procedure?
    • A. 

      Bupivacaine

    • B. 

      Tetracaine

    • C. 

      Meperidine

    • D. 

      Fentanyl

  • 66. 
    Which type of instrument will be attached to the Mayo stand during a cleft palate repair?
    • A. 

      Cottle elevator

    • B. 

      Bookwalter

    • C. 

      Weitlaner

    • D. 

      Self-retaining mouth gag

  • 67. 
    Which type of flap allows the tissue to be transfered to remain attached to its blood supply?
    • A. 

      Free flap

    • B. 

      Pedicle flap

    • C. 

      Skin tag

    • D. 

      De Quervain's

  • 68. 
    Which portion of the renal tubule system is responsible for increasing the surface area for enhanced absorption and secretion?
    • A. 

      Bowman's capsule

    • B. 

      Distal convoluted tubule

    • C. 

      Loop of Henle

    • D. 

      Poximal convoluted tubule

  • 69. 
    What surgical instrument is used to remove tissue fragments from within the bladder during a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)?
    • A. 

      Resectoscope

    • B. 

      Urethrotome

    • C. 

      Ellik evacuator

    • D. 

      Urethral forceps

  • 70. 
    The right kidney is located slightly lower that the left, due to the _________.
    • A. 

      Liver

    • B. 

      Pancreas

    • C. 

      Spleen

    • D. 

      Transverse abdominal

  • 71. 
    The kidneys are bounded by the __________ muscles on the medical side.
    • A. 

      Detrusor

    • B. 

      Cremaster

    • C. 

      Psoas

    • D. 

      Transverse abdominal

  • 72. 
    If the ureters are difficult to identify when the bladder is opened, intravenous __________ may facilitate locating the orifices.
    • A. 

      Methylene blue

    • B. 

      Gentian violet

    • C. 

      Indigo carmine

    • D. 

      Omnipaque

  • 73. 
    • A softening of adult bone due to a disorder in calcium and phosphorus metabolism is called _________.
    • A. 

      Osteochondritis

    • B. 

      Osteogenesis

    • C. 

      Osteomalacia

    • D. 

      Osteonecrosis

  • 74. 
    Which of the following constitutes the anterior portion of the coxal bone?
    • A. 

      Ischium

    • B. 

      Ilium

    • C. 

      Sacrum

    • D. 

      Pubis

  • 75. 
    Which style of cast is applied to the trunk, around the affected leg, and around half of the unaffected leg?
    • A. 

      Long-leg cast

    • B. 

      Cylinder cast

    • C. 

      Hip spica

    • D. 

      Body jacket

  • 76. 
    The coronary arteries arise form the ________.
    • A. 

      Arota

    • B. 

      Vena cavae

    • C. 

      Pulmonary artery

    • D. 

      Subclavian artery

  • 77. 
    What medical term refers to the abdominal accumulation of air in the pleural cavity?
    • A. 

      Pneumocentesis

    • B. 

      Pneumothorax

    • C. 

      Pleural effusion

    • D. 

      Thoracic outlet syndrome

  • 78. 
    Which mechanical device is designed for circulatory support after cardiac procedure?
    • A. 

      Cell saver

    • B. 

      Fogarty embolectomy catheter

    • C. 

      Intra-aortic balloon pump

    • D. 

      Arterial line

  • 79. 
    The trachea divides at the ________ into right and left bronchi.
    • A. 

      Glottis

    • B. 

      Carina

    • C. 

      Epiglottis

    • D. 

      Bronchioles

  • 80. 
    Symptomatic lesions of the mediastinum are malignanat in _______% of all patients?
    • A. 

      50

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      60

    • D. 

      10

  • 81. 
    For the posterolateral position, the operating room personnel should have which of the following available?
    • A. 

      2 inch adhesive tape

    • B. 

      Beanbag

    • C. 

      Extra arm board

    • D. 

      Shoulder rests

  • 82. 
    Which veins receive blood from the brain, meninges, and deeper regions of the face and neck?
    • A. 

      Brachiocephalic

    • B. 

      External jugular

    • C. 

      Internal jugular

    • D. 

      Common carotid

  • 83. 
    For an aortofemoral bypass, which statement is NOT correct?
    • A. 

      The patient will be prepped from midchest to midthigh and as far as possible on each side.

    • B. 

      The circulator should ensure that blood is available for the patient.

    • C. 

      The arterial incision is made with a #10 blade on a long #3 handle.

    • D. 

      2-0 or 3-0 silk ties can be used to ligate larger, deeper vessels

  • 84. 
    What graft material is not recommended to be used in the popliteal space?
    • A. 

      PTFE

    • B. 

      Porous Dacron graft

    • C. 

      Saphenous vein

    • D. 

      Specialized knitted velour Dacron graft

  • 85. 
    Which type of needle is appropriate for closing a blood vessel?
    • A. 

      Blunt

    • B. 

      Conventional cutting

    • C. 

      Taper

    • D. 

      Side cutting

  • 86. 
    The external iliac arteries branch into the ________ arteries.
    • A. 

      Internal iliac

    • B. 

      Femoral

    • C. 

      Celiac

    • D. 

      Brachial

  • 87. 
    Which drug is used to suppress arterial vasospasm?
    • A. 

      Avitene

    • B. 

      Hypaque

    • C. 

      Papaverine

    • D. 

      Heparin

  • 88. 
    The _______ serves as a relay station for sensory impulses by channeling them to appropriate regions of the cortex for interpretation.
    • A. 

      Hypothalamus

    • B. 

      Thalamus

    • C. 

      Basal ganglia

    • D. 

      Pons

  • 89. 
    The medulla oblongata controls which visceral activity?
    • A. 

      Cardiac

    • B. 

      Vasomotor

    • C. 

      Resporatory

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 90. 
    A ventricular shunt can be placed distally in the _________.
    • A. 

      Ventricle or the perineum

    • B. 

      Atrium or the peritoneal cavity

    • C. 

      Atrium or the throacic cavity

    • D. 

      Ventricle or the aorta

  • 91. 
    What is the best temperature for irrigation used on the brain?
    • A. 

      Cold

    • B. 

      Hot

    • C. 

      Room temperature

    • D. 

      Body temperature

  • 92. 
    Which statement is NOT correct regarding the placement  of the bone flap?
    • A. 

      The bone flap is placed after the muscle layer is closed with an absorbable suture.

    • B. 

      The bone flap is placed after the dura has been securely closed.

    • C. 

      The bone flap remains on the sterile field throughout the procedure, typically in a solution of antibiotic saline.

    • D. 

      The bone flap can be fixated to the skull with the use of titanium miniplates and screws.

  • 93. 
    The sphenoid bone forms __________.
    • A. 

      A small portion of the sides and floor of the cranium.

    • B. 

      A large portion of the sides and roof of the cranium.

    • C. 

      Portions of the base of the cranium, sides of the skull, and base and sides for the orbits.

    • D. 

      Portions of the roof and walls of the nasal cavity, the floor of the cranium, and walls of the orbits.

  • 94. 
    The midbrain is located just below the _________.
    • A. 

      Hypothalamus

    • B. 

      Pituitary

    • C. 

      Thalamus

    • D. 

      Pons

  • 95. 
    What nerve controls the voluntary muscles of the pharynx, larynx, palate, sternocleidomastoid, and trapezius?
    • A. 

      Accessory

    • B. 

      Hypoglossal

    • C. 

      Glossophryngeal

    • D. 

      Abducens

  • 96. 
    What name is given to the room in the surgery department that contains sinks for gross decontamination of instruments?
    • A. 

      Substerile

    • B. 

      Sterile storage

    • C. 

      Decontamination

    • D. 

      Instrument

  • 97. 
    The term PACU refers to the _________.
    • A. 

      Post ambulatory care unit

    • B. 

      Primary anesthesia care unit

    • C. 

      Post anesthesia care unit

    • D. 

      Preoperative ambulatory care unit

  • 98. 
    Permanent surgical specimens are usually sent to the pathologist in __________.
    • A. 

      Saline

    • B. 

      Formalin

    • C. 

      A dry container

    • D. 

      A moist towel

  • 99. 
    Operating room walls should have which characteristic?
    • A. 

      Surgically clean and tiled

    • B. 

      Bright white to create a sense of sterility

    • C. 

      Easy to clean with an antimicrobial solution

    • D. 

      Mini blinds for pateint privacy

  • 100. 
    The room where patients are "recovered" immediately following surgery is known as the ____________.
    • A. 

      PACU

    • B. 

      JCAHO

    • C. 

      CPSD

    • D. 

      NCIU

  • 101. 
    Which of the following is a reason a patient may be extubated in the recovery room instead of the operating room suite?
    • A. 

      Tachypnea

    • B. 

      Tachycardia

    • C. 

      Patient can breathe unassisted

    • D. 

      Patient cannot breathe unassisted.

  • 102. 
    When stainless steel instruments are manually cleaned, a (n) ________ should be used to avoid scratching the surface of the instrument.
    • A. 

      Circular motion

    • B. 

      Abrasive cleanser

    • C. 

      Wire brush

    • D. 

      Back and forth motion

  • 103. 
    What is a limitation of using water as a presoaking solution?
    • A. 

      Ineffective at removing dried debris

    • B. 

      Too expensive

    • C. 

      Not readily available

    • D. 

      Not a sterile solution

  • 104. 
    Why should saline NOT be used to clean stainless steel surgical instruments?
    • A. 

      Saline is not virucidal

    • B. 

      Salt will pit the stainless steel

    • C. 

      Saline is not sterile

    • D. 

      Saline is expensive

  • 105. 
    An enzyme is usually used as a (n) ____________.
    • A. 

      Sterilant

    • B. 

      Disinfectant

    • C. 

      Antiseptic

    • D. 

      Soaking solution

  • 106. 
    Which of the following reflects the basic values for health care practice?
    • A. 

      Laws

    • B. 

      Standards

    • C. 

      Guidelines

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 107. 
    Accountability is defined as a (n) ___________.
    • A. 

      Disclosure

    • B. 

      Obligation

    • C. 

      Threat

    • D. 

      Evaluation

  • 108. 
    Negligence is a breach of duty and is defined as ____________.
    • A. 

      An omission

    • B. 

      Perjury

    • C. 

      Tort

    • D. 

      Larceny

  • 109. 
    When taking hot surgical instruments from a steam autoclave, the surgical technologist is responsible for cooling the instruments with __________.
    • A. 

      Alcohol

    • B. 

      Sterile saline

    • C. 

      Glutaraldehyde

    • D. 

      Sterile water

  • 110. 
    What must be done to electrical devices in the operating room to prevent the risk of burns to the patient?
    • A. 

      Grounded properly

    • B. 

      Turned off prior to use

    • C. 

      Tested frequently

    • D. 

      Both A and C

  • 111. 
    Loss or mishandling of a specimen could be considered negligence and could result in __________.
    • A. 

      Another surgical procedure

    • B. 

      Improper specimen preparation

    • C. 

      Improper specimen analysis

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 112. 
    The only method used to ensure the sterility of items is ____________.
    • A. 

      Chemical indicator strips

    • B. 

      Biological indicators

    • C. 

      Mechanical indicators

    • D. 

      Bowie-Dick test

  • 113. 
    Implied consent may apply when ________.
    • A. 

      Consulting physicians agree

    • B. 

      The patient is conscious

    • C. 

      Conditions are discovered during surgery

    • D. 

      The patient is an emancipated minor

  • 114. 
    In the health care field, the term _________ is used broadly to refer to the placing of information into a patient's medical record.
    • A. 

      Register

    • B. 

      Remodeling

    • C. 

      Documenting

    • D. 

      Diagram

  • 115. 
    The dense connective tissue covering outer surface of bone diaphysis is termed:
    • A. 

      Perichondrium

    • B. 

      Periosteum

    • C. 

      Endosteum

    • D. 

      Exofibrium

    • E. 

      Articular cartilage

  • 116. 
    Which of the following bones is considered a sesamoid bone:
    • A. 

      Sternum

    • B. 

      Ethmoid

    • C. 

      Femur

    • D. 

      Patella

    • E. 

      Phalanx

  • 117. 
    These two components in bone are responsible for the hardness and pliability of bone:
    • A. 

      Osteoclasts & collagen

    • B. 

      Mineralized salts & osteocytes

    • C. 

      Mineralized salts & collagen

    • D. 

      Collagen & elastic fibers

    • E. 

      Collagen & mesenchyme

  • 118. 
    A fracture in the shaft of a long bone would be a break in the :
    • A. 

      Epiphysis

    • B. 

      Metaphysis

    • C. 

      Diaphysis

    • D. 

      Epiphyseal plate

    • E. 

      Mesenchyme

  • 119. 
    Yellow marrow consists of:
    • A. 

      Osteoprogenitor cells

    • B. 

      Blood cell progenitor cells

    • C. 

      Hyaline carilage

    • D. 

      Adipose

    • E. 

      Spongy bone

  • 120. 
    Chondroblasts produce:
    • A. 

      Basement membranes

    • B. 

      Bone matrix

    • C. 

      Cartilage matrix

    • D. 

      Mesothelium

    • E. 

      Endothelium

  • 121. 
    These structures are at the center of compact bone lamellae and carry blood vessels along the bone length:
    • A. 

      Haversain canals

    • B. 

      Canaliculi

    • C. 

      Perforating canals

    • D. 

      Osteocytes

    • E. 

      Lacunae

  • 122. 
    The cell type that is responsible for maintaining bone matrix once it has formed is:
    • A. 

      Osteoclasts

    • B. 

      Chondrocytes

    • C. 

      Ostecytes

    • D. 

      Fibroblasts

    • E. 

      Osteoblasts

  • 123. 
    Soft connective tissue membranes between the cranial bones at birth are:
    • A. 

      An indication of microcephaly

    • B. 

      Frontal sinuses

    • C. 

      Epiphyseal plates

    • D. 

      Cribriform plates

    • E. 

      Fontanelles

  • 124. 
    Endochondral and intramembraneous are two mechanisms of:
    • A. 

      Bone remodeling

    • B. 

      Embryonic skeletal ossification

    • C. 

      Controlling blood calcium levels

    • D. 

      Carilage synthesis

  • 125. 
    Which of the following is not a cranial suture:
    • A. 

      Epiphyseal

    • B. 

      Lambdoidal

    • C. 

      Coronal

    • D. 

      Sagittal

    • E. 

      Squamous

  • 126. 
    The two pairs of bones that make up the hard palate are the right and left:
    • A. 

      Zygomatic and temporal

    • B. 

      Palatine and maxillae

    • C. 

      Maxillae and zygomatic

    • D. 

      Maxillae and mandible

  • 127. 
    The two bones that make up the posterior nasal septum are the:
    • A. 

      Nasal and lacrimal

    • B. 

      Inferior nasal choncae and vomer

    • C. 

      Vomer and ethmoid

    • D. 

      Ethmoid and sphenoid

  • 128. 
    Which of the following is the most serious or life-threatening:
    • A. 

      Deviated nasal septum

    • B. 

      Sinusitis

    • C. 

      Damaged cribriform plate

    • D. 

      Damaged or cleft palate

    • E. 

      Ruptured bursae

  • 129. 
    "Articulations" refer to:
    • A. 

      Broken bones

    • B. 

      The study of individual bones

    • C. 

      Bone growth and remodeling

    • D. 

      Structures on bones where muscles attach

    • E. 

      Joints

  • 130. 
    Which of the following bone isnot part of the cranium:
    • A. 

      Sphenoid

    • B. 

      Palatine

    • C. 

      Ethmoid

    • D. 

      Occipital

  • 131. 
    Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton:
    • A. 

      Femur

    • B. 

      Sternum

    • C. 

      Mandible

    • D. 

      Sacrum

  • 132. 
    The "Hunchback" of Notre Dame probably suffered from:
    • A. 

      Cleft palate

    • B. 

      Scoliosis

    • C. 

      Kyphosis

    • D. 

      Lordosis

    • E. 

      Spina bifida

  • 133. 
    Incomplete closure of the vertebral column results in:
    • A. 

      Spina bifida

    • B. 

      Scoliosis

    • C. 

      Sinusitis

    • D. 

      Kyphosis

    • E. 

      Lordosis

  • 134. 
    The thickened cartilage "cushions" found in the knee and vertebral joints that absorb compression are:
    • A. 

      The menisci

    • B. 

      The bursae

    • C. 

      The ligaments

    • D. 

      The synovial capsules

    • E. 

      Epiphyseal plates

  • 135. 
    Which of the following does not describe synovial joints:
    • A. 

      Bones held together by cartilage

    • B. 

      Joints surfaces of bones covered with articlating cartilage

    • C. 

      Has joint cavity

    • D. 

      Has 2- layered joint capsule

    • E. 

      Most freely movable of joints

  • 136. 
    A ligament running along the side of the knee joint is a :
    • A. 

      Cruciate

    • B. 

      Bursae

    • C. 

      Collateral

    • D. 

      Patellar

  • 137. 
    Which of the following is least likely to require arthroscopic surgery:
    • A. 

      Removal of a torn meniscus in the knee

    • B. 

      Removal of torn articular cartilage in the knee

    • C. 

      Repair of a torn lateral collateral ligament in the knee

    • D. 

      Repair of a torn anterior cruciate ligament in the knee

  • 138. 
    The Haversian (central) canal in each osteon contains:
    • A. 

      Chondroitin sulfate

    • B. 

      Hydroxyapatite

    • C. 

      Osteoblasts

    • D. 

      Blood vessels

    • E. 

      Synovial fluid

  • 139. 
    This hormone stimulates the breakdown of bone and the increase in blood calcium levels:
    • A. 

      Growth hormone

    • B. 

      Estrogen

    • C. 

      Parathyroid hormone

    • D. 

      Calcitonin

  • 140. 
    The space in the middle of the thoracic cavity where the heart resides is the:
    • A. 

      Pericardial cavity

    • B. 

      Pericardium

    • C. 

      Pleural cavity

    • D. 

      Mediastinum

    • E. 

      Dorsal cavity

  • 141. 
    Blood returning from the lungs enters the heart through the:
    • A. 

      Pulmonary semilunar vavle

    • B. 

      Mitral valve

    • C. 

      Right ventricle

    • D. 

      Left atrium

    • E. 

      Vena cava

  • 142. 
    During ventricular systole?
    • A. 

      The atria are contracting

    • B. 

      The AV valves are closed

    • C. 

      The pressure inside the ventricles is less than in the atria

    • D. 

      The mitral valve is closed

    • E. 

      Blood is ejected into the atria

  • 143. 
    A vertical plane through the body dividing it into right and left is termed:
    • A. 

      Sagittal

    • B. 

      Lateral

    • C. 

      Transverse

    • D. 

      Frontal

  • 144. 
    The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Palms facing posterior

    • B. 

      Thumbs pointing laterally

    • C. 

      Face pointing anteriorly

    • D. 

      Body standing upright

  • 145. 
    The number of microbes or organic debris that exist at a given time is referred to as ____________.
    • A. 

      Asepsis

    • B. 

      Contamination

    • C. 

      Bioburden

    • D. 

      Sterilization

  • 146. 
    Which term is used to describe "the multiplication of organisms in tissue"?
    • A. 

      Nosocomial

    • B. 

      Infection

    • C. 

      Cross contamination

    • D. 

      Culture

  • 147. 
    Escherichia coli normally resides in the lumen of the ___________.
    • A. 

      Esophagus

    • B. 

      Trachea

    • C. 

      Intestine

    • D. 

      Urethra

  • 148. 
    Bacilli are typically found to be in the shape of
    • A. 

      Spirals

    • B. 

      Rounds

    • C. 

      L forms

    • D. 

      Rods

  • 149. 
    Bacteria that require oxygen to sustain life are called __________.
    • A. 

      Anaerobic

    • B. 

      Aerobic

    • C. 

      Rods

    • D. 

      Protozoa

  • 150. 
    Which pathogen leads in the percentage of surgical site infections?
    • A. 

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • B. 

      Cryptosporidium

    • C. 

      Candida albicans

    • D. 

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa

  • 151. 
    What dormant structure can some bacteria form to survive adverse environmental conditions?
    • A. 

      Vegetative state

    • B. 

      Spore

    • C. 

      Spirillum

    • D. 

      Lysogenic

  • 152. 
     A nonliving particle that is completely reliant on the host cell for survival is called a ___________.
    • A. 

      Bacteria

    • B. 

      Fungus

    • C. 

      Protozoa

    • D. 

      Virus

  • 153. 
    A bloodborne pathogen that puts health care workers at particular risk is ____________.
    • A. 

      Hepatitis C

    • B. 

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • C. 

      Mycobacterium tuberculosis

    • D. 

      All helminths

  • 154. 
    Microbes that live on the skin and inside the human body are referred to as _____________.
    • A. 

      Symbiotic

    • B. 

      Indigenous

    • C. 

      Anaerobic

    • D. 

      Aerobic

  • 155. 
    Drug administered within a joint is ___________.
    • A. 

      Subcutaneous

    • B. 

      Intravenous

    • C. 

      Intra-articular

    • D. 

      Dermal

  • 156. 
    Drugs with a high potential to cause psychological or physical dependence and abuse are called __________.
    • A. 

      Over the counter medications

    • B. 

      Chemical substances

    • C. 

      Prescription medications

    • D. 

      Controlled substances

  • 157. 
    The main function of the liver in metabolism is to __________.
    • A. 

      Break down drug molecules

    • B. 

      Transport the drug

    • C. 

      Absorb the drug

    • D. 

      Distribute the drug

  • 158. 
    Pharmacodynamics describes the interaction of the ______________.
    • A. 

      Target organ and circulatory system

    • B. 

      Drugs and capillaries

    • C. 

      Heart and lungs

    • D. 

      Drug molecules and target cells

  • 159. 
    The time is takes from the administration of a drug until its action becomes evident refers to  __________.
    • A. 

      Transition period

    • B. 

      Onset

    • C. 

      Duration

    • D. 

      Function

  • 160. 
    What theory states that the active substance in a drug has an affinity for a specific chemical constituent of a cell?
    • A. 

      Drug-enzyme interaction

    • B. 

      Drug-receptor interaction

    • C. 

      Membrane interaction

    • D. 

      Antagonistic drug interaction

  • 161. 
    Which of the following focuses on altering the patient's level of consciousness and minimizing pain and awareness?
    • A. 

      Conduction blockade

    • B. 

      General anesthesia

    • C. 

      Hypnosis

    • D. 

      Amnesia

  • 162. 
    Which of the following is the generic name for Marcaine?
    • A. 

      Pitocin

    • B. 

      Xylocaine

    • C. 

      Bupivacaine

    • D. 

      Novocain

  • 163. 
    Which agents selectively interrupt the associative pathways of the brain?
    • A. 

      Opioids

    • B. 

      Dissociative

    • C. 

      Induction

    • D. 

      Tranquilizers

  • 164. 
    When stainless steel instruments are manually cleaned, a (n) ________ should be used to avoid scratching the surface of the instrument.
    • A. 

      Circular motion

    • B. 

      Abrasive cleanser

    • C. 

      Wire brush

    • D. 

      Back and forth motion

  • 165. 
    What is a limitation of using water as a presoaking solution?
    • A. 

      Ineffective at removing dried debris

    • B. 

      Too expensive

    • C. 

      Not readily available

    • D. 

      Not a sterile solution

  • 166. 
    The ultrasonic washer is an example os a __________.
    • A. 

      Sterilizer

    • B. 

      Mechanical decontamination unit

    • C. 

      Physical decontamination method

    • D. 

      Bioburden

  • 167. 
    The washer decontaminator does NOT render the instruments __________.
    • A. 

      Sterile

    • B. 

      Surgically clean

    • C. 

      Disinfected

    • D. 

      Safe to handle

  • 168. 
    At the end of the washer sterilization cycle, instruments are NOT considered ____________.
    • A. 

      Safe to handle

    • B. 

      Appropriate for use on the patient

    • C. 

      Ready for assembly into sets

    • D. 

      Ready for processing

  • 169. 
    An intermediate level of disinfection may be appropriate for __________.
    • A. 

      Semicritical items

    • B. 

      Critical items

    • C. 

      Microsurgical instruments

    • D. 

      GI instruments

  • 170. 
    Physical factors that affect the efficiency of disinfection are __________.
    • A. 

      Time, temperature, pressure

    • B. 

      Humidity, temperature, pressure

    • C. 

      Temperature, gross debris, bioburden

    • D. 

      Temperature, bioburden, time

  • 171. 
    To prevent the formation of condensate in nested basins( double basin), what must be done?
    • A. 

      Seperate the basins with a towel

    • B. 

      Do not nest the basins

    • C. 

      Ensure metal to metal contact

    • D. 

      Seperate the basins with a plastic sheet

  • 172. 
    Which would be best suited for reprocessing surgical instruments exposed to clostridium?
    • A. 

      Glutaraldehyde

    • B. 

      Cidex

    • C. 

      Isopropyl alcohol

    • D. 

      Pre-vac

  • 173. 
    The process used to relieve pain during surgical intervention refers to __________ administration.
    • A. 

      Tranquilizer

    • B. 

      Anesthesia

    • C. 

      Narcotics

    • D. 

      Neuromuscular block

  • 174. 
    Which risk is not associated with gerneral anesthesia?
    • A. 

      Cardiac arrest

    • B. 

      Shock

    • C. 

      Muscle relaxation

    • D. 

      Allergic reaction

  • 175. 
    Demerol, Sublimaze, Sufenta, and Alfenta are examples of ___________.
    • A. 

      Opioids

    • B. 

      Dissociative agents

    • C. 

      Narcotic antagonists

    • D. 

      Hypnotic agents