Crj 200 Oral Test Bank
Use the best answer
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Who is responsible to ensure a preflight inspection is accomplished?
- A.
First Officer
- B.
Captain (PIC)
- C.
Flight Attendant
Correct Answer
B. Captain (PIC)Explanation
The Captain (PIC) is responsible for ensuring that a preflight inspection is accomplished. As the Pilot in Command, the Captain has the overall authority and responsibility for the safe operation of the aircraft. This includes ensuring that all necessary checks and inspections are completed before each flight. The First Officer and Flight Attendant may assist in the inspection process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the Captain.Rate this question:
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- 2.
There are two types of "Preflight Inspections" a "Detailed Inspection", and a "General Inspection", when is a detailed inspection required?
- A.
Prior to the first flight of the day
- B.
After significant maintenance has been performed
- C.
Anytime the aircraft's condition is in question
- D.
When the flight attendant tells you to
Correct Answer(s)
A. Prior to the first flight of the day
B. After significant maintenance has been performed
C. Anytime the aircraft's condition is in questionExplanation
A detailed inspection is required prior to the first flight of the day, after significant maintenance has been performed, and anytime the aircraft's condition is in question. This means that before the aircraft takes off for the first time in a day, a thorough inspection must be conducted to ensure its airworthiness. Additionally, after any major maintenance work has been done, another detailed inspection is necessary to verify that the aircraft is in proper working order. Lastly, if there are any doubts or concerns about the condition of the aircraft, a detailed inspection should be carried out to address those concerns.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What does an item with an asterisk (*) next to it indicate on the "Preflight Inspection"?
- A.
An item that must be checked during the aircraft security search as directed by the FOM
- B.
An item that is extra special
Correct Answer
A. An item that must be checked during the aircraft security search as directed by the FOMExplanation
An item with an asterisk (*) next to it on the "Preflight Inspection" indicates that it must be checked during the aircraft security search as directed by the FOM.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Before the first flight of the day: galley, ceiling, and sidewall lights must be illuminated bright for how long? ______ minutes to sufficiently charge the floors track photoluminescent lighting.
Correct Answer
15Explanation
The galley, ceiling, and sidewall lights must be illuminated bright for 15 minutes before the first flight of the day in order to sufficiently charge the floors track photoluminescent lighting. This ensures that the photoluminescent lighting will have enough energy to emit light during the flight, providing visibility and safety for passengers and crew.Rate this question:
- 5.
Before conducting the "APU FIRE TEST" during the flight deck safety check, what must you ensure?
- A.
There is no APU FIRE FAIL caution message
- B.
There is a APU FIRE FAIL caution message
- C.
The airplane is parked at an odd gate number
Correct Answer
A. There is no APU FIRE FAIL caution messageExplanation
Before conducting the "APU FIRE TEST" during the flight deck safety check, you must ensure that there is no APU FIRE FAIL caution message. This means that there are no indications or warnings of a potential fire in the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit). It is important to address any potential fire risks before conducting the test to ensure the safety of the aircraft and its occupants.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What is the minimum voltage required on the APU and Main batteries prior to starting the APU? ____ volts
Correct Answer
22
22 voltsExplanation
The minimum voltage required on both the APU and Main batteries prior to starting the APU is 22 volts.Rate this question:
- 7.
At ____ % RPM the APU starter normally cuts out during the APU Start.
Correct Answer
50Explanation
At 50% RPM, the APU starter normally cuts out during the APU start. This means that once the APU reaches 50% of its maximum rotational speed, the starter motor disengages and stops assisting in starting the APU. This is a normal operating procedure and indicates that the APU is running smoothly and can continue to operate independently without the assistance of the starter motor.Rate this question:
- 8.
When does the APU Green "AVAIL" indication light illuminate?
- A.
99% + 4 seconds
- B.
95% + 4 seconds
- C.
95% + 5 seconds
- D.
99% + 5 seconds
Correct Answer
B. 95% + 4 secondsExplanation
The APU Green "AVAIL" indication light illuminates when the APU reaches a speed of 95% and remains at that speed for 4 seconds. This indicates that the APU is available and ready to be used for various aircraft functions.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What does the APU Green "AVAIL" light mean?
- A.
APU is available for AC Power
- B.
APU is available for Bleed air extraction
- C.
APU is single and wants an date
Correct Answer
B. APU is available for Bleed air extractionExplanation
The APU Green "AVAIL" light indicates that the APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) is available for bleed air extraction. Bleed air is used to power various aircraft systems such as air conditioning, pressurization, and engine starting. This light indicates that the APU is ready to provide this necessary air supply.Rate this question:
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- 10.
After the APU is started, how long must you wait before applying bleed air loads? ______ minutes, except when the APU is used for emergencies or abnormal conditions
Correct Answer
2Explanation
After the APU is started, you must wait for 2 minutes before applying bleed air loads, except when the APU is used for emergencies or abnormal conditions. This waiting period allows the APU to stabilize and reach its optimal operating conditions before any additional loads are applied. Applying bleed air loads too soon could potentially disrupt the APU's operation and cause issues with the aircraft's systems.Rate this question:
- 11.
How long does it take for the AHRS to initialize in the MAG mode?
- A.
30 to 70 seconds
- B.
45 seconds to 10 minutes
- C.
Up to 11 minutes
Correct Answer
A. 30 to 70 secondsExplanation
The AHRS (Attitude and Heading Reference System) takes approximately 30 to 70 seconds to initialize in the MAG (Magnetic) mode. During this time, the system calibrates and aligns itself to accurately measure and display the aircraft's attitude and heading based on magnetic sensors. This initialization process is necessary to ensure the AHRS provides reliable and accurate information to the pilot.Rate this question:
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- 12.
How long can it take for AHRS alignment in the DG mode?
- A.
Up to 11 minutes
- B.
30 to 70 seconds
- C.
5 minutes
Correct Answer
A. Up to 11 minutesExplanation
The AHRS alignment in DG mode can take up to 11 minutes. This process involves aligning the Attitude and Heading Reference System (AHRS) to the Directional Gyro (DG) in order to ensure accurate attitude and heading information. The alignment time may vary depending on factors such as the aircraft's equipment and the specific AHRS system being used. However, in this case, the maximum time it can take is 11 minutes.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is the primary purpose of the Flight Deck Safety Check?
- A.
To get the apu fire tested?
- B.
To apply electrical power to the aircraft
- C.
To have something to do when you get to the plane in the morning
Correct Answer
B. To apply electrical power to the aircraftExplanation
The primary purpose of the Flight Deck Safety Check is to apply electrical power to the aircraft. This check ensures that all the necessary electrical systems are functioning properly before the flight. It is an essential step in the pre-flight procedures to ensure the safety and readiness of the aircraft for departure.Rate this question:
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- 14.
When is a Flight Deck Inspection required
- A.
Aircraft's First Flight of the Day
- B.
Crew/Aircraft Change
- C.
Aircraft status is in question
Correct Answer(s)
A. Aircraft's First Flight of the Day
B. Crew/Aircraft Change
C. Aircraft status is in questionExplanation
A Flight Deck Inspection is required in three situations:
1) Aircraft's First Flight of the Day: This ensures that the flight deck is in proper working condition before the aircraft takes off for the first flight of the day.
2) Crew/Aircraft Change: Whenever there is a change in crew or aircraft, a Flight Deck Inspection is necessary to ensure that everything is in order and ready for the next flight.
3) Aircraft status is in question: If there are any doubts or concerns about the aircraft's status, a Flight Deck Inspection is required to assess and address any issues before proceeding with the flight.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What does the " * " next to items mean on the Flight Deck Inspection Check?
- A.
First Officer Duties
- B.
First Flight of the Day Items
- C.
Optional items on the checklist
Correct Answer
B. First Flight of the Day ItemsExplanation
The " * " next to items on the Flight Deck Inspection Check indicates that they are the First Flight of the Day Items. These items are crucial to be checked before the first flight of the day to ensure the safety and proper functioning of the aircraft. They may include tasks like checking fuel levels, inspecting the exterior of the aircraft, verifying emergency equipment, and testing communication systems. These items are essential to be completed before each flight to ensure the aircraft is in a suitable condition for operation.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What precautions must be taken prior to turning hydraulic pump 3A on during the Flight Deck Safety Check?
- A.
Make sure you clean the switch with an alcohol wipe
- B.
Ask a mechanic to use the switch
- C.
Confirm the Nose wheel area is clear or the Nose Door Closed
Correct Answer
C. Confirm the Nose wheel area is clear or the Nose Door ClosedExplanation
Prior to turning hydraulic pump 3A on during the Flight Deck Safety Check, it is important to confirm that the nose wheel area is clear or the nose door is closed. This precaution ensures the safety of the aircraft and prevents any potential accidents or damage that could occur if the area is not clear or the door is not closed properly. It is not necessary to clean the switch with an alcohol wipe or involve a mechanic in this specific step of the safety check.Rate this question:
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- 17.
How quickly must AC electrical power be established after the Battery Master switch has been turned on? ______ minutes, to prevent EICAS overheating
Correct Answer
5Explanation
AC electrical power must be established within 5 minutes after the Battery Master switch has been turned on to prevent EICAS (Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System) overheating. This is important because the EICAS is a critical system that provides essential information to the flight crew regarding the status and performance of the aircraft's engines and other systems. Delaying the establishment of AC electrical power beyond this timeframe could lead to overheating of the EICAS, potentially causing malfunctions or failures in the system, which could compromise the safety of the flight.Rate this question:
- 18.
What documents are required to be checked and ensured to be on board the aircraft?
- A.
AML
- B.
QRH
- C.
MEL
- D.
CDL / DDL
- E.
Speed Cards
- F.
Airworthiness Certificate
- G.
Registration
- H.
Radio Station License
- I.
Cell Phone
- J.
US today
Correct Answer(s)
A. AML
B. QRH
C. MEL
D. CDL / DDL
E. Speed Cards
F. Airworthiness Certificate
G. Registration
H. Radio Station LicenseExplanation
The documents that are required to be checked and ensured to be on board the aircraft include the Aircraft Maintenance Log (AML), Quick Reference Handbook (QRH), Minimum Equipment List (MEL), Configuration Deviation List (CDL) or Dispatch Deviation List (DDL), Speed Cards, Airworthiness Certificate, Registration, and Radio Station License. These documents are necessary for the safe operation and compliance of the aircraft with regulatory requirements. The inclusion of "Cell Phone" and "US today" in the list seems to be irrelevant and does not pertain to the required documents for the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 19.
When should the Before Start Check be accomplished? Approximately ____ minutes prior to departure.
Correct Answer(s)
10Explanation
The Before Start Check should be accomplished approximately 10 minutes prior to departure. This check is usually conducted by the flight crew to ensure that all necessary pre-flight tasks and inspections have been completed before the aircraft takes off. It involves verifying the aircraft's systems, instruments, controls, and other important components to ensure they are in proper working order and ready for flight. Completing this check 10 minutes before departure allows enough time for any necessary adjustments or corrections to be made before the aircraft begins its journey.Rate this question:
- 20.
Reference the Cleared to Start Check response to "PAPERS.............ON BOARD." What papers must be onboard?
- A.
Manual Load Manifest (FT451) as required
- B.
Dispatch flight release / flight plan
- C.
Customs Clearance
- D.
Personal Logbook
- E.
Personal Schedule
Correct Answer(s)
A. Manual Load Manifest (FT451) as required
B. Dispatch flight release / flight plan
C. Customs ClearanceExplanation
The papers that must be onboard according to the Cleared to Start Check response are the Manual Load Manifest (FT451) as required, Dispatch flight release / flight plan, and Customs Clearance. These documents are necessary for ensuring the safety and legality of the flight. The Manual Load Manifest provides information about the cargo and its distribution in the aircraft. The Dispatch flight release / flight plan contains important details about the flight, such as the route, fuel requirements, and weather conditions. The Customs Clearance document is necessary for complying with customs regulations when crossing international borders.Rate this question:
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- 21.
When checking the Fuel Check Valve, what is the procedure if you do not get the R FUEL LO PRESS caution message after 20 seconds?(you have not attempted starting the right engine yet)
- A.
Stop the Left Engine and call maintenance
- B.
We never should get a R FUEL LO PRESS caution message
- C.
Initiate the right engine start
Correct Answer
C. Initiate the right engine startExplanation
If the R FUEL LO PRESS caution message is not received after 20 seconds, it indicates that there is no issue with the fuel pressure in the left engine. Therefore, the correct course of action would be to proceed with initiating the right engine start as there is no indication of any fuel problem.Rate this question:
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- 22.
If you do not get a R FUEL LO PRESS caution message during the right engine start, you should discontinue the Right Engine Start and contact maintenance.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
If a R FUEL LO PRESS caution message is not displayed during the right engine start, it indicates that there may be a problem with the fuel pressure in the right engine. This could potentially lead to a loss of fuel supply and cause the engine to malfunction. Therefore, it is necessary to discontinue the right engine start and contact maintenance to investigate and resolve the issue before proceeding further.Rate this question:
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- 23.
When can the Wing Anti-ice Test be completed?
- A.
Only once both engines are running
- B.
Anytime after the Before Start Check
Correct Answer
A. Only once both engines are runningExplanation
The Wing Anti-ice Test can only be completed once both engines are running. This is because the Wing Anti-ice system requires the engines to be operational in order to function properly. The test is conducted to ensure that the Wing Anti-ice system is working correctly and is able to prevent ice from forming on the wings during flight. Conducting the test before both engines are running would not provide an accurate assessment of the system's effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 24.
During the After Start Check, when can the APR Test be completed?
- A.
Only when both engines are running
- B.
Only when the first officer can dance on one leg
Correct Answer
A. Only when both engines are runningExplanation
The APR (Automatic Performance Reserve) Test can only be completed during the After Start Check when both engines are running. This test is specifically designed to assess the performance of the engines, so it requires both engines to be operational in order to accurately measure their performance. Therefore, the test cannot be completed if only one engine is running or if the first officer can dance on one leg, as these factors are unrelated to the performance of the engines.Rate this question:
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- 25.
When conducting the APR TEST, what indications should be observed?
- A.
APR ICON illuminates on both N1 gauges
- B.
N1 gauges turn amber
- C.
APR TEST 1 OK (APR TEST 2 OK) advisory message
- D.
ITT gauges turn red
Correct Answer(s)
A. APR ICON illuminates on both N1 gauges
C. APR TEST 1 OK (APR TEST 2 OK) advisory messageExplanation
During the APR TEST, the indications that should be observed are the APR ICON illuminating on both N1 gauges and the APR TEST 1 OK (APR TEST 2 OK) advisory message. The other options mentioned, such as the N1 gauges turning amber and the ITT gauges turning red, are not the correct indications to be observed during the APR TEST.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Referencing the After Start Check response to "Electrics....Checked" What is required to be checked?
- A.
All Buses powered
- B.
Loads, voltages, frequencies within normal ranges
- C.
Flow Lines green
- D.
Hydraulic pumps on
- E.
No abnormal messages displayed
Correct Answer(s)
A. All Buses powered
B. Loads, voltages, frequencies within normal ranges
C. Flow Lines green
E. No abnormal messages displayedExplanation
The correct answer is all the mentioned items need to be checked. The After Start Check response states that the electrics should be checked and all buses should be powered. Additionally, loads, voltages, and frequencies should be within normal ranges. The flow lines should be green and there should be no abnormal messages displayed. Therefore, all of these items need to be checked.Rate this question:
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- 27.
When conducting the Single Engine Taxi Procedures, when should the second engine be started?
- A.
Number 2 for takeoff, 1 minute prior to takeoff
- B.
Number 4 for takeoff, at least 2 minutes prior to takeoff
- C.
Number 1 for takeoff, less than 1 minute prior to takeof
Correct Answer
B. Number 4 for takeoff, at least 2 minutes prior to takeoffExplanation
The correct answer is Number 4 for takeoff, at least 2 minutes prior to takeoff. This is because starting the second engine early allows it to stabilize and reach the required operating parameters before takeoff. Starting the second engine too late may result in insufficient time for it to stabilize, which can affect the performance and safety of the aircraft during takeoff. Therefore, starting the second engine at least 2 minutes prior to takeoff ensures that both engines are fully operational and ready for takeoff.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Who does the Second Engine Start Checklist?
- A.
First Officer
- B.
Captain
Correct Answer
A. First OfficerExplanation
The Second Engine Start Checklist is performed by the First Officer. This checklist is a standard procedure that ensures all necessary steps are taken before starting the second engine of an aircraft. It includes tasks such as verifying fuel levels, checking engine controls, and ensuring all systems are ready for engine start. The First Officer is responsible for completing this checklist to ensure a safe and efficient start of the second engine.Rate this question:
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- 29.
During the APU shutdown, the APU RPM must be below _____ % RPM before selecting the APU PWR FUEL switch light to OFF.
Correct Answer
50Explanation
During the APU shutdown, it is important to ensure that the APU RPM (Rotations Per Minute) is below 50% RPM before turning off the APU PWR FUEL switch light. This is necessary to prevent any potential damage or issues that may occur if the APU is abruptly shut down while still running at a higher RPM. By ensuring that the APU RPM is below 50% RPM, a safe and controlled shutdown process can be carried out.Rate this question:
- 30.
The minimum fuel for takeoff is?
- A.
BURN + RESV
- B.
BURN + ALT + RESV
- C.
BURN + ALT + RESV + CONT
- D.
BURN + ALT + RESV + TAXI
- E.
BURN + ALT + RESV + TANKER
Correct Answer
B. BURN + ALT + RESVExplanation
The minimum fuel for takeoff includes the fuel burned during the flight (BURN), the fuel required to reach the alternate airport (ALT), and the reserve fuel (RESV) needed for any unforeseen circumstances or delays. Therefore, the correct answer is BURN + ALT + RESV.Rate this question:
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- 31.
When are the recognition and ice lights required to be ON?Recognition and ice lights are required for all operations conducted below _________ ft, as long as their use does not create a distraction to the flight crew
Correct Answer
10000
10,000Explanation
The recognition and ice lights are required to be ON for all operations conducted below 10,000 feet, as long as their use does not create a distraction to the flight crew.Rate this question:
- 32.
When are the boxed items on the CLIMB CHECK completed?The boxed items are performed upon reaching ________ ft, or cruise altitude if lower
Correct Answer
10000
10,000Explanation
Upon reaching 10,000 feet or the cruise altitude if lower, the boxed items on the CLIMB CHECK are completed. This means that the checklist items in the box, which are likely related to specific actions or procedures during the climb phase of the flight, are performed at this altitude. The answer provided in both formats, "10000" and "10,000," indicates the altitude at which these boxed items are completed.Rate this question:
- 33.
When completing the After Landing Checklist, what flap setting are we required to leave in if the approach was made in icing conditions, or if the runway was covered in snow or slush?_______ degrees
Correct Answer
20Explanation
In icing conditions or when the runway is covered in snow or slush, it is required to leave the flaps at 20 degrees when completing the After Landing Checklist. This flap setting helps to ensure that the aircraft maintains the necessary lift and control during landing and taxiing on slippery surfaces.Rate this question:
- 34.
When is it required to start the APU during the Approach Check?
- A.
On a really cold day because we don't want to be cold
- B.
If icing conditions are expected
- C.
To make the company spend more money on APU usage
Correct Answer
B. If icing conditions are expectedExplanation
The correct answer is "If icing conditions are expected." Starting the APU during the Approach Check is necessary when there is a possibility of encountering icing conditions. The APU generates additional electrical power and bleed air, which can be used for anti-icing systems to prevent ice formation on critical surfaces of the aircraft. Therefore, starting the APU in such conditions ensures the safety and performance of the aircraft during approach and landing.Rate this question:
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- 35.
How long after engine shutdown is complete, do we do the engine oil check? _____ minutes to ____ hours after engine shutdown (enter it as "___ / ____")
Correct Answer
3/2Explanation
The engine oil check is done 3 minutes to 2 hours after the engine shutdown is complete. This is likely because it takes some time for the oil to settle and for any potential issues or leaks to become apparent. Waiting for a few minutes to a couple of hours allows for a more accurate assessment of the engine oil level and condition.Rate this question:
- 36.
What is the purpose of the Exit Checklist?
- A.
To remove electrical power from the aircraft
- B.
To leave the aircraft powered and unattended for short periods of time.
Correct Answer
B. To leave the aircraft powered and unattended for short periods of time.Explanation
The purpose of the Exit Checklist is to leave the aircraft powered and unattended for short periods of time. This checklist ensures that all necessary systems and equipment are properly secured before leaving the aircraft, allowing for brief periods of unattended operation. It serves as a safety measure to prevent any potential accidents or malfunctions while the aircraft is temporarily unoccupied.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What is the purpose of the Termination Check?
- A.
To remove electrical power from the aircraft
- B.
To leave the aircraft powered and unattended for short periods of time.
Correct Answer
A. To remove electrical power from the aircraftExplanation
The purpose of the Termination Check is to remove electrical power from the aircraft. This is important for safety reasons, as it ensures that all electrical systems are properly shut down and reduces the risk of any potential electrical hazards or malfunctions. By removing power, it also helps conserve energy and prevent any unnecessary drain on the aircraft's batteries.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Perform a terminating check if the plane will be unattended in excess of _____ hour (s)
Correct Answer
1Explanation
The question asks about performing a terminating check if the plane will be unattended for a certain number of hours. The given answer of 1 hour suggests that the terminating check should be done if the plane will be unattended for 1 hour or more.Rate this question:
- 39.
Perform a Exit Check if the plane will be unattended between ____ minutes and 1 hour.
Correct Answer
5Explanation
The correct answer is 5 because if the plane will be unattended for a period of time between 5 minutes and 1 hour, it is necessary to perform an exit check. This check ensures that everything is in order before leaving the plane unattended for an extended period of time.Rate this question:
- 40.
What are the required certificates to operate as PIC?
- A.
ATP with Type Rating
- B.
Airplane Multi-Engine Land Class Rating
- C.
First Class Medical
- D.
Company Issued Photo Id
- E.
FCC License
- F.
Valid Passport
- G.
Bachelors Degree
Correct Answer(s)
A. ATP with Type Rating
B. Airplane Multi-Engine Land Class Rating
C. First Class Medical
D. Company Issued Photo Id
E. FCC License
F. Valid PassportExplanation
To operate as a PIC (Pilot in Command), the individual must possess the following certificates: ATP (Airline Transport Pilot) with Type Rating, Airplane Multi-Engine Land Class Rating, First Class Medical certificate, Company Issued Photo ID, FCC (Federal Communications Commission) License, and a Valid Passport. Additionally, a Bachelor's Degree is not mentioned as a required certificate, so it is not necessary to have one to operate as a PIC.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What are the required certificates to operate as SIC?
- A.
Commercial Pilots + SIC Type Rating
- B.
Instrument Rating
- C.
Airplane Multi-engine Land Class Rating
- D.
Second Class Medical
- E.
Company Issued Photo ID
- F.
FCC License
- G.
Valid Passport
Correct Answer(s)
A. Commercial Pilots + SIC Type Rating
B. Instrument Rating
C. Airplane Multi-engine Land Class Rating
D. Second Class Medical
E. Company Issued Photo ID
F. FCC License
G. Valid PassportExplanation
To operate as a Second in Command (SIC), the individual must possess the following certificates: Commercial Pilots + SIC Type Rating, Instrument Rating, Airplane Multi-engine Land Class Rating, Second Class Medical, Company Issued Photo ID, FCC License, and Valid Passport. These certificates are necessary to ensure that the SIC has the required training, skills, and qualifications to perform their duties effectively and safely. The Commercial Pilots + SIC Type Rating, Instrument Rating, and Airplane Multi-engine Land Class Rating demonstrate the pilot's ability to operate specific types of aircraft. The Second Class Medical ensures that the pilot meets the necessary health requirements. The Company Issued Photo ID, FCC License, and Valid Passport are necessary for identification and compliance purposes.Rate this question:
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- 42.
By what day must you turn in your medical certificate to the chief pilots office?
Correct Answer(s)
25
25th
25 thExplanation
The correct answer is 25th. This is the day by which you must turn in your medical certificate to the chief pilot's office.Rate this question:
- 43.
How many days is a Temporary Airman Certificate Valid?
Correct Answer(s)
120Explanation
A Temporary Airman Certificate is valid for 120 days. This means that after obtaining the certificate, the individual is allowed to perform certain aviation activities for a period of 120 days before it expires. It is important for individuals to keep track of the expiration date and renew the certificate if necessary to continue operating as an airman.Rate this question:
- 44.
How many days after your address changes must you notify the FAA?
Correct Answer(s)
30Explanation
After changing your address, it is necessary to notify the FAA within 30 days. This is important because the FAA needs accurate and up-to-date information about the address of pilots and aircraft owners for various purposes such as communication, safety regulations, and legal requirements. Notifying the FAA within the specified timeframe ensures that the FAA has the correct address on record and can reach out to you if needed.Rate this question:
- 45.
No crewmember is allowed to consume alcohol, including beer and wine within how many hours prior to duty? (Non-Training Events)
Correct Answer(s)
10Explanation
According to the given information, no crewmember is allowed to consume alcohol, including beer and wine, within 10 hours prior to duty for non-training events. This rule is most likely in place to ensure that crewmembers are not under the influence of alcohol while performing their duties, as it can impair their judgment and ability to carry out their responsibilities safely and effectively.Rate this question:
- 46.
No crewmember is allowed to consume alcohol, including beer and wine within how many hours prior to duty? (Training Events)
Correct Answer(s)
8Explanation
Crewmembers are not permitted to consume alcohol, including beer and wine, within 8 hours prior to their duty during training events. This rule is in place to ensure the safety and well-being of the crewmembers and to maintain a professional and responsible environment during their duties.Rate this question:
- 47.
Crewmembers are not allowed to take Viagra within how many hours prior to flying?
Correct Answer(s)
12Explanation
Crewmembers are not allowed to take Viagra within 12 hours prior to flying. This restriction is likely in place to ensure the safety and well-being of the crewmembers and passengers. Viagra is a medication that can cause side effects such as dizziness and changes in vision, which could potentially impair a crewmember's ability to perform their duties effectively during a flight. It is important for crewmembers to be in a clear state of mind and physically capable when operating an aircraft, hence the restriction on taking Viagra within 12 hours of flying.Rate this question:
- 48.
After donating blood or a transfusion, how long is a Crewmember restricted from flying?________ Hours
Correct Answer(s)
24Explanation
After donating blood or receiving a transfusion, a crewmember is typically restricted from flying for 24 hours. This restriction is in place to ensure the safety of the crewmember and passengers, as donating blood or receiving a transfusion can temporarily affect the individual's physical condition and potentially compromise their ability to perform their duties effectively during a flight. By allowing a 24-hour recovery period, the crewmember can fully regain their strength and ensure that they are fit to operate an aircraft.Rate this question:
- 49.
Crewmembers are strongly recommended to refrain from scuba diving within how many hours of any scheduled flight duty?______ hrs
Correct Answer(s)
24Explanation
Crewmembers are strongly recommended to refrain from scuba diving within 24 hours of any scheduled flight duty. This is likely because scuba diving can cause nitrogen bubbles to form in the body, which can lead to decompression sickness. The high pressure experienced during scuba diving can affect the body's ability to handle the pressure changes that occur during flights. Therefore, it is important for crewmembers to wait at least 24 hours after scuba diving before engaging in any flight duties to ensure their safety and prevent any potential health risks.Rate this question:
- 50.
A Pinnacle crewmember may engage in commercial flying outside of Pinnacle.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
A Pinnacle crewmember is not allowed to engage in commercial flying outside of Pinnacle. This means that they are not permitted to work for any other airline or engage in any commercial flying activities outside of their employment with Pinnacle. Therefore, the statement is false.Rate this question:
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Apr 19, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Feb 20, 2011Quiz Created by
Japorter1983
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