Copy Of Delta 1 Masters Team
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- 1.
In iron deficiency anemia there is
- A.
Low hemoglobin level and it is microcytic anemia(small size of RBCs).
- B.
Low hemoglobin level and it is normocytic anemia(normal size of RBCs).
- C.
Low hemoglobin level and it is macrocytic anemia(large size of RBCs).
- D.
Non of the above
Correct Answer
A. Low hemoglobin level and it is microcytic anemia(small size of RBCs).Explanation
Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by low hemoglobin levels and microcytic anemia, which refers to the small size of red blood cells. This is because iron is essential for the production of hemoglobin, the protein that carries oxygen in the blood. Without sufficient iron, the body is unable to produce enough hemoglobin, resulting in low levels and smaller red blood cells. This can lead to symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Fate of iron released from hemoglobin during RBC phagocytosis can be
- A.
Storage in liver in form of ferritin.
- B.
Usage in erythropoiesis to form new red blood cells in bone marrow.
- C.
Both a and b.
- D.
Non of the above
Correct Answer
C. Both a and b.Explanation
During the process of RBC phagocytosis, iron is released from hemoglobin. This iron can have two fates: it can be stored in the liver in the form of ferritin, or it can be used in erythropoiesis to form new red blood cells in the bone marrow. Therefore, the correct answer is that the iron released from hemoglobin during RBC phagocytosis can have both of these fates.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Lactoferrin role in iron Hemostasis is
- A.
Increases iron absorption
- B.
Ensures that free-iron concentration does not exceed the normal levels so, avoids iron overload
- C.
Lactoferrin plays an anti-inflammatory role by down-regulating interleukin-6 (IL-6) production (inflammatory mediator)
- D.
Inhibits Hepcidin, so promotes Ferroportin action (transport of Iron from intestine to blood stream)
- E.
A and B only
- F.
All of the above
Correct Answer
F. All of the aboveExplanation
Lactoferrin plays multiple roles in iron hemostasis. It increases iron absorption, ensuring that the free-iron concentration remains within normal levels and prevents iron overload. It also has an anti-inflammatory role by down-regulating the production of interleukin-6 (IL-6), which is an inflammatory mediator. Additionally, lactoferrin inhibits hepcidin and promotes ferroportin action, facilitating the transport of iron from the intestine to the bloodstream. Therefore, all of the given options (A, B, and C) are correct.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Transferrin and Ferroportin respectively are
- A.
An iron storage protein and a negative regulator of Ferroportin
- B.
An iron carrier protein and a transmembrane protein, that exports iron from small intestin into blood stream
- C.
A negative regulator of Ferroportin and an iron storage protein
- D.
An iron storage protein and an iron carrier protein
Correct Answer
B. An iron carrier protein and a transmembrane protein, that exports iron from small intestin into blood streamExplanation
Transferrin is an iron carrier protein that binds to iron and transports it in the blood. Ferroportin, on the other hand, is a transmembrane protein that is involved in the export of iron from the small intestine into the bloodstream. Therefore, the correct answer is that Transferrin is an iron carrier protein and Ferroportin is a transmembrane protein that exports iron from the small intestine into the blood stream.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Ferritin and Hepcidin respectively are
- A.
An iron storage protein and a negative regulator of Ferroportin
- B.
An iron carrier protein and a transmembrane protein, that exports iron from small intestine into blood stream
- C.
A negative regulator of Ferroportin and an iron storage protein
- D.
An iron storage protein and an iron carrier protein
Correct Answer
A. An iron storage protein and a negative regulator of FerroportinExplanation
Ferritin is an iron storage protein that helps store iron in the body. It binds to excess iron and stores it in a non-toxic form until it is needed. Hepcidin, on the other hand, is a negative regulator of Ferroportin. Ferroportin is a transmembrane protein that exports iron from cells into the bloodstream. Hepcidin binds to Ferroportin and causes its internalization and degradation, thus decreasing the export of iron from cells. Therefore, Ferritin and Hepcidin respectively act as an iron storage protein and a negative regulator of Ferroportin.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Transferrin compared to Lactoferrin
- A.
Both are glycoproteins
- B.
They have the same affinity towards iron
- C.
Lactoferrin has higher affinity for iron than transferrin
- D.
Both are iron carrier proteins
- E.
All of the above
- F.
All of above except B
Correct Answer
F. All of above except BExplanation
Both transferrin and lactoferrin are glycoproteins and serve as iron carrier proteins. They both have the same affinity towards iron. However, lactoferrin has a higher affinity for iron compared to transferrin. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above except B" because all the statements mentioned are true except for the statement that both transferrin and lactoferrin have the same affinity towards iron.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The normal prolactin fasting value is less than ……………………..
- A.
25-30 ng/ml
- B.
30-45 ng/ml
- C.
40 ng/ml
Correct Answer
A. 25-30 ng/mlExplanation
The normal prolactin fasting value is typically less than 25-30 ng/ml. This means that in a fasting state, the normal level of prolactin in the blood is usually below this range.Rate this question:
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- 8.
From the Signs and Symptoms of hyperprolactinemia
- A.
Oligomenorrhea or amenorrhea.
- B.
Galactorrhea
- C.
Vaginal dryness and decrease in bone mass.
- D.
Infertility and decreased sex drive.
- E.
All of the above.
Correct Answer
E. All of the above.Explanation
This question asks about the signs and symptoms of hyperprolactinemia. The given options include oligomenorrhea or amenorrhea, galactorrhea, vaginal dryness and decrease in bone mass, infertility, and decreased sex drive. The correct answer is "all of the above" because hyperprolactinemia can cause all of these symptoms. Oligomenorrhea or amenorrhea refers to irregular or absent menstrual periods, galactorrhea is the production of breast milk in a woman who is not breastfeeding, vaginal dryness and decrease in bone mass can occur due to hormonal imbalances, and infertility and decreased sex drive are common symptoms of hyperprolactinemia.Rate this question:
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- 9.
………… from underlying causes of Hyperprolactenemia
- A.
Tumors on the pituitary gland.
- B.
Hypothyroidism
- C.
Empty sella syndrome.
- D.
A and b only.
- E.
All of the above.
Correct Answer
E. All of the above.Explanation
Hyperprolactinemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of prolactin hormone in the blood. Tumors on the pituitary gland can cause hyperprolactinemia by increasing the production of prolactin. Hypothyroidism, a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones, can also lead to hyperprolactinemia. Empty sella syndrome, a rare condition where the pituitary gland becomes flattened and enlarged, can disrupt the normal regulation of prolactin and result in hyperprolactinemia. Therefore, all of the above options (tumors on the pituitary gland, hypothyroidism, and empty sella syndrome) can be underlying causes of hyperprolactinemia.Rate this question:
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- 10.
………… are from serious side effects of OHSS
- A.
Severe and rapid increase in weight.
- B.
Severe abdominal pain
- C.
Shortness of breath.
- D.
A and b only
- E.
All of the above.
Correct Answer
E. All of the above.Explanation
The given correct answer is "all of the above." This means that all of the symptoms mentioned in the options (severe and rapid increase in weight, severe abdominal pain, and shortness of breath) are potential serious side effects of OHSS (ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome).Rate this question:
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- 11.
From strategies followed for prevention and treatment of OHSS are
- A.
Reducing exposure to gonadotrophins.
- B.
Insulin-sensitizing agents.
- C.
Non steroidal anti-inflammatory administration.
- D.
Dopamine agonist administration (Cabergoline).
- E.
All of the above.
Correct Answer
E. All of the above.Explanation
The strategies followed for prevention and treatment of OHSS include reducing exposure to gonadotrophins, insulin-sensitizing agents, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory administration, and dopamine agonist administration (Cabergoline). Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."Rate this question:
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- 12.
HCG(Human Chorionic Gonadotropin) results in OHSS due to an increase in
- A.
RAS production.
- B.
VEGF(vascular endothelial growth factor) production.
- C.
Capillary permeability.
- D.
Angiogenesis.
- E.
All of the above.
Correct Answer
E. All of the above.Explanation
HCG (Human Chorionic Gonadotropin) can result in OHSS (Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome) due to various mechanisms. It can lead to an increase in RAS (Renin-Angiotensin System) production, which can contribute to the development of OHSS. HCG can also stimulate the production of VEGF (Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor), which promotes the growth of new blood vessels and can increase capillary permeability. This increased permeability can lead to fluid accumulation and contribute to the development of OHSS. Additionally, HCG can induce angiogenesis, the formation of new blood vessels, which can also contribute to the development of OHSS. Therefore, all of the above mechanisms can play a role in causing OHSS when HCG is administered.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Normal range of Albumin in urine.
- A.
Less than 50mg.
- B.
Less than 40mg.
- C.
Less than 30mg.
- D.
Less than 20mg.
Correct Answer
C. Less than 30mg.Explanation
The normal range of albumin in urine is less than 30mg. This means that if the amount of albumin in the urine is less than 30mg, it is considered to be within the normal range. Any amount of albumin in the urine that is higher than 30mg may indicate a potential health issue.Rate this question:
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- 14.
In Amino acid metabolism
- A.
A transamination reaction is a reaction in which AAs looses NH3 group
- B.
The acceptor of NH3 group is alpha keto glutarate
- C.
Transamination reaction is reversible
- D.
When alpha keto glutarate accepts NH3 group it becomes glutamate
- E.
Aminoacids contributes by 10 to 15%. of total energy in our body
- F.
All of the above
Correct Answer
F. All of the aboveExplanation
The given statement is correct because all of the statements mentioned are true. In amino acid metabolism, a transamination reaction is a reaction in which amino acids lose the NH3 group. The acceptor of the NH3 group is alpha-ketoglutarate. Transamination reactions are reversible, and when alpha-ketoglutarate accepts the NH3 group, it becomes glutamate. Amino acids contribute approximately 10 to 15% of the total energy in our body. Therefore, all of the above statements are true.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Normal protein diet, low protein diet and very low protein diet are ………………. respectively
- A.
0.3 g/kg/day, 0.6 g/kg/day and 0.8 g/kg/day
- B.
0.8 g/kg/day, 0.6 g/kg/day and 0.3 g/kg/day
- C.
0.8 g/kg/day, 0.3 g/kg/day and 0.6 g/kg/day
Correct Answer
B. 0.8 g/kg/day, 0.6 g/kg/day and 0.3 g/kg/dayExplanation
The correct answer is 0.8 g/kg/day, 0.6 g/kg/day and 0.3 g/kg/day. This means that a normal protein diet requires a daily intake of 0.8 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight, a low protein diet requires 0.6 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight, and a very low protein diet requires 0.3 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Flibanorin Active Ingredient is
- A.
Veroxiserin
- B.
Flibanserin
- C.
Flortine
- D.
Mexiserin
Correct Answer
B. FlibanserinExplanation
The correct answer is Flibanserin. Flibanserin is the active ingredient in Flibanorin.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Flibanorin is indicated for
- A.
Female Sexual Disorder
- B.
Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder
- C.
Male Sexual Disorder
- D.
Non of the above
Correct Answer
B. Hypoactive Sexual Desire DisorderExplanation
Flibanorin is indicated for Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder. This means that it is specifically prescribed to treat a condition in which a person experiences a persistent or recurrent lack of sexual fantasies or desire for sexual activity, causing distress or interpersonal difficulties. It is not indicated for female sexual disorder, male sexual disorder, or any other condition.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Flibanorin improves women (SSE , FSDI ) only
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Flibanorin does not improve women's SSE (sexual self-esteem) and FSDI (female sexual distress index) only. This statement implies that Flibanorin has other effects or benefits besides improving SSE and FSDI in women. Therefore, the correct answer is False.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Flibanorin improves women is non - hormonal drug
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Flibanorin is a non-hormonal drug that is known to improve women's conditions.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Optaminess contains
- A.
9 essential amino acids + 1 non essential amino acids
- B.
5 essential amino acids + 5 non essential amino acids
- C.
1 essential amino acids + 9 non essential amino acids
- D.
6 essential amino acids + 4 non essential amino acids
Correct Answer
A. 9 essential amino acids + 1 non essential amino acidsExplanation
Optaminess contains 9 essential amino acids + 1 non-essential amino acid. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins, and they can be classified as essential or non-essential based on whether the body can produce them or not. Essential amino acids cannot be synthesized by the body and must be obtained from the diet, while non-essential amino acids can be produced by the body itself. Optaminess provides all 9 essential amino acids that the body needs to obtain from external sources, along with an additional non-essential amino acid.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Optaminess Pack is
- A.
100 Tab / 290 EGP
- B.
150 Tab / 435 EGP
- C.
200 Tab / 580 EGP
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The Optaminess Pack is available in three different sizes: 100 tablets for 290 EGP, 150 tablets for 435 EGP, and 200 tablets for 580 EGP. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" as it includes all the available options for purchasing the Optaminess Pack.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Optaminess is a part of the conservative treatment of patients with Chronic Kidney Disease.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Optaminess is a part of the conservative treatment of patients with Chronic Kidney Disease. This means that it is indeed true that optaminess is included in the treatment plan for patients with this condition. Optaminess refers to the use of conservative measures such as lifestyle modifications, dietary changes, and medication management to slow down the progression of kidney disease and manage its symptoms. It is an important component of the overall care plan for patients with Chronic Kidney Disease.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Optaminess dose is
- A.
1 Tab / 10 kg / day with LPD
- B.
1 Tab / 5 kg / day with VLPD
- C.
2 Tab / 10 kg / day with VLPD
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "All of the above". This means that the optimal dosage of Optaminess can vary depending on the weight of the patient and the type of diet they are on. For patients on a Low Protein Diet (LPD), the recommended dosage is 1 tablet per 10 kilograms of body weight per day. For patients on a Very Low Protein Diet (VLPD), the recommended dosage is 1 tablet per 5 kilograms of body weight per day. Additionally, for patients on a VLPD, the dosage can also be increased to 2 tablets per 10 kilograms of body weight per day. Therefore, all three options mentioned in the question are correct.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Marvigoline therapeutic Class is Dopamine Agonist
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Marvigoline belongs to the therapeutic class of dopamine agonists. Dopamine agonists are medications that mimic the effects of dopamine, a neurotransmitter in the brain. They are commonly used in the treatment of conditions such as Parkinson's disease and restless legs syndrome. Marvigoline, being a dopamine agonist, would also exert its therapeutic effects by interacting with dopamine receptors in the brain. Therefore, the statement that Marvigoline therapeutic class is dopamine agonist is true.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Magnetrel is considered as
- A.
ARB/Diuretics
- B.
ARB / CCB
- C.
ACEI/CCB
- D.
ACEI/B-Blocker
Correct Answer
C. ACEI/CCBExplanation
Magnetrel is considered as ACEI/CCB because ACEI stands for Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitor and CCB stands for Calcium Channel Blocker. Magnetrel is a combination medication that contains both an ACEI and a CCB. ACEIs work by blocking the enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II, resulting in vasodilation and decreased blood pressure. CCBs work by blocking calcium channels in the blood vessels, causing relaxation of the smooth muscles and further reducing blood pressure. Therefore, Magnetrel is classified as an ACEI/CCB combination medication.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Magnetrel is formulated as Tablets
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement "Magnetrel is formulated as tablets" is false. This means that Magnetrel is not formulated as tablets. The formulation of Magnetrel may be in a different form, such as capsules, liquid, or powder.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Benazepril binds to tissue with the highest affinity across ACEI with
- A.
20%
- B.
27%
- C.
30%
- D.
Non of the above
Correct Answer
B. 27%Explanation
Benazepril has a higher affinity for binding to tissue compared to other ACE inhibitors, with a binding affinity of 27%. This means that when benazepril is administered, it has a greater tendency to bind to tissue in the body. This affinity for tissue binding is important as it affects the drug's distribution, metabolism, and overall effectiveness in treating conditions such as hypertension.Rate this question:
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