Clinical

90 Questions

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Clinic Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What is the main risk factor for all types of ulcerative keratitis in contact lens wearers?  
    • A. 

      Overnight wear

    • B. 

      Water exposure

    • C. 

      Flat contact lens fit

    • D. 

      Pigment on cosmetic lenses

    • E. 

      Blepharitis

  • 2. 
    What is the number one risk of ulcerative keratitis?  
    • A. 

      Contact lens wear

    • B. 

      Swimming in ocean water

    • C. 

      Trauma

    • D. 

      Anesthetic abuse

    • E. 

      Glaucoma

  • 3. 
    A contact lens wearer presents with a red eye and sudden onset of pain. They complain of photophobia and decreased vision. What organism is the most likely cause of this red eye?  
    • A. 

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa

    • B. 

      Staphylococcal aureus

    • C. 

      Streptococcus pneumoniae

    • D. 

      Listeria monocytogenes

    • E. 

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae

  • 4. 
    Which type of amblyopia is the most rare?
    • A. 

      Form deprivation

    • B. 

      Refractive

    • C. 

      Strabismic

    • D. 

      AMD related

  • 5. 
    Match the subgroups to its correct form of amblyopia (select 2)
    • A. 

      Ptosis= form deprivation amblyopia

    • B. 

      Isometropic= refractive amblyopia

    • C. 

      Constant left esotropia= refractive amblyopia

    • D. 

      Bilateral congenital cataracts= form deprivation amblyopia

  • 6. 
    What ancillary testing should you perform on a pt with ptosis induced form deprivation amblyopia?
    • A. 

      Marginal reflex dx

    • B. 

      MEM

    • C. 

      OCT

    • D. 

      Anterior chamber eval

    • E. 

      NPC

  • 7. 
    What is the cause of latent hyperopia?
    • A. 

      Spasms of accommodation

    • B. 

      Chronic miosis

    • C. 

      Horner's syndrome

    • D. 

      Elderly

    • E. 

      You confirm latent hyperopia with a cy

  • 8. 
    You confirm latent hyperopia with a cycloplegic refraction. How would you confirm that the rx you want to give the pt will work for them? (select 2)
    • A. 

      Trial frame

    • B. 

      Stress full time wear and follow up with them in 4-6 weeks

    • C. 

      Prescribe full wet findings, the patient will adapt

    • D. 

      Perform binocular tests after your wet refraction

  • 9. 
    An 8 year old patient comes into your office complaining of headaches and eyestrain with near work. you suspect latent hyperopia; what would be the best option/test to confirm your dx?
    • A. 

      Cycloplegic refraction with cyclopentolate

    • B. 

      Dry autorefractor

    • C. 

      Van herick angles

    • D. 

      FCC

  • 10. 
    You are evaluating a scleral lens on your patient and observe that the lens is resting on the limbus, you can:
    • A. 

      Steepen the limbal transition zone and flatten the optic zone to compensate

    • B. 

      Steepen the limbal transition zone and the optic zone to compensate

    • C. 

      Only steepen the limbal zone, no need for compensation

    • D. 

      Flatten the limbal zone and the optic zone

  • 11. 
    Your scleral lens pt comes in for a fu and they complain of mid-day fogging. what are TWO ways to fix this common phenomenon?
    • A. 

      Use a more viscuous solution

    • B. 

      Decrease diameter

    • C. 

      Increase diameter

    • D. 

      Make the lens more flat

  • 12. 
    Regarding a scleral lens fit, wof two are incorrect?
    • A. 

      You can accommodate a pinguecula with a scleral bump

    • B. 

      Initially you want to shoot for about 800 microns of central clearance

    • C. 

      Initially you want to shoot for about 300 microns of central clearance

    • D. 

      Scleral lens should clear the limbus by atleast 50 microns

  • 13. 
    What type(s) of online eye exam is/are available?
    • A. 

      All of the above

    • B. 

      Macular degeneration

    • C. 

      Glaucoma

    • D. 

      Refractive

  • 14. 
    Who are the typical consumers for online eye exams?
    • A. 

      All of the above

    • B. 

      Milennials

    • C. 

      Self-pay pts

    • D. 

      Pts with a busy lifestyle

  • 15. 
    Refractive online eye exams can detect color deficiency, changes in visual field, increase in myopia, hyperopia, and astigmatism
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 16. 
    What group of AMD pts if folic acid supplementation shown to have the most benefit and therefore recommended to? (Select 2)
    • A. 

      At-risk for developing AMD

    • B. 

      Early AMD

    • C. 

      Late AMD

    • D. 

      Wet AMD

  • 17. 
    In what 2 ways does folic acid benefit pts? 
    • A. 

      Decrease levels of homocysteine

    • B. 

      Decreases the risk of CVD

    • C. 

      Increase levels of homocysteine

    • D. 

      Decrease risk of liver disease

  • 18. 
    What could be a good recommendation to a pt who is at-risk for developing AMD?
    • A. 

      B vitamins

    • B. 

      Vitamin C

    • C. 

      AREDS supplement

    • D. 

      Vitamin A

  • 19. 
    Which race has the number 1 highest prevalence of myopia?
    • A. 

      Asians

    • B. 

      Hispanics

    • C. 

      African americans

    • D. 

      Caucasiands

  • 20. 
    Which are the three approved treatments that are proven to slow myopia progression? (Select 3)
    • A. 

      Undercorrection of myopia

    • B. 

      Bifocal spectacles

    • C. 

      Soft bifocal contact lenses

    • D. 

      Orthokeratology contact lenses

    • E. 

      RGP contact lenses

    • F. 

      Topical pharmaceutical agents

  • 21. 
    Which treatment type can actually worsen myopia progression?
    • A. 

      Undercorrection of myopia

    • B. 

      Bifocal spectacles

    • C. 

      Soft bifocal spectacles

    • D. 

      Orthokeratology contact lenses

    • E. 

      RGP contact lenses

    • F. 

      Topical pharmaceutical agents

  • 22. 
    What is an advantage of an optometric residency?
    • A. 

      Increase clinical experience

    • B. 

      Increase depth of knowledge

    • C. 

      Increase professional opportunities

    • D. 

      Form relationships with other healthcare professionals

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 23. 
    Where can students find more information about optometric residencies?
    • A. 

      American Academy of Optometry

    • B. 

      American Optometry Association

    • C. 

      AOSA residency forum

    • D. 

      Residency day at UIWRSO

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 24. 
    All of the following are disadvantages of residencies except:
    • A. 

      Delayed gratification of money

    • B. 

      Networking/marketability

    • C. 

      Professional opportunities

    • D. 

      Delayed establishment of practice/career

    • E. 

      B and C

    • F. 

      All of the above are disadvantages

  • 25. 
    What are three important factors to consider when opening a practice cold? (3)
    • A. 

      Business plan

    • B. 

      Location

    • C. 

      Setting yourself apart from other doctors

    • D. 

      Purchasing all your exam equipment

  • 26. 
    How can you set yourself apart as a Doctor to help you succeed in opening a practice cold?
    • A. 

      Apply for a residency

    • B. 

      Dye your hair purple

    • C. 

      Own the nicest practice in town

    • D. 

      Make straight A's

  • 27. 
    What is/are benefits to opening a practice cold, directly out of optometry school?
    • A. 

      All of the above

    • B. 

      You are used to living like a student

    • C. 

      You won't have to take a step down in income

    • D. 

      Highest level of drive

  • 28. 
    What would be the least ideal treatment option when managing blurry vision post LASIK?
    • A. 

      Prescribe glasses or contacts

    • B. 

      Refer back to the ophthalmologist

    • C. 

      Give a prostaglandin drop

    • D. 

      Punctal plugs

  • 29. 
    What are some common complaints from pt after LASIK surgery? (pick 2)
    • A. 

      Photophobia

    • B. 

      Decreased contrast sensitivity

    • C. 

      Decreased dry eye

    • D. 

      Itching

  • 30. 
    All of the following are accurate post-op LASIK care instructions EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Wearing contact lenses

    • B. 

      UV protection at all times outdoors

    • C. 

      Protective eye shields at night

    • D. 

      Avoid strenuous exercise for the first week

  • 31. 
    What is the least likely ocular effect of RGPs?
    • A. 

      Neovascularization of cornea

    • B. 

      Contact lens adherence

    • C. 

      Corneal warpage

    • D. 

      Blepharoptosis

  • 32. 
    Which of the following characteristics are advantages associated with RGP lenses (select 3)
    • A. 

      Sharper vision

    • B. 

      Cheaper cost long term

    • C. 

      More oxygen availability

    • D. 

      Good for dusty, dirty environments

  • 33. 
    32 year-old white female visit your clinic complaining of foggy vision and severe dry eye. During biomicroscopy, you observe numerous protein deposits on his bi-weekly silicone hydrogel lens. You decide to change this patient’s lens. What would be the best option?
    • A. 

      High Dk RGP

    • B. 

      PMMA lens

    • C. 

      Monthly silicone hydrogel soft contact lens

    • D. 

      Bi-weekly hydrogel soft contact lens

  • 34. 
    Your pt comes in for a post-op cataract follow up and you see a seidel sign. what is your next step?
    • A. 

      Refer to ophthalmologist immediately

    • B. 

      Bandage contact lens

    • C. 

      Eye shield

    • D. 

      Monitor and educate patient that cornea should heal in a few days

  • 35. 
    Which THREE drops are prescribed after cataract surgery? (Select 3)
    • A. 

      Steroid

    • B. 

      NSAID

    • C. 

      Antibiotic

    • D. 

      Betablocker

  • 36. 
    What two complications are we MOST worried about at the day one follow-up? (Select 2)  [post cataract]
    • A. 

      Wound leak

    • B. 

      High IOP

    • C. 

      Endophthalmitis

    • D. 

      Retinal detachment

  • 37. 
    Which statement is incorrect?
    • A. 

      It is important for the OD to assess the surface of the prosthesis.

    • B. 

      It is likely for a patient with a prosthetic eye to develop an eye infection.

    • C. 

      Patients with a prosthetic eye should visit an ocularist annually.

    • D. 

      An OD should only evaluate and treat the real eye. It is not our job to care about the prosthetic eye.

  • 38. 
    Which of the following would be good case history questions to ask a patient with a prosthetic eye?
    • A. 

      How old is the prosthetic eye?

    • B. 

      What is your cleaning regimen for your prosthetic eye?

    • C. 

      What is your comfort level with the prosthetic eye?

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 39. 
    Which of the following statements is incorrect about prosthetic eyes?
    • A. 

      It is an artificial eye that restores volume of a missing eye

    • B. 

      It is used as a cosmetic enhancement

    • C. 

      Prosthetic eye last about 5 years before it needs to be replaced

    • D. 

      Prosthetic eyes are made by an ophthalmologist

  • 40. 
    Most commonly, why does uncontrolled diabetes cause fluctuating vision?
    • A. 

      Sugar causes the lens to swell and shrink, changing the refractive error

    • B. 

      Insulin deficiency causes macular edema

    • C. 

      Polyuria causes the tear film to dehydrate

    • D. 

      High levels of ketones degrade lens zonules

  • 41. 
    What should be our first technique to rule out pathology when a patient has uncorrectable VA loss?
    • A. 

      Pinhole

    • B. 

      MRI

    • C. 

      X-RAY

    • D. 

      Visual field

  • 42. 
    What type of visual field loss would you expect with a pituitary adenoma?
    • A. 

      Bitemporal hemianopia

    • B. 

      Central scotoma

    • C. 

      Contralateral homonymous hemianopia

    • D. 

      Monocular vision loss

  • 43. 
    What is functional vision loss?
    • A. 

      Vision loss in a functional system with a non-organic cause

    • B. 

      Visual field abnormality

    • C. 

      Vision loss caused by a lesion in V1

    • D. 

      Pt presents evidence of true vision loss

  • 44. 
    What percentage of cases labeled as malingering had an organic cause of visual loss?
    • A. 

      15%

    • B. 

      5%

    • C. 

      1%

    • D. 

      50%

  • 45. 
    What are two tests you can perform on a patient who you suspect may have severe functional vision loss?
    • A. 

      Mirror test

    • B. 

      Proprioception test

    • C. 

      Color vision

    • D. 

      Change the VA types

  • 46. 
    What is the single biggest factor in the amount of income earned by private practice OD’s?
    • A. 

      Being an owner

    • B. 

      Closeness of office to urban area

    • C. 

      Number of exams office sees in a day

    • D. 

      Friendliness of staff

  • 47. 
    Definition of net income?
    • A. 

      Total amount of money made per year minus expenses

    • B. 

      Total amount of money made per year

    • C. 

      Amount money insurance companies pay you per year

    • D. 

      Amount of money made from NBA selling off championship nets

  • 48. 
    Which of the following was NOT discussed as a factor to consider when buying a practice?
    • A. 

      Office dress code

    • B. 

      Location

    • C. 

      Number of exams per day

    • D. 

      Number of pre-appoints

  • 49. 
    Which of the following treatment options was NOT discussed in the management of diabetic macular edema?
    • A. 

      Pneumatic retinopexy

    • B. 

      Subthreshold micropulse laser

    • C. 

      Oral fenofibrate

    • D. 

      Corticosteroids

  • 50. 
    All of the following are disadvantages/complications of intravitreal anti-VEGF injections except for:
    • A. 

      Retinal scarring

    • B. 

      Number of injections

    • C. 

      Risk of stroke/myocardial infarction

    • D. 

      Endophthalmitis

  • 51. 
    _______ decreases VEGF-induced leakage and neovascularization by inhibiting VE-PTP and activating Tie2, two enzymes that indirectly mediate VEGF activity. It also improves the efficacy of Lucentis by working on different parts of the same pathway to enhance the reduction in retinal thickening. Which of the following diabetic macular edema treatment options completes the previous statements?
    • A. 

      AKB-9778

    • B. 

      Oral fenofibrate

    • C. 

      Macular photocoagulation

    • D. 

      Corticosteroids

  • 52. 
    Upon examination of a penetrating eye injury, a patient may complain of symptoms such as:
    • A. 

      Pain

    • B. 

      Photophobia

    • C. 

      Blurred vision

    • D. 

      Lacrimation

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 53. 
    While examining a patient who presented with blurred vision, you notice a positive Seidel sign. You conclude that the patient has a penetrating eye injury. What should your you do next?
    • A. 

      Refer to an opthalmologist

    • B. 

      Check IOP

    • C. 

      Force eyelids open to examine further

    • D. 

      Rinse eye with water

    • E. 

      Give an antibiotic cover

  • 54. 
    Sympathetic ophthlamia is a
    • A. 

      Autoimmune response

    • B. 

      Viral rxn

    • C. 

      Bacterial rxn

    • D. 

      Fungal exn

  • 55. 
    The surgeon’s main motivation for muscle surgery in strabismus patients is:
    • A. 

      Improving cosmesis

    • B. 

      Improving binocular function

    • C. 

      Improving visual acuity

    • D. 

      Eliminating the patient's need for spectacle correction

  • 56. 
    For strabismus patients participating in vision therapy:
    • A. 

      Prognosis is better for intermittent tropia vs. constant tropia

    • B. 

      Prognosis is better for long-standing strabismus vs. recent onset strabismus

    • C. 

      Prognosis is better for esotropia vs. exotropia

    • D. 

      Every patient will have the same prognosis regardless of type of strabismus

  • 57. 
    Which type of anesthetic can be useful in ocular alignment?
    • A. 

      Bupivacaine

    • B. 

      Proparacaine

    • C. 

      Lidocaine

    • D. 

      Benoxinate hydrochloride

  • 58. 
    What is the most effective, but least compliant at home convergence insufficiency tx method?
    • A. 

      Pencil push-ups

    • B. 

      Prisms

    • C. 

      Brock string

    • D. 

      Monocular accommodative rock

  • 59. 
    Regarding BI reading prisms for the management of convergence insufficiency, which of the following are true? (select 2)
    • A. 

      Not clinically effective in children

    • B. 

      Showed improvement in symptomatic presbyopes

    • C. 

      Showed improvement in children

    • D. 

      Not clinically effective in symptomatic presbyopes

  • 60. 
    Which vision therapy technique improves vergence facility as well as vergence control?
    • A. 

      Brock string

    • B. 

      VTS4

    • C. 

      BI reading prism

    • D. 

      Monocular accommodative rock

  • 61. 
    Which of the following below is true about Horner’s Syndrome?
    • A. 

      Light and near responses are intact

    • B. 

      Ptosis, miosis, and anhydrosis is always present

    • C. 

      Apraclonidine is used to localize lesion

    • D. 

      If no dilation lag is present assume the patient doesn’t have Horner’s Syndrome

  • 62. 
    Patient has no visual complaints. Slit lamp examination was normal except for the presence of anisocoria. Her right pupil was 4.5mm, ovally distorted, and sluggishly reacting to light. Left pupil was reactive from 3mm to 2mm. Pupillary reactions to accommodation were normal.  No abnormalities of EOMs. There was a rapid mitotic response of the right pupil to 0.125% pilocarpine drops. What is the likely diagnosis?
    • A. 

      Adies (tonic) pupil

    • B. 

      Argyll robertson pupil

    • C. 

      Horner syndrome

    • D. 

      3rd cn palsy

  • 63. 
    Which of the following is true when comparing Horner’s Syndrome and 3rd cranial nerve palsy?
    • A. 

      Horner’s Syndrome and 3rd nerve palsy can both result in a ptosis and anisocoria

    • B. 

      3rd cranial palsy produces ipsilateral miosis

    • C. 

      Horner’s syndrome is caused by interruption of parasympathic innervationC. Horner’s syndrome is caused by interruption of parasympathic innervation

    • D. 

      A complete 3rd cranial nerve palsy will result in a characteristic up and out position in the affected eye

  • 64. 
    If you are interested in using cannabis as medical treatment, which of the following steps should you initiate first? (SELECT THREE)
    • A. 

      Confirm that your state is legalized for medical marijuana use

    • B. 

      Check to see if your condition qualifies for medical marijuana treatment according to your state's laws

    • C. 

      Schedule an appointment with your medical doctor to discuss further treatment options

    • D. 

      Call your local pharmacist to see if they have medical marijuana in stock

    • E. 

      Travel to a state that is legalized for recreational use and self-prescribe marijuana

    • F. 

      Talk to a police officer about his position on legality of marijuana and ask for advice

  • 65. 
    Despite having an unknown mechanism, what do we know about cannabinoid (CB) receptors and its effects on the eye in glaucoma management?
    • A. 

      They are found in specific locations in the eye that attributes to aqueous production and aqueous outflow

    • B. 

      CB receptors protect the optic nerve from glaucomatous damage through lipid secretion into the retina

    • C. 

      They decrease IOP by dissolving waste in the trabecular meshwork allowing for a smoother aqueous outflow

    • D. 

      CB receptors are only found in the brain and not found in the eye

  • 66. 
    What are side effects of cannabis (SELECT 3)
    • A. 

      Vasodilation

    • B. 

      Hyperemia

    • C. 

      Hypotension

    • D. 

      Vasoconstriction

    • E. 

      Blanching of the vessels

  • 67. 
    Which of the following are contraindications for LASIK surgery?
    • A. 

      Low hyperopia

    • B. 

      Low astigmatism

    • C. 

      Non-pathological large pachymetry readings (>600 microns)

    • D. 

      Presbyopia

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 68. 
    A successful Laser in situ keratomileusis (LASIK) surgery results in:
    • A. 

      An incision made either horizontally or vertically to relax corneal astigmatism

    • B. 

      Alcohol is used to completely ‘melt’ away the epithelium of the cornea in order to ablate with a laser

    • C. 

      A corneal flap is made with a microkeratome blade and the stroma is ablated to alter RE

    • D. 

      A laser is used to create a limbal incision to insert a PIOL

  • 69. 
    Which of the following is a possible complication of PIOL surgery? (Select 2)
    • A. 

      Angle closure glaucoma

    • B. 

      Pigment dispersion syndrome

    • C. 

      Abnormal eyelash growth

    • D. 

      Recurrent chalazion formation

  • 70. 
     Ortho-K is a very good option for slowing the progression of myopia; however, not everyone may be suitable for this treatment. Select two that may not be suitable.
    • A. 

      A woman with a recent onset of corneal injury

    • B. 

      A young patient with -7.00 DS OU prescription

    • C. 

      A young patient with -4.00 DS OU prescription

    • D. 

      A swimmer who does not want to wear glasses

  • 71. 
    Select two disadvantages of Ortho-K.
    • A. 

      Glare when driving at night

    • B. 

      Central corneal sensitivity

    • C. 

      Can play any type of sports

    • D. 

      Avoid surgical complications

  • 72. 
    which of the following is the best description of the mechanism of Ortho-K for myopia control? (select 2)
    • A. 

      The corneal epithelial cell layer was distributed leading to the thinning of the central cornea

    • B. 

      The cornea epithelial cell layer was distributed leading to the thickening of the mid-peripheral cornea

    • C. 

      The corneal epithelial cell layer was distributed leading to the thickening of the central stroma layer of the cornea

    • D. 

      The cornea epithelial cell layer was distributed leading to the thinning of the peripheral

  • 73. 
    Which of the following are symptoms of dry eye in contact lens wear? Choose 2
    • A. 

      Decreased wear tolerance

    • B. 

      Increased discomfort

    • C. 

      Increased comfort

    • D. 

      Increased wettability

  • 74. 
    Which tx is best for a dry eye patient?
    • A. 

      Treatment will depend on each patient

    • B. 

      Soft contact lens

    • C. 

      Artificial tears

    • D. 

      Scleral lens

    • E. 

      Plugs

  • 75. 
    What is the benefit of scleral contact lenses?
    • A. 

      Good for an autoimmune disease

    • B. 

      Low price

    • C. 

      Good oxygen permeability

    • D. 

      Can be disposed often

  • 76. 
    What is the greatest nonmodifiable risk factor in diabetic retinopathy
    • A. 

      Duration of DM

    • B. 

      Genetics

    • C. 

      Race

    • D. 

      Age

  • 77. 
    What are modifiacle risk factors in diabetic retinopathy? (select 3)
    • A. 

      Smoking

    • B. 

      Vitamin d deficiency

    • C. 

      Diet

    • D. 

      Pregnancy

  • 78. 
    HbA1c levels should be kept under 6.5%
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 79. 
    What career type would require safety goggles
    • A. 

      Chemist

    • B. 

      Actor

    • C. 

      Constrution worker

    • D. 

      Optometrist

  • 80. 
    What question would you ask to know whether or not you should rx safety glasses?
    • A. 

      What kind of work do you do around your home

    • B. 

      Do you bake

    • C. 

      Do you swim

    • D. 

      Where are you from

  • 81. 
    Your patient tells you they often go shooting, what should you rx?
    • A. 

      Safety glasses

    • B. 

      Safety goggles

    • C. 

      Wear a hat

    • D. 

      Pink tinted lenses

  • 82. 
    Which of the following are management options for presbyopes who want to stay in contact lens?
    • A. 

      All of the above

    • B. 

      Monovision

    • C. 

      Multifocal Cl

    • D. 

      Readers over Cl

  • 83. 
    In which method do you get poor stereopsis
    • A. 

      Monovision

    • B. 

      Multifocal Cl

    • C. 

      Neither

    • D. 

      Both

  • 84. 
    Which type of simultaneous viewing Multifocal contact lens allows for intermediate viewing distance?
    • A. 

      Aspheric

    • B. 

      Concentric

    • C. 

      Segmented

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 85. 
     Which factor does NOT promote expansion of scope of practice?
    • A. 

      High OMD to OD ration in the state

    • B. 

      Advocacy groups

    • C. 

      Need for more accessible eye care

    • D. 

      Expanding optometric educatioin

  • 86. 
    Which state is NOT considered as having a broad scope of practice?
    • A. 

      Texas

    • B. 

      Oklahoma

    • C. 

      Louisisana

    • D. 

      Kentucky

  • 87. 
    3.       Which organization sets optometry regulations for the state of Texas?
    • A. 

      TOB

    • B. 

      AOA

    • C. 

      TOA

    • D. 

      AAO

  • 88. 
    1. What are alternatives to the Water Drinking Test? Select Three
    • A. 

      True diurnal curve

    • B. 

      Modifiied diurnal test

    • C. 

      Trigger fish

    • D. 

      Trigger turtle

  • 89. 
    2. Select 2 True Statements for the Water Drinking Test
    • A. 

      It is not used as a diagnostic tool

    • B. 

      It does nmot tell you the ohysical health of the eye

    • C. 

      Expensive

    • D. 

      Time consuming compared to alternatice methods

  • 90. 
    3. A patient is Dx: NTG what do you expect their Peak IOP to be?
    • A. 

      18 mmhg

    • B. 

      27 mmhg

    • C. 

      32 mmhg

    • D. 

      60 mmhg