Clin Med Exam 1 Practice

35 Questions | Total Attempts: 497

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Medical Test Quizzes & Trivia

HEENT, respiratory infections


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    A patient calls in the evening complaining of a foreign body sensation and inability to keep his eye open.  The proper advice would be:
    • A. 

      Instruct the patient to apply warm compresses for 10-15 minutes 3 or 4 times per day and come to the office if it hasn't healed in a week

    • B. 

      Advise the patient to scrub the eyelids with a Q-tip and baby shampoo

    • C. 

      Call in a prescription for an opthalmic decongestant and advise the patient to follow up if the infection hasn't cleared in 2-3 weeks

    • D. 

      Advise the patient to immediately see an ophthalmologist

  • 2. 
    Which of the following is an ophthalmic emergency?
    • A. 

      Staphylococcal conjunctivitis

    • B. 

      Pseudomonal conjunctivitis

    • C. 

      Gonococcal conjunctivitis

    • D. 

      Moraxella conjunctivitis

  • 3. 
    Which of the following is a physical exam finding in a glaucoma patient?
    • A. 

      Central vision loss

    • B. 

      Cupping of the optic disc

    • C. 

      Copper wiring

    • D. 

      Drusen

  • 4. 
    Which of the following predisposes an individual to retinal detachment?
    • A. 

      Myopia with a prescription higher than -5.0

    • B. 

      Hyperopia with a prescription higher than +5.0

    • C. 

      Amaurosis fugax

    • D. 

      Homocystinuria

  • 5. 
    A patient complains of sudden visual loss and floaters, but the eye is not inflamed.  Upon exam, the lens is clear, but fundal details are not apparent.  Which should be suspected?
    • A. 

      Retinal detachment

    • B. 

      Uveitis

    • C. 

      Vitreous hemorrhage

    • D. 

      Acute closed angle glaucoma

  • 6. 
    Which of the following is a symptom for "atrophic" macular degeneration?
    • A. 

      Neovascular

    • B. 

      Exudative

    • C. 

      Geographic

    • D. 

      Wet

  • 7. 
    The most common cause of legal blindness in maturity-onset diabeties presents with:
    • A. 

      Neovascularization and vitreous hemorrhage

    • B. 

      Microaneurysms and exudates

    • C. 

      Copper and silver wiring, flame hemorrhages

    • D. 

      Increased interocular pressure

  • 8. 
    Which of the following involves a rapid decline in vision?
    • A. 

      Atrophic macular degeneration

    • B. 

      Cataracts

    • C. 

      Exudative macular degeneration

    • D. 

      Chalazion

  • 9. 
    Which of the following would e treated by surgical excision?
    • A. 

      Internal hordeolum

    • B. 

      External hordeolum

    • C. 

      Pinguecula

    • D. 

      Chalazion

  • 10. 
    Which of the following would present with a dilated/fixed pupil?
    • A. 

      Acute conjunctivitis

    • B. 

      Acute anterior uveitis (iritis)

    • C. 

      Acute closed angle glaucoma

    • D. 

      Corneal trauma/infection

  • 11. 
    In which of the following would a Weber lateralize to the affected ear and the Rinne indicate bone conduction is greater than air conduction?
    • A. 

      Acoustic neuroma (Schwannoma)

    • B. 

      Meniere's disease

    • C. 

      Cholesteatoma

    • D. 

      Congenital syphilis

  • 12. 
    What is the most common cause of hearing loss in adults?
    • A. 

      Cerumen impaction

    • B. 

      Presbycusis

    • C. 

      Noise trauma

    • D. 

      Herpes zoster oticus

  • 13. 
    Which of the following is not a possible complication of otitis externa?
    • A. 

      Erosion of the temporal bone by pseudomonas

    • B. 

      Malignant necrotization

    • C. 

      Sensorineural hearing loss

    • D. 

      Perichondritis

  • 14. 
    If a patient had severe pain, sensorineural hearing loss and CN 7 palsy, it is reason to suspect which of the following?
    • A. 

      Bullous myringitis

    • B. 

      Herpes zoster oticus

    • C. 

      Mastoiditis

    • D. 

      Cholesteatoma

  • 15. 
    A patient presents with nasal congestion, headache, malaise, sore throat, post-nasal drip, and a low grade fever lasting 6 days.  Physical exam reveals nasal mucosal edema, puffy eyes, and cobblestoning.  Which of the following is the most appropriate course of treatment?
    • A. 

      Allergen avoidance, nasal steroids, and antihistamines

    • B. 

      Functional endoscopic sinus surgery

    • C. 

      Antibiotics, nasal steroids, decongestants, and mycolytics

    • D. 

      Supportive care, fluids and rest

  • 16. 
    Which of the following complications of strep throat would prompt an ENT referral?
    • A. 

      Rheumatic fever

    • B. 

      Post-strep acute glomerular nephritis

    • C. 

      Tonsillar and adenoid hypertrophy

    • D. 

      Rash

  • 17. 
    Which change of vocal quality is indicative of peritonsillar abscess?
    • A. 

      Breathy

    • B. 

      Raspy

    • C. 

      Shaky

    • D. 

      Muffled

  • 18. 
    Which of the following might be recommended to a patient with laryngopharyngeal reflux?
    • A. 

      The DASH diet

    • B. 

      Speech therapy

    • C. 

      Avoid chocolate and peppermint

    • D. 

      Take Pepto Bismol after meals

  • 19. 
    Which of the following may be mistaken for a hard, fixed tonsillar node?
    • A. 

      The carotid artery

    • B. 

      Sialadenitis

    • C. 

      Sialolithiasis

    • D. 

      Parotitis

  • 20. 
    Which of the following refers to a combination of of obesity, hypersomnolence, and signs of chronic alveolar hypoventilation?
    • A. 

      Guellain-Barre syndrome

    • B. 

      Metabolic syndrome

    • C. 

      Caplan syndrome

    • D. 

      Pickwickian syndrome

  • 21. 
    Which patients should not get the influenza vaccine?
    • A. 

      Diabetics

    • B. 

      The elderly

    • C. 

      People with Guillian-Barre syndrome

    • D. 

      People with Pickwickian syndrome

  • 22. 
    Which of the following is a contributor to chronic otitis media?
    • A. 

      Haemophilus influenzae

    • B. 

      Respiratory synctial virus

    • C. 

      Coronavirus

    • D. 

      Epstein-Barr

  • 23. 
    Which of the following is not a risk factor for sleep apnea?
    • A. 

      Macrognathia

    • B. 

      Macroglossia

    • C. 

      Alcohol or sedatives before sleeping

    • D. 

      Tonsillar/adenoid hypertrophy

  • 24. 
    Which of the following refers to being able to visualize the soft palate, fauces, and a portion of the uvula with maximal mouth opening and tongue protrusion in the sitting phonation?
    • A. 

      Mallampati class I

    • B. 

      Mallampati class II

    • C. 

      Mallampati class III

    • D. 

      Mallampati class IV

  • 25. 
    Which is the gold standard of sleep apnea treatment?
    • A. 

      Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty

    • B. 

      Tonsillectomy/adenoidectomy

    • C. 

      Tracheostomy

    • D. 

      Mandibular advance

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