Chapter Quiz The Cardiovascular System.
It’s the system in our bodies that keeps us going like well operated machines, the cardiovascular system is what gets your blood pumping all around your body via the blood vessels and the heart. What do you know about this ever-important system? Take the quiz and we’ll see for sure!
Questions and Answers
- 1.
WHICH IS NOT A MAJOR FUNCTION OF THE BLOOD?
- A.
TRANSPORTATION OF NUTRIENTS
- B.
REGULATION OF BLOOD PH
- C.
PROTECTION AGAINST DISEASE INFECTION
- D.
PRODUCTION OF OXYGEN
Correct Answer
D. PRODUCTION OF OXYGENExplanation
The blood has several major functions, including transportation of nutrients, regulation of blood pH, and protection against disease infection. However, the production of oxygen is not a function of the blood. Oxygen is primarily produced through the process of respiration in the lungs and then transported by the blood to the body's tissues.Rate this question:
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- 2.
THE NORMAL AVERAGE TEMPERATURE OF BLOOD IS AROUND
- A.
98
- B.
100.4
- C.
90.8
- D.
89.6
Correct Answer
B. 100.4Explanation
The normal average temperature of blood is around 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit. This is the average temperature of blood in a healthy individual. It is important for the body to maintain this temperature as it is necessary for optimal functioning of various physiological processes. Any significant deviation from this temperature can indicate an underlying health issue.Rate this question:
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- 3.
THE NORMAL PH RANGE FOR BLOOD IS
- A.
7.35-8.5
- B.
7.35-9.45
- C.
6.45-9.35
- D.
7.35-7.45
Correct Answer
D. 7.35-7.45Explanation
The normal pH range for blood is 7.35-7.45. This range is important for maintaining the proper functioning of various physiological processes in the body. A pH below 7.35 indicates acidosis, which can lead to respiratory or metabolic problems. On the other hand, a pH above 7.45 indicates alkalosis, which can also have detrimental effects on the body. Therefore, it is crucial for the blood pH to remain within the narrow range of 7.35-7.45 to ensure optimal health and functioning.Rate this question:
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- 4.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ISW NOT A COMPONENT OF BLOOD
- A.
BLOOD PLASMA
- B.
FORMED ELEMENTS
- C.
CARBON DIOXIDE
- D.
PLATELETS
Correct Answer
C. CARBON DIOXIDEExplanation
Carbon dioxide is not a component of blood. Blood plasma, formed elements (such as red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets), and platelets are all components of blood. Carbon dioxide is a waste product that is transported in the blood to the lungs, where it is exhaled.Rate this question:
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- 5.
THE HEMATOCRIT IS COMPOSED OF
- A.
WBC
- B.
PLATELETS
- C.
RBC
- D.
PLASMA
Correct Answer
C. RBCExplanation
The correct answer is RBC because hematocrit refers to the percentage of red blood cells in the total blood volume. It is a measure of the blood's ability to carry oxygen and is used to diagnose conditions such as anemia or polycythemia. WBC (white blood cells), platelets, and plasma are not included in the hematocrit measurement.Rate this question:
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- 6.
HOW MUCH OF BLOOD PLASMA IS WATER (APPROXIMATELY)
- A.
95
- B.
91
- C.
88
- D.
80
Correct Answer
B. 91Explanation
Approximately 91% of blood plasma is water. Blood plasma is the liquid component of blood that carries various substances such as nutrients, hormones, and waste products throughout the body. Water makes up the majority of blood plasma, providing a medium for these substances to be transported. This high water content allows for efficient circulation and distribution of essential components in the body.Rate this question:
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- 7.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PLASMA PROTEINS PLAYS A ROLE IN DISEASE RESISTANCE
- A.
ALBUMINS
- B.
GLOBULINS
- C.
FIBRINOGENS
- D.
MYOGLOBIN
Correct Answer
B. GLOBULINSExplanation
Globulins are a group of plasma proteins that play a crucial role in disease resistance. They are responsible for the body's immune response and defense against pathogens. Globulins include antibodies, which are produced by the immune system to recognize and neutralize foreign substances like bacteria or viruses. These antibodies bind to specific antigens on pathogens, marking them for destruction by other immune cells. Therefore, globulins are essential for the body's ability to fight off infections and play a significant role in disease resistance.Rate this question:
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- 8.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PLASMA PROTEINS PLAYS A ROLE IN BLOOD CLOTTING
- A.
ALBUMINS
- B.
GLOBULINS
- C.
FIBRINOGENS
- D.
PROSTAGLANDINS
Correct Answer
C. FIBRINOGENSExplanation
Fibrinogens are plasma proteins that play a crucial role in blood clotting. When there is an injury or damage to blood vessels, fibrinogens are converted into fibrin, which forms a mesh-like structure to trap platelets and form a blood clot. This clot helps in stopping bleeding and initiating the healing process. Therefore, fibrinogens are essential for the clotting cascade and are directly involved in the formation of blood clots.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A HEMOCRIT MEASURES
- A.
PERCENTAGE OF RBC IN PACKED BLOOD
- B.
PERCENTAGE OF WBC IN PACKED BLOOD
- C.
PERCENTAGE OF PLATELETS IN PACKED BLOOD
- D.
BOTH A & B
Correct Answer
A. PERCENTAGE OF RBC IN PACKED BLOODExplanation
A hematocrit measures the percentage of red blood cells (RBC) in packed blood. It is a common blood test that helps determine the proportion of RBCs in relation to the total blood volume. This measurement is important because it can indicate various conditions such as anemia or polycythemia. By measuring the percentage of RBCs, healthcare professionals can assess the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and diagnose or monitor certain medical conditions.Rate this question:
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- 10.
THE PROCESS BY WHICH FORMED ELEMENTS OF THE BLOOD DEVELOP IS CALLED
- A.
HEMATOCRITATION
- B.
HEMOPOIESIS
- C.
ALBUMIN GENESIS
- D.
IMMUNOLOGY
Correct Answer
B. HEMOPOIESISExplanation
Hemopoiesis is the correct answer because it refers to the process by which the formed elements of blood, such as red and white blood cells and platelets, are produced and develop. Hemopoiesis occurs in the bone marrow and involves the differentiation and maturation of blood cells from hematopoietic stem cells. This process is essential for maintaining a healthy blood supply and ensuring proper functioning of the immune system.Rate this question:
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- 11.
A MEGAKARYOBLAST WILL DEVELOP INTO
- A.
RBC
- B.
WBC
- C.
PLATELET
- D.
BOTH B & C
Correct Answer
C. PLATELETExplanation
A megakaryoblast will develop into a platelet. Megakaryoblasts are precursors to platelets, which are small cell fragments involved in blood clotting. They are formed by the fragmentation of larger cells called megakaryocytes. Therefore, the correct answer is platelet.Rate this question:
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- 12.
DURING HEMOPOIESIS, SOME OF THE MYELOID STEM CELLS DIFFERENTIATE INTO
- A.
PROGENITOR CELLS
- B.
ENZYMES
- C.
PLASMA PROTEINS
- D.
HEME MOLECULES
Correct Answer
A. PROGENITOR CELLSExplanation
During hematopoiesis, myeloid stem cells differentiate into progenitor cells. Progenitor cells are the intermediate stage between stem cells and fully differentiated cells. They have a limited capacity for self-renewal and can differentiate into specific types of blood cells. This process is essential for the production of various blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Enzymes, plasma proteins, and heme molecules are not directly involved in the differentiation of myeloid stem cells during hematopoiesis.Rate this question:
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- 13.
THIS HORMONE STIMULATES PROLIFERATION OF RBC IN RED BONE MARROW
- A.
EPO
- B.
TPO
- C.
HUMAN GROWTH HORMONE
- D.
CALCITONIN
Correct Answer
A. EPOExplanation
EPO, or erythropoietin, is a hormone that stimulates the proliferation of red blood cells (RBCs) in the red bone marrow. It is produced by the kidneys in response to low oxygen levels in the blood. EPO binds to receptors on the surface of RBC precursor cells in the bone marrow, promoting their growth and differentiation into mature RBCs. This helps to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, improving oxygen delivery to tissues and organs.Rate this question:
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- 14.
HOW MANY HEMOGLOBIN MOLECULES ARE IN EACH RBC
- A.
50 MILLION
- B.
100 MILLION
- C.
280 MILLION
- D.
320 MILLION
Correct Answer
C. 280 MILLIONExplanation
Each red blood cell (RBC) contains approximately 280 million hemoglobin molecules. Hemoglobin is a protein found in RBCs that binds to oxygen and carries it throughout the body. The high number of hemoglobin molecules in each RBC allows for efficient oxygen transport, ensuring that enough oxygen reaches the body's tissues and organs.Rate this question:
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- 15.
FERRITIN IS USED TO
- A.
TRANSPORT IRON
- B.
STORE IRON
- C.
CONVERT IRON
- D.
SYNTHESIZE IRON
Correct Answer
B. STORE IRONExplanation
Ferritin is a protein that plays a crucial role in iron metabolism. It is responsible for storing iron in a non-toxic and soluble form within cells. This stored iron can be released when the body needs it for various physiological processes such as red blood cell production. Therefore, the correct answer is "STORE IRON."Rate this question:
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- 16.
A RED BLOOD CELL'S FUNCTION IS
- A.
NUTRIENT TRANSPORT
- B.
CYTOKINE STIMULATION
- C.
BLOOD CELL PROLIFERATION
- D.
GAS TRANSPORT
Correct Answer
D. GAS TRANSPORTExplanation
Red blood cells are responsible for carrying oxygen from the lungs to the body tissues and transporting carbon dioxide from the tissues back to the lungs. This process is known as gas transport. Oxygen binds to hemoglobin in red blood cells and is delivered to the tissues, while carbon dioxide is carried back to the lungs to be exhaled. Therefore, the correct answer is gas transport.Rate this question:
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- 17.
A RED BLOOD CELL WITHOUT A NUCLEUS IS CALLED A
- A.
PROERYTHROBLAST
- B.
CYTOKINE
- C.
PRECURSOR CELL
- D.
RETICULOCYTE
Correct Answer
D. RETICULOCYTEExplanation
A reticulocyte is a red blood cell that has matured but still retains some remnants of its nucleus. During the maturation process, the nucleus of a red blood cell is expelled to make room for hemoglobin, the protein that carries oxygen. However, some immature red blood cells, called reticulocytes, still contain small amounts of RNA, which can be seen under a microscope. These cells are considered a stage between the precursor cells and fully mature red blood cells. Therefore, a red blood cell without a nucleus is called a reticulocyte.Rate this question:
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- 18.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A PHAGOCYTE
- A.
MONOCYTES
- B.
PLATELET
- C.
LYMPHOCYTE
- D.
BASOPHIL
Correct Answer
A. MONOCYTESExplanation
Monocytes are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune system's defense against infections. They are considered phagocytes because they have the ability to engulf and destroy foreign particles, such as bacteria and viruses, through a process called phagocytosis. This allows them to help eliminate pathogens and promote the body's immune response. Platelets are responsible for blood clotting, lymphocytes are involved in immune responses, and basophils are involved in allergic reactions and inflammation. Therefore, the correct answer is monocytes.Rate this question:
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- 19.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING REDUCES BLOOD LOSS
- A.
ERYTHROCYTE
- B.
PLATELET
- C.
LYMPHOCYTE
- D.
BASOPHIL
Correct Answer
B. PLATELETExplanation
Platelets are responsible for clotting and coagulation of blood. When there is an injury or a cut, platelets rush to the site and form a plug to stop bleeding. They release chemicals that attract more platelets and help in the formation of a clot. This clot prevents further blood loss and allows the wound to heal. Therefore, platelets reduce blood loss by promoting clotting.Rate this question:
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- 20.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROMOTES INFLAMMATION
- A.
EOSINOPHIL
- B.
MONOCYTE
- C.
LYMPHOCYTE
- D.
BASOPHIL
Correct Answer
D. BASOPHILExplanation
Basophils are a type of white blood cell that promotes inflammation. They release histamine, a chemical that triggers the inflammatory response. Inflammation is a natural defense mechanism of the body that helps to protect and heal tissues. When basophils detect a threat, they release histamine, which causes blood vessels to dilate and become more permeable. This allows immune cells and fluid to enter the affected area, leading to redness, swelling, and warmth - all characteristic signs of inflammation. Therefore, basophils play a crucial role in promoting inflammation.Rate this question:
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- 21.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DESTROYS ANTIGEN-ANTIBODY COMPLEXES
- A.
EOSINOPHIL
- B.
MONOCYTE
- C.
LYMPHOCYTE
- D.
BASOPHIL
Correct Answer
A. EOSINOPHILExplanation
Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell that play a role in the immune response against parasites and allergic reactions. They release enzymes and toxic proteins that can destroy antigen-antibody complexes. This process helps to remove these complexes from the body and prevent further immune reactions.Rate this question:
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- 22.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROVIDES IMMUNE RESPONSE
- A.
EISINOPHIL
- B.
MACROPHAGE
- C.
LYMPHOCYTE
- D.
BASOPHIL
Correct Answer
C. LYMPHOCYTEExplanation
Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune response. They are responsible for recognizing and attacking foreign substances in the body, such as bacteria, viruses, and cancer cells. Lymphocytes produce antibodies, which are proteins that specifically target and neutralize these foreign substances. Additionally, lymphocytes can also directly kill infected cells. Therefore, lymphocytes provide an immune response by identifying and eliminating harmful pathogens and abnormal cells in the body.Rate this question:
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- 23.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT AN AGRANULAR LEUKOCYTE
- A.
MONOCYTES
- B.
MACROPHAGE
- C.
LYMPHOCYTE
- D.
BASOPHIL
Correct Answer
D. BASOPHILExplanation
Basophil is the correct answer because it is a granular leukocyte, not an agranular leukocyte. Agranular leukocytes, also known as mononuclear leukocytes, lack visible granules in their cytoplasm. Monocytes, macrophages, and lymphocytes are examples of agranular leukocytes. Basophils, on the other hand, are granulocytes and contain visible granules in their cytoplasm. They play a role in allergic reactions and immune response.Rate this question:
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- 24.
THE PROCESS OF WBC SQUEEZING BETWEEN CELLS TO EXIT THE BLOOD VESSEL IS CALLED
- A.
EMIGRATION
- B.
WANDERING
- C.
ADHESION
- D.
HEMOPOIESIS
Correct Answer
A. EMIGRATIONExplanation
The process of WBC squeezing between cells to exit the blood vessel is called emigration. This term refers to the movement of white blood cells from the bloodstream into the surrounding tissues. During inflammation or infection, white blood cells are recruited to the site of injury or infection and they need to leave the blood vessel to reach the affected area. Emigration allows them to pass through the endothelial cells lining the blood vessel and enter the tissue where they can carry out their immune functions.Rate this question:
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- 25.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DO MAST CELLS NOT RELEASE
- A.
HEPARIN
- B.
HISTAMINE
- C.
NITRIC OXIDE
- D.
PROTEASE
Correct Answer
C. NITRIC OXIDEExplanation
Mast cells are known to release various substances, including heparin, histamine, and protease. However, nitric oxide is not typically released by mast cells. Nitric oxide is primarily produced by endothelial cells and neuronal cells, and it serves as a signaling molecule in various physiological processes. Therefore, the correct answer is nitric oxide.Rate this question:
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- 26.
THIS HORMONE CAUSES THE DEVELOPMENT OF MEGAKARYOBLASTS
- A.
ERYTHROPOIETIN
- B.
THROMBOPOIETIN
- C.
NITRIC ACID
- D.
HUMAN GROWTH HORMONE
Correct Answer
B. THROMBOPOIETINExplanation
Thrombopoietin is the correct answer because it is a hormone that stimulates the production and development of megakaryoblasts, which are precursor cells for platelets. Thrombopoietin acts on the bone marrow to increase the number and size of megakaryocytes, leading to an increased production of platelets. This hormone plays a crucial role in maintaining adequate platelet levels in the blood, which is important for normal blood clotting and preventing excessive bleeding. Erythropoietin is a hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells, not megakaryoblasts. Nitric acid and human growth hormone are not involved in the development of megakaryoblasts.Rate this question:
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- 27.
WHICH METHODS PROVIDE HEMOSTASIS
- A.
VASCULAR SPASM, CLOTTING, POLYCYTHEMIA
- B.
HEMOLYSIS, VASCULAR SPASM, PLATELET PLUG FORMATION
- C.
EMIGRATION, CLOTTING, HEMOLYSIS
- D.
PLATELET PLUG FORMATION, VASCULAR SPASM, CLOTTING
Correct Answer
D. PLATELET PLUG FORMATION, VASCULAR SPASM, CLOTTINGExplanation
Platelet plug formation, vascular spasm, and clotting are all methods that provide hemostasis. Platelet plug formation involves platelets sticking together to form a plug at the site of injury, which helps to stop bleeding. Vascular spasm is the contraction of blood vessels in response to injury, which helps to reduce blood flow to the area. Clotting, also known as coagulation, involves the formation of a blood clot to seal the damaged blood vessel and prevent further bleeding. Together, these three methods work to achieve hemostasis and prevent excessive bleeding.Rate this question:
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- 28.
ONCE THIS IS FORMED, THE INTRINSIC AND EXTRINSIC PATHWAYS ARE IDENTICAL
- A.
THROMBOPLASTIN
- B.
PROTHROMBINASE
- C.
FIBRINOGEN
- D.
FIBRIN
Correct Answer
B. PROTHROMBINASEExplanation
Prothrombinase is the correct answer because it is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in the coagulation cascade. Once formed, prothrombinase activates prothrombin to form thrombin, which then converts fibrinogen into fibrin. This process is essential for blood clot formation. The statement in the question suggests that once prothrombinase is formed, both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of the coagulation cascade converge and follow the same steps to produce a blood clot.Rate this question:
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- 29.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CLOTTING FACTORS HAS THE MOST TO DO WITH STRENGTHENING AND STABILIZING A BLOOD CLOT
- A.
FACTOR V
- B.
FACTOR VII
- C.
FACTOR XI
- D.
FACTOR XIII
Correct Answer
D. FACTOR XIIIExplanation
Factor XIII is responsible for strengthening and stabilizing a blood clot. It plays a crucial role in the final stages of the clotting process by cross-linking the fibrin strands, which increases the clot's stability and resistance to breakdown. Without Factor XIII, the clot would be weak and easily dissolved, leading to prolonged bleeding and difficulty in wound healing.Rate this question:
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- 30.
CONSIDERING RH BLOOD TYPES, WHICH OF THE BELOW SITUATIONS WOULD RESULT IN MATERNAL ABS ATTACKING THE FETUS
- A.
MOM IS RH NEGATIVE AND FETUS IS RH NEGATIVE
- B.
MOM IS RH NEGATIVE AND FETUS IS RH POSITIVE
- C.
MOM IS RH POSITIVE AND FETUS IS RH NEGATIVE
- D.
MOM IS RH POSITIVE AND FETUS IS RH POSITIVE
Correct Answer
B. MOM IS RH NEGATIVE AND FETUS IS RH POSITIVEExplanation
When the mother is Rh negative and the fetus is Rh positive, the mother's immune system may produce antibodies against the Rh factor present in the fetal blood. This can happen if the mother has been previously sensitized to the Rh factor, either through a previous pregnancy or a blood transfusion. The antibodies produced by the mother can cross the placenta and attack the fetal red blood cells, leading to a condition known as hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) or erythroblastosis fetalis. This can result in severe anemia and other complications for the fetus.Rate this question:
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- 31.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING OPPOSES THE ACTION OF THROMBOXANE A2?
- A.
HEPARIN
- B.
FIBRINOGEN
- C.
PLASMIN
- D.
PROSTACYCLIN
Correct Answer
D. PROSTACYCLINExplanation
Prostacyclin opposes the action of thromboxane A2. Thromboxane A2 is a potent vasoconstrictor and platelet aggregator, promoting blood clot formation. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, is a potent vasodilator and inhibitor of platelet aggregation, preventing blood clot formation. Therefore, prostacyclin counteracts the effects of thromboxane A2, maintaining a balance in the body's clotting and anti-clotting mechanisms.Rate this question:
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- 32.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN ANTICOAGULANT
- A.
HEPARIN
- B.
FIBRINOGEN
- C.
PROTEASE
- D.
PROSTACYCLIN
Correct Answer
A. HEPARINExplanation
Heparin is an anticoagulant because it inhibits the formation of blood clots by preventing the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin, which is necessary for clot formation. It does this by enhancing the activity of antithrombin III, a natural anticoagulant in the body. Heparin is commonly used in medical settings to prevent and treat blood clots, particularly in conditions such as deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.Rate this question:
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- 33.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CELLS WILL DEVELOP INTO MACROPHAGES
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
Correct Answer
C. CExplanation
Cell C will develop into macrophages. Macrophages are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune system by engulfing and digesting foreign particles, microorganisms, and dead cells. Cell C is most likely a precursor cell or a stem cell that has the potential to differentiate into macrophages. This differentiation process is controlled by specific signals and factors in the body, which activate the necessary genes and trigger the development of macrophages from precursor cells.Rate this question:
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- 34.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CELLS WILL INCREASE THE NUMBER OF NUCLEAR LOBES AS THEY AGE
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
Correct Answer
A. A -
- 35.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CELLS IS NORMALLY CLASSIFIED AS SMALL OR LARGE
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
Correct Answer
B. BExplanation
The question asks which of the following cells is normally classified as small or large. Since the answer is B, it implies that cell B can be classified as either small or large. The question does not provide any further information or context to determine the specific criteria for classifying a cell as small or large.Rate this question:
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- 36.
WHICH ONE IS A WBC
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
BOTH B & C
Correct Answer
C. CExplanation
The correct answer is C because both B and C are options. Without any additional information or context, it is not possible to determine which one specifically is a white blood cell.Rate this question:
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- 37.
WHICH ONE IS THE PLURIPOTENT STEM CELL
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
Correct Answer
A. AExplanation
Pluripotent stem cells have the ability to differentiate into any type of cell in the body. Option A is the correct answer because it indicates that it is the pluripotent stem cell among the given options. Without any additional information or context, it is not possible to provide a more detailed explanation.Rate this question:
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- 38.
WHICH CELL IS THE MYELOID STEM CELL
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
Correct Answer
B. BExplanation
The myeloid stem cell is responsible for producing red blood cells, platelets, and certain types of white blood cells. Option B is the correct answer because it represents the myeloid stem cell.Rate this question:
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- 39.
WHICH CELL IS THE RETICULOCYTE
- A.
D
- B.
G
- C.
E
- D.
H
Correct Answer
C. E -
- 40.
WHICH CELL IS THE T LYMPHOCYTE
- A.
C
- B.
J
- C.
K
- D.
L
Correct Answer
B. J -
- 41.
WHICH CELL IS A NATURAL KILLER CELL
- A.
A
- B.
C
- C.
J
- D.
L
Correct Answer
D. L -
- 42.
WHAT IS THIS FIGURE DEMONSTRATING
- A.
ERYTHROPOIESIS
- B.
RBC DIFFERENTIATION
- C.
EMIGRATION
- D.
CLOT FORMATION
Correct Answer
C. EMIGRATIONExplanation
This figure is demonstrating the process of emigration. Emigration refers to the movement of cells, in this case, the movement of red blood cells (RBCs), from the blood vessels into the surrounding tissues. The figure likely shows RBCs leaving the blood vessel and entering the tissue, indicating the process of emigration.Rate this question:
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- 43.
WHAT DOES THIS FITURE REPRESENT
- A.
ERYTHROPOIESIS
- B.
RBC DIFFERENTIATION
- C.
EMIGRATION
- D.
CLOT FORMATION
Correct Answer
D. CLOT FORMATIONExplanation
This figure represents clot formation. Clot formation occurs when there is damage to a blood vessel, leading to the activation of platelets and the coagulation cascade. This process involves the formation of a fibrin mesh that traps red blood cells and platelets, forming a clot to stop bleeding. Clot formation is an essential physiological response to prevent excessive blood loss and promote wound healing.Rate this question:
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- 44.
WHAT ABS DOES A PERSON WITH TYPE O BLOOD HAVE IN THEIR PLASMA
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
A & B
- D.
NO ANTIBODIES
Correct Answer
C. A & BExplanation
A person with type O blood has both A and B antibodies in their plasma. This means that their immune system will react to both A and B antigens present on red blood cells. As a result, they can only receive blood transfusions from individuals with type O blood, as it does not have A or B antigens.Rate this question:
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- 45.
WHAT ANTIGENS DOES A PERSON HAVE ON THEIR RBC IF THEIR PLASMA HAS ANTIBODY A
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
O
- D.
A & B
Correct Answer
B. BExplanation
If a person's plasma has antibody A, it means that the person's immune system has produced antibodies against antigen A. Since the person's plasma has antibody A, it indicates that the person does not have antigen A on their red blood cells. Therefore, the person would have antigen B on their RBCs. This is because individuals with blood type B have antigen B on their red blood cells and produce antibodies against antigen A.Rate this question:
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- 46.
THIS IS THE MASS OF TISSUE FROM THE STERNUM TO THE VERTEBRAL COLUMN BETWEEN THE LUNGS
- A.
EPICARDIUM
- B.
PARIETAL LAYER
- C.
PERICARDIAL TISSUE
- D.
MEDIASTINUM
Correct Answer
D. MEDIASTINUMExplanation
The correct answer is MEDIASTINUM. The mediastinum is the mass of tissue located between the sternum and the vertebral column, between the lungs. It contains various structures such as the heart, major blood vessels, esophagus, trachea, thymus, and lymph nodes. It acts as a central compartment that separates the two pleural cavities and provides support and protection to the vital organs within it.Rate this question:
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- 47.
THIS IS THE LAYER THAT PROTECTS THE HEART
- A.
EPICARDIUM
- B.
PARIETAL LAYER
- C.
MYOCARDIAL TISSUE
- D.
MEDIASTINUM
Correct Answer
A. EPICARDIUMExplanation
The epicardium is the outermost layer of the heart and is responsible for protecting the heart from external damage. It is a thin layer made up of connective tissue and contains blood vessels, nerves, and fat. The epicardium also helps to lubricate the heart, allowing it to move and contract smoothly within the pericardial sac.Rate this question:
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- 48.
TO WHICH SIDE OF THE BODY IS THE APEX POINTED
- A.
AT THE MIDLINE
- B.
TO THE LEFT
- C.
TO THE RIGHT
- D.
DIFFERENT FOR MALES AND FEMALES
Correct Answer
B. TO THE LEFTExplanation
The correct answer is "TO THE LEFT". The apex of the body refers to the pointed tip or highest part of an organ or structure. In the context of the question, it is referring to the apex of the heart. The heart is located slightly towards the left side of the body, so the apex of the heart is also pointed towards the left side.Rate this question:
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- 49.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONSISTS OF INELASTIC DENSE IRREGULAR CONNECTIVE TISSUE
- A.
PERIETAL LAYER OF PERICARDIUM
- B.
SEROUS PERICARDIUM
- C.
FIBROUS PERICARDIUM
- D.
EPICARDIUM
Correct Answer
C. FIBROUS PERICARDIUMExplanation
Fibrous pericardium consists of inelastic dense irregular connective tissue. The fibrous pericardium is the tough outer layer of the pericardium that surrounds and protects the heart. It is composed of dense irregular connective tissue, which provides strength and support to the heart, preventing overstretching and maintaining the heart's shape. The inelastic nature of this tissue helps to maintain the position and stability of the heart within the thoracic cavity.Rate this question:
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- 50.
THIS IS USED TO REDUCE THE FRICTION BETWEEN MEMBRANES OF THE HEART
- A.
EPICARDIUM
- B.
ENDOCARDIUM LAYER
- C.
PERICARDIUM
- D.
PERICARDIAL (SEROUS) FLUID
Correct Answer
D. PERICARDIAL (SEROUS) FLUIDExplanation
Pericardial (serous) fluid is a clear fluid that fills the space between the layers of the pericardium, which is the protective sac surrounding the heart. This fluid acts as a lubricant, reducing the friction between the membranes of the heart as it beats and moves within the pericardium. By reducing friction, the pericardial fluid allows for smooth and efficient movement of the heart, preventing damage and ensuring proper functioning.Rate this question:
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