Sexual Health: Infertility Test Quiz!

22 Questions | Attempts: 597
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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    A 28-year-old woman and her partner present to their physician as they have not been able to achieve pregnancy during the past 1 year. Her partner, age 35, and she are both healthy and take no prescription medications. They are sexually active two to three times per week and do not use any contraception. Prior to initiating a potentially expensive infertility evaluation, they ask what percentage of reproductive-age couples are unable to conceive after 1 year of coitus without contraception?
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      40

    • D. 

      60

    • E. 

      90

  • 2. 
    A 31-year-old infertility patient with regular ovulatory menstrual cycles has begun therapy with clomiphene citrate. Before she starts therapy, what information should you provide her regarding the medication?
    • A. 

      Risk and side effects of clomiphene citrate include nausea, hot flushes, weight gain, and mood swings 

    • B. 

      Typically, the timing of ovulation is increased by a week.

    • C. 

      Approximately 40% of patients will respond to clomiphene citrate with increased endometrial thickness.

    • D. 

      The risk of multiple gestation is 25%.

    • E. 

      Clomiphene citrate improves the fecundity rate principally through its effect on the endometrial lining.

  • 3. 
    You are counseling a 30-year-old woman who wants to become pregnant. Which of the following is the most accurate method for her to time intercourse?
    • A. 

      Urinary luteinizing hormone (LH) kit testing

    • B. 

      Thermogenic shift in basal body temperature (BBT)

    • C. 

      Serum progesterone level

    • D. 

      Profuse, thin, acellular cervical mucus

    • E. 

      Mittelschmerz

  • 4. 
    In a young, obese, chronically anovulatory woman with an elevated LH:FSH (luteinizing hormone:follicle-stimulating hormone) ratio and polycystic-appearing ovaries, which of the following is the preferred initial method of ovulation induction?
    • A. 

      Clomiphene citrate

    • B. 

      Bromocriptine mesylate

    • C. 

      Pulsatile gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

    • D. 

      Human menopausal gonadotropins (hMGs)

    • E. 

      Metformin

  • 5. 
    A patient with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism desires ovulation. What is the initial treatment of choice?
    • A. 

      HMG therapy

    • B. 

      Low-dose estrogen therapy

    • C. 

      Bromocriptine mesylate

    • D. 

      Cyclic progesterone

    • E. 

      Clomiphene citrate

  • 6. 
    A woman who suffered from a severe postpartum hemorrhage and hypotensive shock that was associated with a placental abruption in a motor vehicle accident now has anterior pituitary failure (Sheehan syndrome). She wishes to have another child. Ovulation can be induced using which of the following hormonal therapies?
    • A. 

      HMG injections

    • B. 

      Low-dose estrogen therapy

    • C. 

      Pulsatile GnRH

    • D. 

      Clomiphene citrate

    • E. 

      Bromocriptine mesylate

  • 7. 
    Different sex hormones have different effects on the cervical mucus. Which of the following statements accurately describes the effect of estrogen?
    • A. 

      It increases cervical mucus stretchability (spinnbarkeit).

    • B. 

      It increases the amount of potassium chloride in the cervical mucus.

    • C. 

      It decreases formation of glycoprotein channels, which favor sperm penetration.

    • D. 

      It decreases the palm-leaf crystallization pattern of mucus upon drying (ferning).

    • E. 

      It decreases the water content of cervical mucus.

  • 8. 
    A patient who is now ovulating on clomiphene citrate has not conceived. You wish to do a postcoital test to see if there has been a negative cervical response to the anti-estrogen effects of the clomiphene citrate. She asks for information about the postcoital test (PCT). Which of the following best describes this test?
    • A. 

      It examines the ability of sperm to reach and survive in the mucus.

    • B. 

      It is performed within 1 hour of coitus.

    • C. 

      It is performed in the secretory phase of the cycle.

    • D. 

      It correlates the number of sperm in the cervical mucus with the pregnancy rate.

    • E. 

      It predicts whether pregnancy can occur.

  • 9. 
    A 31-year-old patient is preparing to start in vitro fertilization (IVF) because of obstructed fallopian tubes. On hysterosalpin-gogram (HSG), it is noted that she has large dilated hydrosalpinges present bilaterally. What should be your next step?
    • A. 

      Bilateral salpingectomies should be done prior to starting IVF.

    • B. 

      Her hydrosalpinges should be drained via transvaginal aspiration prior to starting IVF.

    • C. 

      The patient should not be offered the opportunity to have IVF.

    • D. 

      The patient should repeat the HSG to confirm the result.

    • E. 

      The patient should begin her IVF treatment cycle.

  • 10. 
    A 31-year-old G3P0Ab 3 woman is counseled to have an HSG for further evaluation of recurrent pregnancy loss and infertility? She has had three prior miscarriages requiring dilation and curettage. Otherwise, she is healthy. She has been attempting pregnancy for 13 months. Which of the following is the HSG likely to reveal given her history?
    • A. 

      Intrauterine synechiae

    • B. 

      Hydrosalpinx

    • C. 

      Proximal tubal obstruction

    • D. 

      Distal tubal obstruction

    • E. 

      Unicornuate uterus

  • 11. 
    A 33-year-old Asian woman complains of pelvic pain and amenorrhea associated with low-grade fever and weight loss. Physical examination demonstrates a tender pelvic mass. Surgical findings include dense pelvic adhesions, segmental dilatation of the fallopian tubes, and everted fimbria. Microscopic examination of the right fallopian tube shows proliferation of tubal folds with giant cells within the tube. Which diagnosis do these findings suggest?
    • A. 

      Tuberculosis

    • B. 

      Adenocarcinoma

    • C. 

      Endometriosis

    • D. 

      Gonorrheal salpingitis

    • E. 

      Salpingitis isthmica nodosa

  • 12. 
    A 27-year-old azoospermic male undergoes a testicular biopsy revealing normal seminiferous tubules. He is diagnosed with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and receives FSH and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) injections. What is the minimal time required before repeating the semen analysis for spermatogenesis response?
    • A. 

      90 days

    • B. 

      15 days

    • C. 

      30 days

    • D. 

      60 days

    • E. 

      120 days

  • 13. 
    A patient’s husband has had a previous vasectomy reversal. They have been attempting to achieve a pregnancy for a year without success. Which of the following tests should be considered primarily in this man?
    • A. 

      Semen analysis

    • B. 

      Split ejaculate analysis

    • C. 

      Sperm antibody testing

    • D. 

      Hamster egg sperm penetration assay

    • E. 

      Sims–Huhner test

  • 14. 
    A couple with male infertility characterized by a semen analysis with a sperm count of 14 million/mL (low), 25% motility (low), and 23% normal forms (low) presents to your clinic. The husband’s physical examination and hormone studies are normal. What is the most appropriate initial therapy?
    • A. 

      Intrauterine insemination with washed husband’s sperm

    • B. 

      Insemination with donor sperm

    • C. 

      IVF

    • D. 

      Varicocelectomy

    • E. 

      Clomiphene citrate

  • 15. 
    A 32-year-old male with oligospermia (low sperm count) has a history of fever accompanying painful swelling of the parotid gland and right testicle during high school. What is the most likely etiology of this condition?
    • A. 

      Mumps

    • B. 

      Cytomegalovirus

    • C. 

      Herpes simplex

    • D. 

      Varicella-zoster

    • E. 

      Influenza

  • 16. 
    A 43-year-old woman accompanied by her husband reports to you a history of pelvic adhesions and bilateral distal occlusion of both fallopian tubes with large hydrosalpinges. Both ovaries are buried in thick vascular adhesions. Adoption is not a consideration for the couple. What is the most appropriate recommended therapy for this couple?
    • A. 

      IVF using donor eggs

    • B. 

      Ovulation induction using gonadotropins with intrauterine inseminations

    • C. 

      Lysis of adhesions and surgical mobilization of the ovaries

    • D. 

      IVF using her own eggs

    • E. 

      Amete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)

  • 17. 
    During an ultrasound examination to harvest oocytes, the reproductive endocrinologist must be able to identify the position of the patient’s ovaries. Which landmark is most helpful in locating the ovaries?
    • A. 

      Iliac vessels

    • B. 

      Bladder

    • C. 

      Cul-de-sac

    • D. 

      Uterus

    • E. 

      Rectum

  • 18. 
    A 33-year-old patient has incapacitating midline dysmenorrhea. Cyclic oral contraceptive pills previously had been unsuccessful and she gets only mild relief from analgesics. She wishes to retain her uterus in hope of becoming pregnant in the future. Which of the following current treatment options may be helpful for dysmenorrhea but should be avoided because of reducing her chances of successful future pregnancy?
    • A. 

      Endometrial ablation

    • B. 

      Depo-lupron

    • C. 

      Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (Mirena)

    • D. 

      Continuous oral contraceptive pills (OCPs)

    • E. 

      Diagnostic laparoscopy

  • 19. 
    A woman has had three successive spontaneous abortions. She presents with a web printout of multiple therapies she wants to try. In your counseling you first let her know that without any treatment she is at risk of a fourth spontaneous abortion. Which of the following is the approximate percentage of risk?
    • A. 

      30–50%

    • B. 

      10–20%

    • C. 

      0–5%

    • D. 

      55-70%

    • E. 

      75-95%

  • 20. 
    A patient with two previable pregnancy losses has been told that she likely has an incompetent cervix. She asks you to tell her about this entity. Which of the following can you correctly tell her?
    • A. 

      It is characterized by painless dilatation of the cervix after the first trimester of pregnancy.

    • B. 

      It is easily diagnosed by precise measurement of cervical resistance to dilatation.

    • C. 

      It is associated with first-trimester spontaneous abortions.

    • D. 

      It is inherited as an autosomal recessive disease.

    • E. 

      It is primarily treated by medical therapy.

  • 21. 
    You are counseling a couple about factors that can affect fertility. Which of the following factors adversely affect spermatogenesis?
    • A. 

      Febrile illness

    • B. 

      Weekly intercourse

    • C. 

      Boxer shorts

    • D. 

      Exposure to cold

    • E. 

      Swimming

  • 22. 
    A 44-year-old woman is oligo-ovulatory and wants to conceive using her own eggs. Which of the following is the most predictive of diminished ovarian reserve as a result of age-related changes?
    • A. 

      Serum early follicular phase FSH and estradiol levels

    • B. 

      Serum early follicular phase FSH and LH levels

    • C. 

      Serum progesterone during the late luteal phase

    • D. 

      Serum inhibin B levels during the late luteal phase

    • E. 

      GnRH

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