CDC 3d052

46 Questions | Total Attempts: 485

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3d052 Quizzes & Trivia

Vol 1 and 2


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      10

  • 2. 
    What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is called?
    • A. 

      Homogeneous network.

    • B. 

      Internetwork.

    • C. 

      Intranetwork.

    • D. 

      Local area network (LAN).

  • 3. 
    What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?
    • A. 

      Internetwork.

    • B. 

      Intranetwork.

    • C. 

      Homogeneous network.

    • D. 

      Heterogeneous network.

  • 4. 
    What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?
    • A. 

      Internetwork.

    • B. 

      Intranetwork.

    • C. 

      Homogeneous network.

    • D. 

      Heterogeneous network.

  • 5. 
    What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?
    • A. 

      Global area network (GAN).

    • B. 

      Local area network (LAN).

    • C. 

      Metropolitan area network. (MAN).

    • D. 

      Wide area network. (WAN).

  • 6. 
    What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?
    • A. 

      Global area network (GAN).

    • B. 

      Local area network (LAN).

    • C. 

      Metropolitan area network. (MAN).

    • D. 

      Wide area network. (WAN).

  • 7. 
    What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?
    • A. 

      Global area network (GAN).

    • B. 

      Local area network (LAN).

    • C. 

      Metropolitan area network. (MAN).

    • D. 

      Wide area network. (WAN).

  • 8. 
    How many users are normally in a peer-to-peer network?
    • A. 

      2-10.

    • B. 

      10-50.

    • C. 

      50-250.

    • D. 

      250-1,000.

  • 9. 
    How many users are in a single-server network?
    • A. 

      2-10.

    • B. 

      10-50.

    • C. 

      50-250.

    • D. 

      250-1,000.

  • 10. 
    How many users are in a multi-server network?
    • A. 

      2-10.

    • B. 

      10-50.

    • C. 

      50-250.

    • D. 

      250-1,000.

  • 11. 
    How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network?
    • A. 

      2-10.

    • B. 

      10-50.

    • C. 

      50-250.

    • D. 

      250-1,000.

  • 12. 
    What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe?
    • A. 

      Local area network (LAN).

    • B. 

      Metropolitan area network (MAN).

    • C. 

      Multi-server high-speed backbone network.

    • D. 

      Enterprise network.

  • 13. 
    What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network? a. Media access control address.
    • A. 

      Media access control address.

    • B. 

      Network server name.

    • C. 

      Subnet mask address.

    • D. 

      Node serial number.

  • 14. 
    How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 15. 
    What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?
    • A. 

      01100000.

    • B. 

      01100110.

    • C. 

      00001100.

    • D. 

      10000001.

  • 16. 
    What is the network id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
    • A. 

      0.0.0.120.

    • B. 

      0.10.230.0.

    • C. 

      131.10.230.0.

    • D. 

      255.255.255.0.

  • 17. 
    What is the host id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
    • A. 

      0.0.0.120.

    • B. 

      0.10.230.0.

    • C. 

      131.10.230.0.

    • D. 

      255.255.255.0.

  • 18. 
    How many bits are typically covered in an internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask?
    • A. 

      24

    • B. 

      48

    • C. 

      64

    • D. 

      128

  • 19. 
    What series of Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      29

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      33

  • 20. 
    What Air Force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG)?
    • A. 

      AFPD 33–1.

    • B. 

      AFI 33–112.

    • C. 

      AFI 33–115v1.

    • D. 

      AFI 29–2603v2.

  • 21. 
    According to the Air Force network structure, what tier is the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 22. 
    What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers?
    • A. 

      Network control center (NCC).

    • B. 

      Network control center-deployable (NCC-D).

    • C. 

      Network operations center (NOSC).

    • D. 

      Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC).

  • 23. 
    What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?
    • A. 

      Fault management server.

    • B. 

      Network management server.

    • C. 

      Performance management server.

    • D. 

      Security management server.

  • 24. 
    Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?
    • A. 

      Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed.

    • B. 

      Centralized, hybrid and distributed.

    • C. 

      Centralized, hierarchical, and hybrid.

    • D. 

      Hybrid, hierarchical, and distributed.

  • 25. 
    What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties?
    • A. 

      Centralized.

    • B. 

      Distributed.

    • C. 

      Hierarchical.

    • D. 

      Hybrid.

  • 26. 
    What network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients?
    • A. 

      Centralized.

    • B. 

      Distributed.

    • C. 

      Hierarchical.

    • D. 

      Hybrid.

  • 27. 
    What level of network management activity are you working at when you as the network manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?
    • A. 

      Inactive.

    • B. 

      Interactive.

    • C. 

      Proactive.

    • D. 

      Reactive.

  • 28. 
     What level of network management activity are you working at when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at-hand?
    • A. 

      Inactive.

    • B. 

      Reactive.

    • C. 

      Interactive.

    • D. 

      Proactive.

  • 29. 
    Performance management can be broke into what two separate functional categories?
    • A. 

      Monitoring and analyzing.

    • B. 

      Monitoring and replacing.

    • C. 

      Monitoring and tuning.

    • D. 

      Analyzing and tuning.

  • 30. 
    Which function of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network?
    • A. 

      Tuning

    • B. 

      Analyzing

    • C. 

      Gathering

    • D. 

      Monitoring

  • 31. 
    What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?
    • A. 

      Configuration.

    • B. 

      Performance.

    • C. 

      Accounting.

    • D. 

      Security.

  • 32. 
    What is the established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?
    • A. 

      Fault parameters.

    • B. 

      Tolerance parameters.

    • C. 

      Low-level software alarms.

    • D. 

      Low-level software alarms.

  • 33. 
    Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of the operational system interface (OSI) model?
    • A. 

      Session.

    • B. 

      Transport.

    • C. 

      Presentation

    • D. 

      Application.

  • 34. 
    What is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices?
    • A. 

      Object identifier.

    • B. 

      Network device map.

    • C. 

      Network protocol list.

    • D. 

      Management information base.

  • 35. 
    What area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structure is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?
    • A. 

      Management.

    • B. 

      Private.

    • C. 

      Directory.

    • D. 

      Experimental.

  • 36. 
    What simple network management protocol (SNMP) node is responsible for monitoring, collecting and reporting management data to the management system?
    • A. 

      Primary domain controller (PDC).

    • B. 

      Backup domain controller.

    • C. 

      Manager.

    • D. 

      Agent.

  • 37. 
    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message asks for a specific instance of management information?
    • A. 

      Get.

    • B. 

      Set.

    • C. 

      Trap.

    • D. 

      GetNext.

  • 38. 
    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead?
    • A. 

      Get.

    • B. 

      Set.

    • C. 

      Trap.

    • D. 

      GetNext.

  • 39. 
    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information?
    • A. 

      Get

    • B. 

      Set

    • C. 

      Trap

    • D. 

      GetNext

  • 40. 
    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager?
    • A. 

      Get

    • B. 

      Set

    • C. 

      Trap

    • D. 

      GetNext

  • 41. 
    What is the type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB)?
    • A. 

      Virtual local area network (VLAN) probe.

    • B. 

      Neighbor probe.

    • C. 

      Containment probe.

    • D. 

      System information probe.

  • 42. 
    What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application?
    • A. 

      Broker.

    • B. 

      Clients.

    • C. 

      Map console.

    • D. 

      Domain manager.

  • 43. 
    What component of the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application contains knowledge of available domain managers?
    • A. 

      Broker.

    • B. 

      Clients.

    • C. 

      Probes.

    • D. 

      Consoles.

  • 44. 
    What are the three types of systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) notifications?
    • A. 

      Compound events, alarm, and trend.

    • B. 

      Compound events, problems, and network.

    • C. 

      Auto-discovery, compound, and symptomatic events.

    • D. 

      Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events.

  • 45. 
    What color on the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) alarm log indicates one or more events?
    • A. 

      Blue

    • B. 

      Orange

    • C. 

      Purple

    • D. 

      Yellow

  • 46. 
    How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide you about your network?
    • A. 

      7

    • B. 

      14

    • C. 

      19

    • D. 

      21