CDC 3d052
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Vol 1 and 2
- 1.What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
5
- D.
10
- 2.What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is called?
- A.
Homogeneous network.
- B.
Internetwork.
- C.
Intranetwork.
- D.
Local area network (LAN).
- 3.What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?
- A.
Internetwork.
- B.
Intranetwork.
- C.
Homogeneous network.
- D.
Heterogeneous network.
- 4.What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?
- A.
Internetwork.
- B.
Intranetwork.
- C.
Homogeneous network.
- D.
Heterogeneous network.
- 5.What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?
- A.
Global area network (GAN).
- B.
Local area network (LAN).
- C.
Metropolitan area network. (MAN).
- D.
Wide area network. (WAN).
- 6.What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?
- A.
Global area network (GAN).
- B.
Local area network (LAN).
- C.
Metropolitan area network. (MAN).
- D.
Wide area network. (WAN).
- 7.What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?
- A.
Global area network (GAN).
- B.
Local area network (LAN).
- C.
Metropolitan area network. (MAN).
- D.
Wide area network. (WAN).
- 8.How many users are normally in a peer-to-peer network?
- A.
2-10.
- B.
10-50.
- C.
50-250.
- D.
250-1,000.
- 9.How many users are in a single-server network?
- A.
2-10.
- B.
10-50.
- C.
50-250.
- D.
250-1,000.
- 10.How many users are in a multi-server network?
- A.
2-10.
- B.
10-50.
- C.
50-250.
- D.
250-1,000.
- 11.How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network?
- A.
2-10.
- B.
10-50.
- C.
50-250.
- D.
250-1,000.
- 12.What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe?
- A.
Local area network (LAN).
- B.
Metropolitan area network (MAN).
- C.
Multi-server high-speed backbone network.
- D.
Enterprise network.
- 13.What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network? a. Media access control address.
- A.
Media access control address.
- B.
Network server name.
- C.
Subnet mask address.
- D.
Node serial number.
- 14.How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
- 15.What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?
- A.
01100000.
- B.
01100110.
- C.
00001100.
- D.
10000001.
- 16.What is the network id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
- A.
0.0.0.120.
- B.
0.10.230.0.
- C.
131.10.230.0.
- D.
255.255.255.0.
- 17.What is the host id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
- A.
0.0.0.120.
- B.
0.10.230.0.
- C.
131.10.230.0.
- D.
255.255.255.0.
- 18.How many bits are typically covered in an internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask?
- A.
24
- B.
48
- C.
64
- D.
128
- 19.What series of Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?
- A.
10
- B.
29
- C.
30
- D.
33
- 20.What Air Force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG)?
- A.
AFPD 33–1.
- B.
AFI 33–112.
- C.
AFI 33–115v1.
- D.
AFI 29–2603v2.
- 21.According to the Air Force network structure, what tier is the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
- 22.What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers?
- A.
Network control center (NCC).
- B.
Network control center-deployable (NCC-D).
- C.
Network operations center (NOSC).
- D.
Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC).
- 23.What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?
- A.
Fault management server.
- B.
Network management server.
- C.
Performance management server.
- D.
Security management server.
- 24.Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?
- A.
Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed.
- B.
Centralized, hybrid and distributed.
- C.
Centralized, hierarchical, and hybrid.
- D.
Hybrid, hierarchical, and distributed.
- 25.What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties?
- A.
Centralized.
- B.
Distributed.
- C.
Hierarchical.
- D.
Hybrid.
- 26.What network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients?
- A.
Centralized.
- B.
Distributed.
- C.
Hierarchical.
- D.
Hybrid.
- 27.What level of network management activity are you working at when you as the network manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?
- A.
Inactive.
- B.
Interactive.
- C.
Proactive.
- D.
Reactive.
- 28.What level of network management activity are you working at when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at-hand?
- A.
Inactive.
- B.
Reactive.
- C.
Interactive.
- D.
Proactive.
- 29.Performance management can be broke into what two separate functional categories?
- A.
Monitoring and analyzing.
- B.
Monitoring and replacing.
- C.
Monitoring and tuning.
- D.
Analyzing and tuning.
- 30.Which function of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network?
- A.
Tuning
- B.
Analyzing
- C.
Gathering
- D.
Monitoring
- 31.What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?
- A.
Configuration.
- B.
Performance.
- C.
Accounting.
- D.
Security.
- 32.What is the established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?
- A.
Fault parameters.
- B.
Tolerance parameters.
- C.
Low-level software alarms.
- D.
Low-level software alarms.
- 33.Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of the operational system interface (OSI) model?
- A.
Session.
- B.
Transport.
- C.
Presentation
- D.
Application.
- 34.What is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices?
- A.
Object identifier.
- B.
Network device map.
- C.
Network protocol list.
- D.
Management information base.
- 35.What area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structure is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?
- A.
Management.
- B.
Private.
- C.
Directory.
- D.
Experimental.
- 36.What simple network management protocol (SNMP) node is responsible for monitoring, collecting and reporting management data to the management system?
- A.
Primary domain controller (PDC).
- B.
Backup domain controller.
- C.
Manager.
- D.
Agent.
- 37.What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message asks for a specific instance of management information?
- A.
Get.
- B.
Set.
- C.
Trap.
- D.
GetNext.
- 38.What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead?
- A.
Get.
- B.
Set.
- C.
Trap.
- D.
GetNext.
- 39.What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information?
- A.
Get
- B.
Set
- C.
Trap
- D.
GetNext
- 40.What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager?
- A.
Get
- B.
Set
- C.
Trap
- D.
GetNext
- 41.What is the type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB)?
- A.
Virtual local area network (VLAN) probe.
- B.
Neighbor probe.
- C.
Containment probe.
- D.
System information probe.
- 42.What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application?
- A.
Broker.
- B.
Clients.
- C.
Map console.
- D.
Domain manager.
- 43.What component of the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application contains knowledge of available domain managers?
- A.
Broker.
- B.
Clients.
- C.
Probes.
- D.
Consoles.
- 44.What are the three types of systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) notifications?
- A.
Compound events, alarm, and trend.
- B.
Compound events, problems, and network.
- C.
Auto-discovery, compound, and symptomatic events.
- D.
Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events.
- 45.What color on the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) alarm log indicates one or more events?
- A.
Blue
- B.
Orange
- C.
Purple
- D.
Yellow
- 46.How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide you about your network?
- A.
7
- B.
14
- C.
19
- D.
21
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