1.
What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?
Correct Answer
B. 2
2.
What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is
called?
Correct Answer
C. Intranetwork.
3.
What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that
run different operating systems and communication protocols?
Correct Answer
D. Heterogeneous network.
4.
What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible
equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?
Correct Answer
C. Homogeneous network.
5.
What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?
Correct Answer
B. Local area network (LAN).
6.
What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?
Correct Answer
C. Metropolitan area network. (MAN).
7.
What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an
unlimited geographical region?
Correct Answer
A. Global area network (GAN).
8.
How many users are normally in a peer-to-peer network?
Correct Answer
A. 2-10.
9.
How many users are in a single-server network?
Correct Answer
B. 10-50.
10.
How many users are in a multi-server network?
Correct Answer
C. 50-250.
11.
How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network?
Correct Answer
D. 250-1,000.
12.
What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities
or around the globe?
Correct Answer
D. Enterprise network.
13.
What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?
a. Media access control address.
Correct Answer
A. Media access control address.
14.
How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?
Correct Answer
B. 4
15.
What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?
Correct Answer
A. 01100000.
16.
What is the network id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
Correct Answer
C. 131.10.230.0.
17.
What is the host id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
Correct Answer
A. 0.0.0.120.
18.
How many bits are typically covered in an internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask?
Correct Answer
C. 64
19.
What series of Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?
Correct Answer
D. 33
20.
What Air Force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global
information grid (AF-GIG)?
Correct Answer
C. AFI 33–115v1.
21.
According to the Air Force network structure, what tier is the Air Force network operations
center (AFNOSC)?
Correct Answer
A. 1
22.
What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level
customers?
Correct Answer
A. Network control center (NCC).
23.
What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve
network efficiency and productivity?
Correct Answer
B. Network management server.
24.
Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?
Correct Answer
A. Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed.
25.
What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at
a location that is responsible for all network management duties?
Correct Answer
A. Centralized.
26.
What network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system
acting as a central server and the others working as clients?
Correct Answer
C. Hierarchical.
27.
What level of network management activity are you working at when you as the network
manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and
isolate problems to a root cause?
Correct Answer
B. Interactive.
28.
What level of network management activity are you working at when the automated
monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem
at-hand?
Correct Answer
D. Proactive.
29.
Performance management can be broke into what two separate functional categories?
Correct Answer
C. Monitoring and tuning.
30.
Which function of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on
the network?
Correct Answer
D. Monitoring
31.
What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?
Correct Answer
D. Security.
32.
What is the established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and
excessive errors because of a fault?
Correct Answer
B. Tolerance parameters.
33.
Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of
the operational system interface (OSI) model?
Correct Answer
A. Session.
34.
What is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information
available from network devices?
Correct Answer
D. Management information base.
35.
What area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structure is reserved
for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?
Correct Answer
B. Private.
36.
What simple network management protocol (SNMP) node is responsible for monitoring,
collecting and reporting management data to the management system?
Correct Answer
D. Agent.
37.
What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message asks for a
specific instance of management information?
Correct Answer
A. Get.
38.
What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to retrieve
multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead?
Correct Answer
D. GetNext.
39.
What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to modify
the value of one or more instances of management information?
Correct Answer
B. Set
40.
What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is an unsolicited
message from an agent to the manager?
Correct Answer
C. Trap
41.
What is the type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using
proprietary topology management information bases (MIB)?
Correct Answer
B. Neighbor probe.
42.
What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system
(SMARTS) application?
Correct Answer
D. Domain manager.
43.
What component of the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS)
application contains knowledge of available domain managers?
Correct Answer
A. Broker.
44.
What are the three types of systems management automated report tracking system
(SMARTS) notifications?
Correct Answer
D. Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events.
45.
What color on the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS)
alarm log indicates one or more events?
Correct Answer
C. Purple
46.
How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide you
about your network?
Correct Answer
D. 21