CDC 2s071 Volume 2 Multiple Choice Quiz
For private use only!
Questions and Answers
- 1.
(201) When an I023 management notice indicates suitable interchangeable or substitute items are available for issue, with whom must Demand Processing personnel verify approval?
- A.
Flight chief
- B.
Commander
- C.
Requesting agency
- D.
Responsible item manager
Correct Answer
C. Requesting agencyExplanation
Demand Processing personnel must verify approval with the requesting agency when an I023 management notice indicates suitable interchangeable or substitute items are available for issue. This is because the requesting agency is the one that made the initial request for the items and would need to approve any substitutions or interchangeables. The flight chief, commander, and responsible item manager may also be involved in the process, but ultimately it is the requesting agency that has the final say in approving the substitutions.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(201) Issues from a supply point are considered
- A.
Multiple issues
- B.
Over-the-counter
- C.
One-for-one exchange
- D.
Serviceable for unserviceable
Correct Answer
B. Over-the-counterExplanation
The correct answer is "over-the-counter." This means that the issues from a supply point are considered to be resolved directly at the point of sale, without the need for any formal documentation or authorization. This implies that the supply point has the authority to exchange or replace items on a one-for-one basis, without requiring any additional paperwork or approval. This method is often used for minor or routine issues that can be easily resolved without involving higher levels of management or complex procedures.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(201) What do personnel in a supply point use to process issues when they are operating without a terminal function?
- A.
Pre-post, TEX 6
- B.
Pre-post, TEX 7
- C.
Post-post, TEX 6
- D.
Post-post, TEX 7
Correct Answer
C. Post-post, TEX 6Explanation
Personnel in a supply point use the post-post, TEX 6 method to process issues when they are operating without a terminal function.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(201) The computer transaction automatically created to record the withdrawl of a mobility readiness spares package asset to satisfy a mission capability requirement is called
- A.
B9(x) MICAP report
- B.
BV(x) MICAP report
- C.
BVDA MICAP notification
- D.
BVDB MICAP notification
Correct Answer
A. B9(x) MICAP reportExplanation
The correct answer is B9(x) MICAP report. This report is generated automatically by the computer system to record the withdrawal of a mobility readiness spares package asset in order to fulfill a mission capability requirement. It is a standardized report that helps track and document the transaction for inventory management purposes.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(202) What activity code identifies an issue request as a core automated maintenance system document?
- A.
X
- B.
R
- C.
J
- D.
C
Correct Answer
C. JExplanation
The activity code "J" identifies an issue request as a core automated maintenance system document.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(202) What Standard Base Supply System output notifies the core automated maintenance system of changes in due-out status?
- A.
DUO
- B.
1SH
- C.
ISU
- D.
CSU
Correct Answer
B. 1SHExplanation
The correct answer is 1SH. The 1SH Standard Base Supply System output notifies the core automated maintenance system of changes in due-out status.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(203) How are cannibalizations processed for a mission capability termination?
- A.
TRIC SPR, delete code 4
- B.
TRIC SPR, delete code 8
- C.
TRIC NOR, delete code 4
- D.
TRIC NOR, delete code 8
Correct Answer
D. TRIC NOR, delete code 8Explanation
When a mission capability is terminated, cannibalizations are processed using TRIC NOR and delete code 8. This means that the cannibalized parts will be removed from the aircraft and recorded as not operationally ready. This allows for accurate tracking of the parts and ensures that they are not mistakenly used in other missions or aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(203) Which system provides visibility of mission capability and awaiting parts transactions by accepting transactions from depots and bases worldwide, maintains master records and reports for all levels of Air Logistics Center management, and provides the capability to reconcile your base's MICAP/AWP data with the depot?
- A.
C001
- B.
D165B
- C.
D043B
- D.
D200A
Correct Answer
B. D165BExplanation
The system that provides visibility of mission capability and awaiting parts transactions, maintains master records and reports for all levels of Air Logistics Center management, and allows reconciliation of base's MICAP/AWP data with the depot is D165B.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(204) To perform the due-in from maintenance reconcilliation, what listing is used?
- A.
D19
- B.
D20
- C.
D23
- D.
Q04
Correct Answer
C. D23Explanation
The correct answer is D23. This listing is used to perform the due-in from maintenance reconciliation.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(204) What due-in from maintenance detail records can be updated by the transaction identification code "DFM" input?
- A.
Memo and credit
- B.
Firm and credit
- C.
Firm and memo
- D.
Credit only
Correct Answer
C. Firm and memoExplanation
The transaction identification code "DFM" input can update the due-in from maintenance detail records for both firm and memo transactions. It does not update the due-in for credit transactions.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(205) When monitoring awaiting parts and end items, personnel at bases submit requests for repair parts on a fill or backorder basis using the urgency justification code
- A.
"AB" only
- B.
"AR" only
- C.
"AA" or "AB"
- D.
"AR" or "BR"
Correct Answer
D. "AR" or "BR"Explanation
Personnel at bases submit requests for repair parts on a fill or backorder basis using the urgency justification code "AR" or "BR". This means that they can request repair parts either with immediate urgency (code "AR") or with a lower priority urgency (code "BR"). This allows personnel to prioritize their requests based on the urgency of the situation, ensuring that critical repairs are addressed promptly while less urgent repairs can be backordered.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(206) Failure to process transaction identification code "TRN" data in a correct and timely manner results in reduced base stock levels and incomplete reports from which buy, repair, and distribution decisions are made by personnel in
- A.
HQ AFMC
- B.
CASO
- C.
GSA
- D.
DLA
Correct Answer
A. HQ AFMCExplanation
Failure to process transaction identification code "TRN" data in a correct and timely manner at HQ AFMC can lead to reduced base stock levels and incomplete reports. This can have a significant impact on the decision-making process for buy, repair, and distribution decisions made by personnel at HQ AFMC.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(206) What product would you use to verify transaction identification code "TRN" processing is completed?
- A.
Supply Point Listing
- B.
Daily Document Register
- C.
Base Supply Surveillance Report
- D.
Repair Cycle Asset Management List
Correct Answer
B. Daily Document RegisterExplanation
The Daily Document Register would be the appropriate product to use in order to verify that the transaction identification code "TRN" processing is completed. This register keeps a record of all daily documents, including transactions, and allows for easy tracking and verification of their completion.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(206) The net repair cycle days for a transaction identification code "TRN" input must be manually computed
- A.
When directed by the operation support officer
- B.
When the turnaround time exceeds 15 days
- C.
When the turnaround quantity exceeds 15
- D.
Upon receipt of a 256 Reject
Correct Answer
D. Upon receipt of a 256 RejectExplanation
The net repair cycle days for a transaction identification code "TRN" input must be manually computed upon receipt of a 256 Reject. This means that when a 256 Reject is received, the net repair cycle days for the TRN input need to be calculated manually. This suggests that there is a specific process or calculation that needs to be followed in order to determine the repair cycle days for this particular transaction identification code.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(207) To manage the flow of repair cycle assets properly, the preferred location for the processing of due-in from maintenance turn-ins is
- A.
Receiving
- B.
Distribution
- C.
War readiness
- D.
Repair cycle support
Correct Answer
D. Repair cycle supportExplanation
The preferred location for the processing of due-in from maintenance turn-ins is repair cycle support. This means that the assets that need repair or maintenance should be handled and processed in the repair cycle support area. This ensures that the assets are properly managed and repaired before they are distributed or used for war readiness. The repair cycle support area is specifically designed and equipped to handle repairs and maintenance tasks efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(207) The small groups of selected "XD" items that are candidates for two-level repair are known as
- A.
DLR
- B.
DLT
- C.
OAR
- D.
ALR
Correct Answer
A. DLRExplanation
DLR stands for "Designated Level Repair." In the context of the question, DLR refers to the small groups of selected "XD" items that are candidates for two-level repair. This means that these items have been specifically chosen for repair at a designated level, which suggests that they may require more extensive repairs or attention compared to other items.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(207) What listing will stock control personnel use to monitor property awaiting disposition instructions from the item manager?
- A.
D19, Part 2
- B.
D23, Part 4
- C.
D20, Part 2
- D.
D19, Part 4
Correct Answer
B. D23, Part 4Explanation
Stock control personnel will use the listing in D23, Part 4 to monitor property awaiting disposition instructions from the item manager.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(207) An XF3 item cannot be considered for condemnation unless it cannot be repaired or the cost to repair exceeds what percentage of the replacement cost?
- A.
50
- B.
75
- C.
90
- D.
100
Correct Answer
B. 75Explanation
An XF3 item cannot be considered for condemnation unless the cost to repair exceeds 75% of the replacement cost. This means that if the cost to repair the item is less than 75% of the replacement cost, it can be repaired instead of being condemned. However, if the cost to repair exceeds 75% of the replacement cost, the item is considered not economically feasible to repair and can be condemned.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(208) What supply condition code and action code is used to process a Product Quality/Materiel Deficiency Report turn-in?
- A.
F, 1
- B.
H, 9
- C.
A, B
- D.
Q, C
Correct Answer
D. Q, CExplanation
The supply condition code "Q" is used to indicate that the item being turned in is unserviceable and reparable. The action code "C" is used to indicate that the item is to be repaired or rehabilitated. Therefore, when processing a Product Quality/Materiel Deficiency Report turn-in, the supply condition code Q and action code C are used.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(208) What input is used to load the warehouse location/Product Quality/Materiel Deficiency Report control number on the due-in from maintenance detail record?
- A.
FSP
- B.
MDR
- C.
DFM
- D.
FCS
Correct Answer
C. DFMExplanation
The input used to load the warehouse location/Product Quality/Materiel Deficiency Report control number on the due-in from maintenance detail record is DFM.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(209) What management level includes war reserve materiel equipment requirements in appropriate allowance documents and assigns composition codes to war reserve materiel allowance standards?
- A.
HQ USAF
- B.
HQ AFMC
- C.
MAJCOM
- D.
Materiel management functional community
Correct Answer
B. HQ AFMCExplanation
HQ AFMC is the correct answer because it is responsible for including war reserve materiel equipment requirements in appropriate allowance documents and assigning composition codes to war reserve materiel allowance standards. This management level is specifically tasked with overseeing the materiel management functional community and ensuring that the necessary equipment and resources are available for war reserve operations.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(210) Which part of the S05 lists authorizations for which the computer could not find a war reserve materiel detail record?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
B. Two -
- 23.
(210) What financial restraint supportability code is loaded to all initial and increased war reserve materiel authorizations to prevent unauthorized use of materiel management activity group money for war reserve materiel purposes?
- A.
F
- B.
M
- C.
R
- D.
W
Correct Answer
A. FExplanation
The correct answer is F. In this context, the financial restraint supportability code F is loaded to all initial and increased war reserve materiel authorizations to prevent unauthorized use of materiel management activity group money for war reserve materiel purposes. This code ensures that the funds allocated for war reserve materiel are used appropriately and in accordance with the designated purpose.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(210) What report lists unsupportable war reserve materiel requirements?
- A.
S05
- B.
Q07
- C.
Q05
- D.
S07
Correct Answer
B. Q07 -
- 25.
(211) How many days can a mobility readiness spares package support a weapon system or weapon support system in a deployed location before re-supply is necessary?
- A.
30
- B.
60
- C.
90
- D.
120
Correct Answer
B. 60Explanation
A mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) can support a weapon system or weapon support system in a deployed location for 60 days before re-supply is necessary. This means that the MRSP contains enough spare parts, equipment, and supplies to sustain the weapon system for two months without needing additional resources. After 60 days, the MRSP would need to be replenished to ensure continued operational capability of the weapon system or support system.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(211) What form is attached to readiness spares package functional check items before they are moved to maintenance?
- A.
DD Form 1577
- B.
DD Form 1576
- C.
DD Form 1575
- D.
DD Form 1574
Correct Answer
B. DD Form 1576Explanation
Before readiness spares package functional check items are moved to maintenance, they are attached to DD Form 1576.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(211) Who is accountable for materiel during a deployment of 130 days?
- A.
Responsible AFMC item manager
- B.
Losing accountable officer
- C.
Gaining CSB
- D.
Losing CSB
Correct Answer
C. Gaining CSBExplanation
The gaining CSB (Consolidated Storage Base) is accountable for materiel during a deployment of 130 days. The CSB is responsible for receiving, storing, and issuing materiel to support the mission requirements. During a deployment, the CSB takes ownership and accountability of the materiel, ensuring its proper management and distribution. This includes tracking and maintaining accurate records of the materiel to ensure accountability and efficient logistics support.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(211) How many days before a deployment can a CONUS unit restrict readiness spares package assets from Military Capability Asset Sourcing System lateral sourcing?
- A.
7
- B.
9
- C.
11
- D.
14
Correct Answer
B. 9Explanation
A CONUS unit can restrict readiness spares package assets from Military Capability Asset Sourcing System lateral sourcing 9 days before a deployment. This means that the unit can prevent the sourcing of these assets from external sources 9 days prior to their deployment, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and equipment available for their mission.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(211) What transaction identification code input produces the necessary transactions, record updates and files to upload at the gaining activity, and produces documentation to support the transfer of MRSP/IRSP/MSK detail records?
- A.
1ED
- B.
FME
- C.
1WD
- D.
FKD
Correct Answer
C. 1WDExplanation
The transaction identification code 1WD produces the necessary transactions, record updates, and files to upload at the gaining activity, and also generates documentation to support the transfer of MRSP/IRSP/MSK detail records.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(211) When processing short-term equipment deployments, what transaction identification code input is used to deploy single items?
- A.
1ED
- B.
1ET
- C.
FET
- D.
FME
Correct Answer
A. 1EDExplanation
The transaction identification code input used to deploy single items during short-term equipment deployments is 1ED.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(211) When processing a short-term equipment deployment, what transaction identification code input and action code sets the deployed indicator to "D" and loads the deployed routing identifier to reflect where the asset is deployed?
- A.
1ED, D
- B.
1ET, E
- C.
FET, E
- D.
FME, D
Correct Answer
A. 1ED, DExplanation
The transaction identification code "1ED" and action code "D" are used to set the deployed indicator to "D" and load the deployed routing identifier to reflect where the asset is deployed.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(211) The Air Force Equipment Management System (C001) provides e-mail notices to the gaining accountable officer when deployed equipment assets are not reported received within
- A.
7 days
- B.
10 days
- C.
14 days
- D.
21 days
Correct Answer
A. 7 daysExplanation
The Air Force Equipment Management System (C001) sends e-mail notices to the gaining accountable officer if deployed equipment assets are not reported received within 7 days. This means that if the equipment is not accounted for within a week of being deployed, the system will automatically notify the accountable officer. This helps ensure that the equipment is properly tracked and accounted for, allowing for timely action to be taken if any discrepancies or issues arise.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(212) Who selects the methods for document distribution and creation?
- A.
Team Chief
- B.
ELRS Commander
- C.
Accountable Officer
- D.
Computer operations
Correct Answer
A. Team ChiefExplanation
The Team Chief is responsible for selecting the methods for document distribution and creation. This implies that the Team Chief has the authority and knowledge to determine the most suitable methods for distributing and creating documents within the team. The other options, such as ELRS Commander, Accountable Officer, and Computer Operations, do not have the same level of responsibility or decision-making power in this context.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(212) What system is used to process all transactions during degraded operations once the proper paperwork is completed?
- A.
CPS
- B.
SBSS
- C.
PC-SAM
- D.
INMARSAT
Correct Answer
D. INMARSATExplanation
INMARSAT is the correct answer because it is a system used to process all transactions during degraded operations once the proper paperwork is completed. This system is designed to provide reliable and secure communication services in remote or challenging environments, making it ideal for processing transactions when other systems may be unavailable or compromised.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(213) How many personnel and fighter squadrons will a BEAR Industrial Operations Set support?
- A.
3300 personnel/3 fighter squadrons
- B.
550 personnel/3 fighter squadrons
- C.
3300 personnel/5 fighter squadrons
- D.
550 personnel/5 fighter squadrons
Correct Answer
A. 3300 personnel/3 fighter squadronsExplanation
A BEAR Industrial Operations Set will support 3300 personnel and 3 fighter squadrons.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(213) Accountability of deployed BEAR assets are maintained for up to how many days on the account of the storing command's owning unit who shipped the assets?
- A.
30
- B.
60
- C.
90
- D.
179
Correct Answer
D. 179Explanation
The accountability of deployed BEAR assets is maintained for up to 179 days on the account of the storing command's owning unit who shipped the assets. This means that the unit responsible for storing and shipping the assets is responsible for maintaining the records and tracking the assets for a period of 179 days.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(214) During which phase of the deliberate planning process are support agreements drawn and finalized?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
V
Correct Answer
D. VExplanation
In phase V of the deliberate planning process, support agreements are drawn and finalized. This phase involves coordinating and integrating support plans with other organizations and agencies. It includes finalizing agreements for resources, logistics, and other support needed for the execution of the plan. This phase ensures that all necessary support is in place and that all parties involved are aware of their roles and responsibilities.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(214) As it applies to wartime capability documents, what computer database tells you the who, what, where, when, and how things need to deploy if the operations plan is implemented?
- A.
TPFDD
- B.
WSMIS
- C.
PC-ASM
- D.
LOGMOD
Correct Answer
A. TPFDDExplanation
The correct answer is TPFDD. TPFDD stands for Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data. It is a computer database that provides information on the who, what, where, when, and how of deploying resources during wartime operations. It helps in planning and coordinating the movement of personnel, equipment, and supplies to support the implementation of an operations plan.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(214) For wartime capability, a unit that is fully combat ready is identified by a
- A.
C-1 rating
- B.
C-2 rating
- C.
C-3 rating
- D.
C-4 rating
Correct Answer
A. C-1 ratingExplanation
A unit that is fully combat ready is identified by a C-1 rating. This rating indicates that the unit has the highest level of readiness and is fully prepared for wartime operations. It suggests that the unit has adequate training, equipment, and personnel to effectively carry out its mission in a combat environment.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(215) What wartime capability system provides HQ USAF, AF component commanders, MAJCOMs, and the Aerospace Expeditionary Force Center readiness information to employ, manage, and sustain Expeditionary Air Force operations?
- A.
ART
- B.
SORTS
- C.
AFWUS
- D.
PC-ASM
Correct Answer
A. ARTExplanation
The correct answer is ART. ART stands for Air Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool. It is a wartime capability system that provides HQ USAF, AF component commanders, MAJCOMs, and the Aerospace Expeditionary Force Center with readiness information to employ, manage, and sustain Expeditionary Air Force operations. It helps in tracking and reporting the readiness status of air expeditionary forces and enables effective planning and execution of air operations during wartime.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(216) What allowance manager has the responsibility for the final review and approval or disapproval of organizational and individual equipment items, quantities and basis of issue, and non-routine requests to be included in equipment allowance standards?
- A.
USAF
- B.
AFEMS
- C.
USAFE
- D.
HQ AIA
Correct Answer
B. AFEMSExplanation
AFEMS, which stands for Air Force Equipment Management System, is the allowance manager responsible for the final review and approval or disapproval of organizational and individual equipment items, quantities and basis of issue, and non-routine requests to be included in equipment allowance standards. This system ensures that equipment allowances are accurate and appropriate for the needs of the organization.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(217) A custodian used what Air Force form to request non-equipment authorization inventory data items?
- A.
2005
- B.
2003
- C.
2001
- D.
2000
Correct Answer
A. 2005Explanation
The custodian used the 2005 Air Force form to request non-equipment authorization inventory data items.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(217) Non-equipment authorization inventory data item requests are identifed by what Expendability, Recoverability, Reparability, Cost Designator?
- A.
NF1
- B.
ND1
- C.
XB3
- D.
XD2
Correct Answer
A. NF1Explanation
Non-equipment authorization inventory data item requests are identified by the Expendability, Recoverability, Reparability, Cost Designator code NF1. This code is used to classify and track inventory items that do not require equipment authorization.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(217) What Air Force form is used to request a change to an allowance standard or an equipment item whose basis of issue requires approval above wing or base level?
- A.
600
- B.
601
- C.
2005
- D.
2009
Correct Answer
B. 601Explanation
Air Force form 601 is used to request a change to an allowance standard or an equipment item whose basis of issue requires approval above wing or base level. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and allows personnel to submit their requests for changes in a standardized manner. It ensures that all necessary information is provided and allows for proper review and approval processes to take place.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(217) What menu option in the Air Force Equipment Management System (C001) is used to enter equipment allowance change requests electronically?
- A.
TORC
- B.
TRAC
- C.
TACR
- D.
OLVIMS
Correct Answer
C. TACRExplanation
TACR is the menu option in the Air Force Equipment Management System (C001) that is used to enter equipment allowance change requests electronically.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(218) A reporting organization file is accomplished
- A.
Daily
- B.
Weekly
- C.
Monthly
- D.
Semiannually
Correct Answer
B. WeeklyExplanation
A reporting organization file is accomplished on a weekly basis. This means that the file is completed, updated, or processed every week. This regular schedule allows for consistent tracking and monitoring of the organization's data and information. It ensures that the file is always up to date and accurate, providing timely insights and analysis for decision-making purposes.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(219) Personnel at what Air Force activity maintains a central file of all weapon items by serial number?
- A.
Ogden Air Logistics Center
- B.
San Antonio Air Logistics Center
- C.
Oklahoma Air Logistics Center
- D.
Warner-Robins Air Logistics Center
Correct Answer
D. Warner-Robins Air Logistics CenterExplanation
The Warner-Robins Air Logistics Center is responsible for maintaining a central file of all weapon items by serial number. This means that they keep a record of every weapon item and its corresponding serial number. This is important for tracking and managing the weapons inventory, as well as for ensuring accountability and security. The other options, Ogden Air Logistics Center, San Antonio Air Logistics Center, and Oklahoma Air Logistics Center, are not mentioned as being responsible for this specific task.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(219) Serial numbers for weapon items on hand in the LRS are maintained on what type detail?
- A.
249
- B.
250
- C.
DIFM
- D.
Non-EAID
Correct Answer
A. 249Explanation
The correct answer is 249. This implies that the serial numbers for weapon items on hand in the LRS are maintained on a type 249 detail.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(219) What is sent from the Serial Number Control System to a base that fails to process the communication security reconcilliation as required?
- A.
XHA COMSEC variance record
- B.
COMSEC error assessment record
- C.
XHA, COMSEC variance record with COMSEC error assessment code "2B"
- D.
XHB, COMSEC control reject report with COMSEC error notification code "7B"
Correct Answer
D. XHB, COMSEC control reject report with COMSEC error notification code "7B"Explanation
The correct answer is XHB, COMSEC control reject report with COMSEC error notification code "7B". This report is sent from the Serial Number Control System to a base that fails to process the communication security reconciliation as required. The report notifies the base about the error and provides the specific error notification code "7B". This allows the base to identify and address the specific issue that caused the failure in processing the communication security reconciliation.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(220) What type of adjusted stock level is used to restrict stockage?
- A.
Fixed
- B.
Minimum
- C.
Maximum
- D.
Restricted
Correct Answer
C. MaximumExplanation
The maximum adjusted stock level is used to restrict stockage. This means that there is a predefined upper limit to the amount of stock that can be held at any given time. Once the stock reaches this maximum level, further stockage is restricted, preventing any additional stock from being stored. This helps to ensure efficient inventory management and avoid overstocking, which can lead to increased holding costs and potential waste.Rate this question:
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